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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with sudden onset of upper abdominal pain and vomiting. His vital signs are stable upon triage.
During the physical examination, he appears to be in significant distress and has a tense abdomen upon palpation.
What initial test should be performed to confirm a perforation?Your Answer: Bedside ultrasound
Correct Answer: Erect chest X-ray
Explanation:The Importance of an Erect Chest X-Ray in Diagnosing Perforated Abdominal Viscus
When a patient presents with acute abdominal pain, it is crucial to consider the possibility of a perforated abdominal viscus, which requires immediate surgical intervention. The first-line investigation for this condition is an erect chest X-ray, which can detect the presence of free air under the diaphragm (pneumoperitoneum). To ensure accuracy, the patient should be in a seated position for 10-15 minutes before the X-ray is taken. If the patient cannot sit up due to hypotension, a lateral decubitus abdominal film may be used instead. However, in most cases, a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis will be requested by the surgical team.
Other diagnostic methods, such as a urine dipstick, liver function tests, and bedside ultrasound, are not effective in detecting a perforation. While plain abdominal films may show signs of perforation, they are not the preferred method of diagnosis. In cases of perforation, the presence of free abdominal air can make the opposite side of the bowel wall appear clearer, which is known as the Rigler’s signs or the double wall sign.
In conclusion, an erect chest X-ray is a crucial diagnostic tool in identifying a perforated abdominal viscus. Early detection and intervention can prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of losing 1 stone in weight over the past three months. Apart from this, he has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, his abdomen is soft, and no palpable masses are detected. A normal PR examination is also observed. The patient's blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 80 g/L (120-160) and an MCV of 70 fL (80-96). What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Abdominal x ray and colonoscopy
Correct Answer: Upper GI endoscopy and colonoscopy
Explanation:Possible GI Malignancy in a Man with Weight Loss and Microcytic Anaemia
This man is experiencing weight loss and has an unexplained microcytic anaemia. The most probable cause of his blood loss is from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, as there is no other apparent explanation. This could be due to an occult GI malignancy, which is why the recommended initial investigations are upper and lower GI endoscopy. These tests will help to identify any potential sources of bleeding in the GI tract and determine if there is an underlying malignancy. It is important to diagnose and treat any potential malignancy as early as possible to improve the patient’s prognosis. Therefore, prompt investigation and management are crucial in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic for a follow-up appointment after a liver biopsy. She was referred by her General Practitioner two weeks ago due to symptoms of fatigue, myalgia, abdominal bloating and significantly abnormal aminotransferases. The results of her liver biopsy and blood tests confirm a diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis (AIH).
What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?Your Answer: Tenofovir
Correct Answer: Azathioprine and prednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Autoimmune Hepatitis: Azathioprine and Prednisolone
Autoimmune hepatitis (AIH) is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects young and middle-aged women. The cause of AIH is unknown, but it is often associated with other autoimmune diseases. The condition is characterized by inflammation of the liver, which can progress to cirrhosis if left untreated.
The first-line treatment for AIH is a combination of azathioprine and prednisolone. Patients with moderate-to-severe inflammation should receive immunosuppressive treatment, while those with mild disease may be closely monitored instead. Cholestyramine, a medication used for hyperlipidemia and other conditions, is not a first-line treatment for AIH.
Liver transplantation is not typically recommended as a first-line treatment for AIH, but it may be necessary in severe cases. However, AIH can recur following transplantation. Antiviral medications like peginterferon alpha-2a and tenofovir are not effective in treating AIH, as the condition is not caused by a virus.
In summary, azathioprine and prednisolone are the primary treatment options for AIH, with liver transplantation reserved for severe cases. Other medications like cholestyramine, peginterferon alpha-2a, and tenofovir are not effective in treating AIH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 43-year-old man presents with painless jaundice 2 months after returning from a trip to Thailand. He has no known history of liver disease. Laboratory results reveal bilirubin levels of 210 µmol/l, ALT levels of 1206 iu/l, ALP levels of 405 iu/l, PT of 10 s, and albumin levels of 41 g/dl. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute hepatitis B
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Acute Hepatitis with Jaundice
Acute hepatitis with jaundice can have various causes, and a differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition. In this case, the blood tests indicate significant hepatocellular damage as the cause of the patient’s jaundice, making viral hepatitis the most likely option.
Acute hepatitis B is a common cause of jaundice, especially in endemic regions like Asia. The patient may have acquired the infection through sexual contact or needle-sharing. The acute infection usually lasts for 1-3 months, and most patients make a full recovery.
Acute hepatitis C is less likely as it is usually asymptomatic in adults, and only a small percentage develops symptoms. Primary biliary cholangitis, on the other hand, presents with an insidious onset of pruritus and lethargy, followed by jaundice, and causes a cholestatic picture. Acute alcoholic hepatitis rarely causes an ALT >500 and should be suspected if another cause or concomitant cause is present. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is chronic and usually leads to mildly abnormal liver function tests in patients with risk factors for the metabolic syndrome.
In conclusion, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute hepatitis with jaundice, and in this case, viral hepatitis is the most likely option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 43-year-old woman presents with haematemesis. She has vomited twice, producing large amount of bright red blood, although the exact volume was not measured. On examination, you discover that there is a palpable spleen tip, and spider naevi over the chest, neck and arms.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Oesophageal varices
Explanation:Causes and Management of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding
Upper gastrointestinal bleeding can be caused by various conditions, including oesophageal varices, Mallory-Weiss tear, peptic ulcer, gastric ulcer, and oesophagitis. In cases of suspected oesophageal varices, examination findings of splenomegaly and spider naevi suggest chronic liver failure with portal hypertension. Immediate management includes resuscitation, PPI levels, and urgent endoscopy to diagnose and treat the source of bleeding. Peptic ulcer is the most common cause of serious upper GI bleeding, but sudden-onset haematemesis of large volume of fresh blood is more suggestive of a bleed from oesophageal varices. OGD can diagnose both oesophageal varices and peptic ulcers. Oesophagitis may cause pain but is unlikely to lead to significant haematemesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old General Practice manager is referred to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a 2-year history of gastroenterological complaints. The patient reports abdominal bloating, especially after meals and in the evenings, and alternating symptoms of diarrhoea and constipation. She also has a history of anxiety and is currently very busy at work – she feels this is also having an impact on her symptoms, as her symptoms tend to settle when she is on leave.
Which one of the following features in the clinical history would point towards a likely organic cause of abdominal pain (ie non-functional) diagnosis?Your Answer: Abdominal bloating
Correct Answer: Unexplained weight loss
Explanation:Understanding Irritable Bowel Syndrome Symptoms and Red Flags
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a complex condition that can manifest in various ways. Some common symptoms include tenesmus, abdominal bloating, mucous per rectum, relief of symptoms on defecation, lethargy, backache, and generalised symptoms. However, it’s important to note that these symptoms alone do not necessarily indicate an organic cause of abdominal pain.
On the other hand, there are red flag symptoms that may suggest an underlying condition other than IBS. These include unintentional and unexplained weight loss, rectal bleeding, a family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and a change in bowel habit lasting for more than six weeks, especially in people over 60 years old.
It’s crucial to understand the difference between IBS symptoms and red flag symptoms to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any of the red flag symptoms, it’s essential to seek medical attention promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 23-year-old plumber is admitted to the Surgical Ward after undergoing an appendicectomy. A medical student conducts a thorough examination and takes a detailed medical history of the patient. The student observes that the patient is exhibiting jaundice but does not display any other symptoms of liver dysfunction. The liver function tests reveal the following results: total bilirubin of 52 mmol/l, aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 37 iu/l, alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 32 iu/l, and alkaline phosphatase 70 u/l. What is the likely condition affecting this patient?
Your Answer: Gilbert’s syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Jaundice: A Brief Overview
Jaundice is a common clinical finding that can be caused by a variety of underlying conditions. One possible cause is Gilbert’s syndrome, a congenital defect in the liver’s ability to conjugate bilirubin. This results in mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which may occasionally lead to jaundice during fasting or concurrent illness. However, Gilbert’s syndrome is typically benign and requires no treatment.
In contrast, Crigler-Najjar type I and type II are also defects in glucuronyl transferase activity, but they present with severe jaundice or death in the neonatal period. Wilson’s disease, a rare disorder of copper metabolism, can also cause jaundice, but it is unlikely to be the cause in this scenario.
Another possible cause of jaundice is Caroli’s syndrome, a congenital dilation of the intrahepatic bile duct that presents with recurrent episodes of cholangitis. It is important to differentiate between these various causes of jaundice in order to provide appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old university teacher returned to the United Kingdom after spending 2 years in India on a spiritual journey. During his time there, he stayed in various ashrams and ate local food with the local disciples. Unfortunately, he contracted malaria twice, suffered from diarrhoea once, and had a urinary tract infection. Upon returning to the UK, he complained of chronic diarrhoea and abdominal pain, which worsened after consuming milk. Blood tests showed a low haemoglobin level of 92 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), a high mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 109 fl (normal range: 76-98 fl), and a white cell count (WCC) of 8 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l). Stool samples and blood tests for IgA Ttg and HIV antibodies were negative. What test would be most helpful in diagnosing this patient?
Your Answer: Small intestinal aspirate culture
Correct Answer: Small intestinal biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Chronic Diarrhoea: A Comparison
Chronic diarrhoea can have various causes, including intestinal parasitic infection and malabsorption syndromes like tropical sprue. Here, we compare different diagnostic tests that can help in identifying the underlying cause of chronic diarrhoea.
Small Intestinal Biopsy: This test can diagnose parasites like Giardia or Cryptosporidium, which may be missed in stool tests. It can also diagnose villous atrophy, suggestive of tropical sprue.
Colonoscopy: While colonoscopy can show amoebic ulcers or other intestinal parasites, it is unlikely to be of use in investigating malabsorption.
Lactose Breath Test: This test diagnoses lactase deficiency only and does not tell us about the aetiology of chronic diarrhoea.
Serum Vitamin B12 Level: This test diagnoses a deficiency of the vitamin, but it will not tell about the aetiology, eg dietary insufficiency or malabsorption.
Small Intestinal Aspirate Culture: This test is done if bacterial overgrowth is suspected, which occurs in cases with a previous intestinal surgery or in motility disorders like scleroderma. However, there is no mention of this history in the case presented here.
In conclusion, the choice of diagnostic test depends on the suspected underlying cause of chronic diarrhoea. A small intestinal biopsy is a useful test for diagnosing both parasitic infections and malabsorption syndromes like tropical sprue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 76-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of worsening epigastric pain over the past two weeks. She describes a deep pain in the central part of her abdomen that tends to improve after eating and worsens approximately two hours after the meal. The pain does not radiate. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and takes methotrexate and anti-inflammatory medications. She is also a heavy smoker. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, there is tenderness in the epigastric region without guarding or rigidity. Bowel sounds are present. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Epigastric Pain: Peptic Ulcer Disease, Appendicitis, Chronic Mesenteric Ischaemia, Diverticulitis, and Pancreatitis
Epigastric pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to consider the differential diagnosis to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s risk factors for non-steroidal anti-inflammatory use and heavy smoking make peptic ulcer disease (PUD) in the duodenum the most likely diagnosis. Other potential causes of epigastric pain include appendicitis, chronic mesenteric ischaemia, diverticulitis, and pancreatitis. However, the patient’s symptoms and clinical signs do not align with these conditions. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when determining the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old gang member was brought to the Emergency Department with a knife still in his abdomen after being stabbed in the left upper quadrant. A CT scan revealed that the tip of the knife had punctured the superior border of the greater omentum at the junction of the body and pyloric antrum of the stomach.
What is the most likely direct branch artery that has been severed by the knife?Your Answer: Splenic artery
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The knife likely cut the right gastro-omental artery, which is a branch of the gastroduodenal artery. This artery runs along the greater curvature of the stomach within the superior border of the greater omentum and anastomoses with the left gastro-omental artery, a branch of the splenic artery. The coeliac trunk, which supplies blood to the foregut, is not related to the greater omentum but to the lesser omentum. The hepatic artery proper, one of the terminal branches of the common hepatic artery, courses towards the liver in the free edge of the lesser omentum. The splenic artery, a tortuous branch of the coeliac trunk, supplies blood to the spleen and gives off the left gastro-omental artery. The short gastric artery, on the other hand, supplies blood to the fundus of the stomach and branches off the splenic artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents with complaints of intermittent abdominal distension and bloating. She experiences bouts of loose motions that provide relief from the symptoms. There is no history of rectal bleeding or weight loss. The patient works as a manager in a busy office and finds work to be stressful. She has previously taken a course of fluoxetine for depression/anxiety. Abdominal examination is unremarkable.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
Explanation:IBS is a chronic condition that affects bowel function, but its cause is unknown. To diagnose IBS, patients must have experienced abdominal pain or discomfort for at least 3 months, along with two or more of the following symptoms: relief after defecation, changes in stool frequency or appearance, and abdominal bloating. Other symptoms may include altered stool passage, mucorrhoea, and headaches. Blood tests are recommended to rule out other conditions, and further investigation is not necessary unless symptoms of organic disease are present. Diverticulitis, anxiety disorder, Crohn’s disease, and ulcerative colitis are all conditions that can be ruled out based on the absence of certain symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Correct
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A patient presents with jaundice. The following results are available:
HBsAg +ve, HBeAg +ve, HBeAb −ve, HBc IgM +ve
Which one of the following interpretations is correct for a patient who is slightly older?Your Answer: Chronic hepatitis B with high infectivity
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Testing for hepatitis B involves several blood tests that can provide information about the patient’s current infection status, susceptibility to the virus, and immunity. Here are some key points to understand about hepatitis B test results:
Chronic Hepatitis B with High Infectivity
If a patient tests positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, it indicates a current infection with high infectivity. This means that the virus is highly active and can easily spread to others.Susceptible to Hepatitis B
If a patient tests negative for HBsAg, anti-HBc, IgM anti-HBc, and anti-HBs, it indicates that they are susceptible to hepatitis B and have not been infected or vaccinated against it.Chronic Hepatitis B with Low Infectivity
If a patient tests positive for HBeAg but negative for HBeAb, it indicates a chronic carrier state with low infectivity. This means that the virus is less active and less likely to spread to others.Previous Immunisation Against Hepatitis B
If a patient tests positive for HBV surface antibody, it indicates immunity to hepatitis B either through vaccination or natural infection. However, if they also test positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, it indicates an active infection rather than immunisation.Natural Immunity Against Hepatitis B
If a patient tests positive for HBV surface antibody, it indicates immunity to hepatitis B either through vaccination or natural infection. This means that they have been exposed to the virus in the past and have developed immunity to it. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 65-year-old man (with known metastatic pancreatic cancer) presented with severe obstructive jaundice and signs of hepatic encephalopathy. He was treated with a biliary stent (percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC)) and discharged when his jaundice, confusion and pruritus had started to improve. He re-presented shortly after discharge with rigors, pyrexia and feeling generally unwell. His blood cultures showed Gram-negative rods.
What is the most likely cause of his current presentation?Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Fever and Rigors in a Patient with a Biliary Stent
Introduction:
A patient with a biliary stent inserted via endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) presents with fever and rigors. This article discusses the possible causes of these symptoms.Possible Causes:
1. Ascending Cholangitis: This is the most likely option as the patient’s biliary stent and the ERCP procedure are both well-known risk factors for acute cholangitis. The obstruction caused by the stent can lead to recurrent biliary sepsis, which can be life-threatening and requires prompt treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics and IV fluids.2. Lower Respiratory Tract Infection: Sedation and endoscopy increase the risk of pulmonary infection, particularly aspiration. However, the biliary stent itself is the biggest risk factor, and the patient’s symptoms point towards ascending cholangitis.
3. Hepatitis: This is an unlikely cause of fever and rigors as there are no risk factors for common causes of acute hepatitis, and Gram-negative rods are not a common cause of hepatitis.
4. Metastatic Pancreatic Cancer: While this condition can increase the risk of infection due to immunocompromised, it does not fully explain the patient’s presentation as it would not cause frank fever and rigors.
5. Pyelonephritis: This bacterial infection of the kidney can cause pyrexia, rigors, and malaise, with Gram-negative rods, especially E. coli, as common causes. However, the recent biliary stent insertion puts this patient at high risk of ascending cholangitis.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, the most likely cause of fever and rigors in a patient with a biliary stent is ascending cholangitis. However, other possible causes should also be considered and ruled out through appropriate diagnostic tests. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A man with known ulcerative colitis presents to Accident and Emergency with a flare-up. He tells you that he is passing eight stools a day with blood and has severe nausea with abdominal pain at present. He normally takes oral mesalazine to control his condition. On examination, the patient is cool peripherally, with a heart rate of 120 bpm and blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg. Blood tests are done and relevant findings shown below.
Investigation Result Normal value
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 32 mm/hour < 20 mm/hour
Albumin 34 g/l 35–50 g/l
Temperature 37.9 °C 36.1–37.2 °C
Haemoglobin 98 g/l 115–155 g/l
Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?Your Answer: Add a topical aminosalicylate (suppository or enema) to current medications and review in 7 days
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital for intravenous (IV) corticosteroids, fluids and monitoring
Explanation:Appropriate Treatment Options for Severe Ulcerative Colitis Flare-Ups
Severe flare-ups of ulcerative colitis (UC) require prompt and appropriate treatment to manage the symptoms and prevent complications. Here are some treatment options that are appropriate for severe UC flare-ups:
Admit to Hospital for Intravenous (IV) Corticosteroids, Fluids, and Monitoring
For severe UC flare-ups with evidence of significant systemic upset, hospital admission is necessary. Treatment should involve nil by mouth, IV hydration, IV corticosteroids as first-line treatment, and close monitoring.
Avoid Topical Aminosalicylates and Analgesia
Topical aminosalicylates and analgesia are not indicated for severe UC flare-ups with systemic upset.
Inducing Remission with Topical Aminosalicylates is Inappropriate
For severe UC flare-ups, inducing remission with topical aminosalicylates is not appropriate. Admission and monitoring are necessary.
Azathioprine is Not Routinely Used for Severe Flare-Ups
Immunosuppression with azathioprine is not routinely used to induce remission in severe UC flare-ups. It should only be used in cases where steroids are ineffective or if prolonged use of steroids is required.
Medical Therapy Before Surgical Options
Surgical options should only be considered after medical therapy has been attempted for severe UC flare-ups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man presents to the Hepatology Clinic with mild elevations in levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and aminotransferases. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity, but denies alcohol use and past drug use. On physical examination, he is found to be obese with hepatomegaly. Laboratory studies show negative results for hepatitis and autoimmune liver disease. His aminotransferase, ALP, and autoimmune liver results are provided. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Azathioprine
Correct Answer: Weight loss
Explanation:Understanding Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease and Treatment Options
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) is a condition characterized by hepatic steatosis in the absence of alcohol or drug misuse. Patients with NAFLD often have other metabolic conditions such as obesity, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. Diagnosis involves ruling out other causes of hepatomegaly and demonstrating hepatic steatosis through liver biopsy or radiology. Conservative management with weight loss and control of cardiovascular risk factors is the mainstay of treatment, as there are currently no recommended medications for NAFLD.
Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive medication used in the management of autoimmune hepatitis. Before starting a patient on azathioprine, TPMT activity should be tested for, as those with low TPMT activity have an increased risk of azathioprine-induced myelosuppression. Liver transplant is indicated for patients with declining hepatic function or liver cirrhosis, which this patient does not have.
Naltrexone can be used for symptomatic relief of pruritus in patients with primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), but this patient has negative antibodies for autoimmune liver disease. Oral steroids are indicated in patients with autoimmune liver disease, which this patient does not have. Overall, understanding the diagnosis and treatment options for NAFLD is crucial for managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 53-year-old woman presents with haematemesis. She has vomited twice, producing large amounts of bright red blood, although the exact volume was not measured. On examination, you discover that there is a palpable spleen tip, and spider naevi over the chest, neck and arms.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Bleeding oesophageal varices
Explanation:Causes of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding and Their Differentiation
Upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate management. The following are some common causes of upper GI bleeding and their distinguishing features.
Bleeding Oesophageal Varices
Portal hypertension due to chronic liver failure can lead to oesophageal varices, which can rupture and cause severe bleeding, manifested as haematemesis. Immediate management includes resuscitation, proton pump inhibitors, and urgent endoscopy to diagnose and treat the source of bleeding.Mallory-Weiss Tear
A Mallory-Weiss tear causes upper GI bleeding due to a linear mucosal tear at the oesophagogastric junction, secondary to a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure. It occurs in patients after severe retching and vomiting or coughing.Peptic Ulcer
Peptic ulcer is the most common cause of serious upper GI bleeding, with the majority of ulcers in the duodenum. However, sudden-onset haematemesis of a large volume of fresh blood is more suggestive of a bleed from oesophageal varices. It is important to ask about a history of indigestion or peptic ulcers. Oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD) can diagnose both oesophageal varices and peptic ulcers.Gastric Ulcer
Sudden-onset haematemesis of a large volume of fresh blood is more suggestive of a bleed from oesophageal varices.Oesophagitis
Oesophagitis may be very painful but is unlikely to lead to a significant amount of haematemesis.Understanding the Causes of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of diarrhoea that has lasted for 2 weeks. She mentions passing mucous and blood rectally and reports feeling generally unwell. During the examination, the GP observes aphthous ulceration in her mouth and suspects a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis (UC). The GP decides to refer the patient to a gastroenterology consultant.
What is the recommended first-line medication for patients with mild to moderate UC?Your Answer: Mesalazine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis
Ulcerative colitis (UC) is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects the rectum and may spread to the colon. The main symptom is bloody diarrhea, and the disease follows a relapsing and remitting course. The goal of UC management is to treat acute relapses, prevent relapses, and detect cancers early.
Mesalazine is an effective first-line treatment for mild to moderate UC, which involves enemas and oral medication. For moderately active cases, oral aminosalicylates, topical aminosalicylates, and corticosteroids are used. Azathioprine is an immunomodulator that is rarely used to induce remission but is used to keep patients in remission. Hydrocortisone is a systemic steroid used for severe cases. Infliximab is an anti-tumor necrosis factor biologic used for moderate to severe cases that are refractory to standard treatment. Methotrexate is an alternative immunomodulator for patients who cannot tolerate azathioprine. It is important to discuss adequate contraception with patients on methotrexate due to its teratogenicity.
Understanding Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her flatmates who claim that she has vomited up blood. Apparently she had consumed far too much alcohol over the course of the night, had vomited on multiple occasions, and then began to dry-retch. After a period of retching, she vomited a minimal amount of bright red blood. On examination, she is intoxicated and has marked epigastric tenderness; her blood pressure is 135/75 mmHg, with a heart rate of 70 bpm, regular.
Investigations:
Investigation
Result
Normal value
Haemoglobin 145 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 301 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her?Your Answer: Discharge with 4 weeks of oral omeprazole
Correct Answer: Discharge in the morning if stable
Explanation:Management of Mallory-Weiss Tear: A Case Study
A Mallory-Weiss tear is a longitudinal mucosal laceration at the gastro-oesophageal junction or cardia caused by repeated retching. In a stable patient with a Hb of 145 g/l, significant blood loss is unlikely. Observation overnight is recommended, and if stable, the patient can be discharged the following morning. Further endoscopic investigation is not necessary in this case. Intravenous pantoprazole is not indicated for a Mallory-Weiss tear, and antacid treatment is unnecessary as the tear will heal spontaneously. Urgent endoscopic investigation is not required if the patient remains clinically stable and improves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with acute right upper quadrant abdominal pain and vomiting, which started earlier today.
On examination, the patient is not jaundiced and there is mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant and epigastrium. The blood results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 14 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 6.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 70 μmmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Bilirubin 25 mmol/l 2–17 mmol/l
Alkaline phosphatase 120 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 40 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Amylase 200 U/l < 200 U/l
Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Analgesia, iv fluids, nasogastric (NG) tube, US abdomen
Correct Answer: Analgesia, intravenous (iv) fluids, iv antibiotics, ultrasound (US) abdomen
Explanation:The patient is suspected to have acute cholecystitis, and a confirmation of the diagnosis will rely on an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. To manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent sepsis, it is essential to administer intravenous antibiotics and fluids. Antiemetics may also be necessary to prevent dehydration from vomiting. It is recommended to keep the patient ‘nil by mouth’ until the scan is performed and consider prescribing analgesia for pain relief. An NG tube is not necessary at this stage, and an OGD or ERCP may be appropriate depending on the scan results. The NICE guidelines recommend cholecystectomy within a week of diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 38-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner due to experiencing epigastric pain. The pain occurs approximately 3 hours after eating a meal. Despite using both histamine 2 receptor blockers and proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), he has only experienced moderate relief and tests negative on a urease breath test. An endoscopy is performed, revealing multiple duodenal ulcers. The patient's gastrin level is tested and found to be above normal. A computed tomography (CT) scan is ordered, and the patient is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which hormone typically inhibits gastrin secretion?
Your Answer: Somatostatin
Explanation:Hormones and Enzymes: Their Effects on Gastrin Secretion
Gastrin secretion is regulated by various hormones and enzymes in the body. One such hormone is somatostatin, which inhibits the release of gastrin. In the treatment of gastrinomas, somatostatin analogues like octreotide can be used instead of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs).
Aldosterone, on the other hand, is a steroid hormone that is not related to gastrin and has no effect on its secretion. Similarly, glycogen synthase and hexokinase, which play regulatory roles in carbohydrate metabolism, do not affect gastrin secretion.
Another steroid hormone, progesterone, also does not play a role in the regulation of gastrin secretion. Understanding the effects of hormones and enzymes on gastrin secretion can help in the development of targeted treatments for gastrointestinal disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 86-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, there is decreased airflow in the left base. A chest X-ray shows an air-fluid level located behind the mediastinum. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aspiration pneumonia of the left lower lobe of the lung
Correct Answer: Diaphragmatic hiatal hernia
Explanation:Diaphragmatic Hiatal Hernia
Diaphragmatic hiatal hernia is a condition where the fundus or gastro-oesophageal junction of the stomach herniates upwards in the chest due to an abnormal defect in the diaphragm. A chest X-ray may reveal gastric air and fluid behind the mediastinum, and reduced air entry at the lung bases due to compression of the lung lobes. Immediate management involves stabilizing the patient with ABCDE and seeking an urgent surgical review for a possible Nissen fundoplication.
Other conditions such as early cholangitis, aspiration pneumonia of the left lower lobe of the lung, ruptured left ventricle, or ruptured right ventricle may present with different symptoms and would not cause the air and fluid level behind the mediastinum seen in diaphragmatic hiatal hernia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is released from the hospital after suffering from a stroke. He was prescribed multiple new medications during his hospitalization. He complains of experiencing diarrhea. Which of the following medications is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Metformin is the Most Likely Medication to Cause Gastrointestinal Disturbances
When it comes to medications that can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, there are several options to consider. However, out of all the medications listed, metformin is the most likely culprit. While all of the medications can cause issues in the digestive system, metformin is known for causing more frequent and severe symptoms. It is important to be aware of this potential side effect when taking metformin and to speak with a healthcare provider if symptoms become too severe. By the potential risks associated with metformin, patients can make informed decisions about their treatment options and take steps to manage any gastrointestinal disturbances that may occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 50-year-old man was admitted for an endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography (ERCP) due to biliary colic. He had an uneventful procedure, but was re-admitted the same night with severe abdominal pain. He is tachycardic, short of breath, and has a pleural effusion on his chest X-ray (CXR). His blood tests show C-reactive protein (CRP) 200 mg/litre, white cell count (WCC) 16 × 109/litre, creatine 150 µmol/litre, urea 8 mmol/litre, phosphate 1.1 mmol/litre, calcium 0.7 mmol/litre.
What is his most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:Diagnosing and Managing Complications of ERCP: A Case Study
A patient presents with abdominal pain, hypocalcaemia, and a pleural effusion several hours after undergoing an ERCP. The most likely diagnosis is pancreatitis, a known complication of the procedure. Immediate management includes confirming the diagnosis and severity of pancreatitis, aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation, oxygen, and adequate analgesia. Severe cases may require transfer to intensive care. Intestinal and biliary perforation are unlikely causes, as they would have presented with immediate post-operative pain. A reaction to contrast would have occurred during the procedure. Another possible complication is ascending cholangitis, which presents with fever, jaundice, and abdominal pain, but is unlikely to cause hypocalcaemia or a pleural effusion. It is important to promptly diagnose and manage complications of ERCP to prevent severe complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with fever, abdominal pain and bright red, bloody bowel movements for the last 12 hours. She has also had multiple episodes of non-bloody vomiting for the last eight hours. She was diagnosed with ulcerative colitis three years ago and has been non-compliant with her management plan.
Her observations are as follows:
Temperature 38.3°C
Blood pressure 105/59 mmHg
Heart rate 105 bpm
Respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute
SpO2 99% (room air)
Examination demonstrates a diffusely tender and distended abdomen with hypoactive bowel sounds.
Which of the following is the next best diagnostic step?Your Answer: Oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD)
Correct Answer: Abdominal X-ray
Explanation:Imaging Modalities for Abdominal Conditions: Choosing the Right Test
When a patient presents with abdominal symptoms, choosing the appropriate imaging modality is crucial for accurate diagnosis and timely treatment. Here are some considerations for different tests:
Abdominal X-ray: This is a quick and effective way to assess for conditions such as toxic megacolon, which can be life-threatening. A dilated transverse colon (>6 cm) on an abdominal X-ray is diagnostic of toxic megacolon.
Abdominal ultrasound: This test is useful for assessing the abdominal aorta for aneurysms, but it is not recommended for suspected inflammatory bowel disease.
Oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD): This test is recommended for patients with suspected oesophageal or gastric pathology, but it is not useful for assessing the large colon.
Colonoscopy: While colonoscopy is a valuable tool for diagnosing ulcerative colitis, it is contraindicated during acute flares as it increases the risk of bowel perforation.
Computed tomography (CT) scan of the kidney, ureters and bladder: This test is indicated for patients with suspected kidney stones, which typically present with loin to groin pain and haematuria.
In summary, choosing the right imaging modality depends on the suspected condition and the patient’s symptoms. A prompt and accurate diagnosis can lead to better outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 3-day-old baby born at term is brought to the Neonatal Unit with green fluid vomiting and a swollen belly. The baby was doing fine after birth and was being breastfed. The parents mention that the baby has urinated but has not yet passed meconium. During the examination, the baby seems weak, pale, and breathing rapidly.
What could be the probable reason for the baby's deteriorating condition?Your Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a neonate with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium
Hirschsprung’s disease, NEC, biliary atresia, GBS sepsis, and haemolytic disease of the newborn are among the possible causes of abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium in a neonate. Hirschsprung’s disease is the most likely diagnosis in a term neonate with bilious vomiting and absence of meconium, as it results from a developmental failure of the gut’s parasympathetic plexus. Surgical intervention via colostomy is necessary to relieve obstruction and prevent enterocolitis. NEC, which involves bowel necrosis, is more common in preterm neonates and may present with similar symptoms. Biliary atresia, a cause of neonatal jaundice, is less likely in this case, as the baby is pale and has not yet passed meconium. GBS sepsis is a potential diagnosis in any unwell neonate, but the history of not passing meconium within the first 48 hours and the presence of bilious vomit and distended abdomen suggest Hirschsprung’s disease as a more likely cause. Haemolytic disease of the newborn, caused by rhesus antibodies crossing the placenta, would not present with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium. Accurate diagnosis and prompt management are crucial in ensuring the best outcome for the neonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents with nausea, vomiting, epigastric discomfort and weight loss over the last 2 months. On questioning, he describes postprandial fullness and loss of appetite. He denies any dysphagia, melaena or haematemesis. He has a long-standing history of heartburn. He has no other relevant past medical history. Investigations reveal iron deficiency anaemia. Endoscopy confirms gastric cancer.
What is a risk factor for gastric cancer in this 67-year-old man?Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Correct Answer: Helicobacter pylori
Explanation:Risk Factors and Protective Measures for Gastric Cancer
Gastric cancer is a prevalent form of cancer worldwide, but its incidence is decreasing. Several factors are associated with an increased risk of developing gastric cancer, including pernicious anaemia, blood group A, smoking, and a diet high in nitrate and salt. However, a diet rich in citrus fruits and leafy green vegetables can decrease the risk. Helicobacter pylori infection is a significant risk factor, with a relative risk of 5.9. However, this bacterium is not a risk factor for cancer of the gastric cardia, which is increasing and associated with long-term gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, smoking, and obesity. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may have a protective effect in preventing gastric cancer. Blood group B and a higher education/social class are protective factors. A diet rich in fresh fruits and vegetables is also likely to be protective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis complains of abdominal pain. She denies any accompanying nausea or vomiting. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome
Explanation:Distal Intestinal Obstruction Syndrome in Cystic Fibrosis Patients
Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome is a common complication in 10-20% of cystic fibrosis patients, with a higher incidence in adults. The condition is caused by the loss of CFTR function in the intestine, leading to the accumulation of mucous and fecal material in the terminal ileum, caecum, and ascending colon. Diagnosis is made through a plain abdominal radiograph, which shows faecal loading in the right iliac fossa, dilation of the ileum, and an empty distal colon. Ultrasound and CT scans can also be used to identify an obstruction mass and show dilated small bowel and proximal colon.
Treatment for mild and moderate episodes involves hydration, dietetic review, and regular laxatives. N-acetylcysteine can be used to loosen and soften the plugs, while severe episodes may require gastrografin or Klean-Prep. If there are signs of peritoneal irritation or complete bowel obstruction, surgical review should be obtained. Surgeons will often treat initially with intravenous fluids and a NG tube while keeping the patient nil by mouth. N-acetylcysteine can be put down the NG tube.
Overall, distal intestinal obstruction syndrome is a serious complication in cystic fibrosis patients that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. With proper management, patients can avoid severe complications and maintain their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old professional who is working long hours develops intermittent periods of abdominal pain and bloating. She also notices a change in bowel habit and finds that going to the restroom helps to relieve her abdominal pain.
Which of the following drug treatments may help in the treatment of her colic and bloating symptoms?Your Answer: Fybogel
Correct Answer: Mebeverine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common functional bowel disorder that affects mostly young adults, with women being more commonly affected than men. The diagnosis of IBS can be established using the Rome IV criteria, which includes recurrent abdominal pain or discomfort for at least one day per week in the last three months, along with two or more of the following: improvement with defecation, onset associated with a change in frequency of stool, or onset associated with a change in form (appearance) of the stool.
There are several treatment options available for IBS, depending on the predominant symptoms. Mebeverine, an antispasmodic, can be used to relieve colicky abdominal pain. Loperamide can be useful for patients with diarrhea-predominant IBS (IBS-D), while osmotic laxatives such as macrogols are preferred for constipation-predominant IBS (IBS-C). Cimetidine, a histamine H2 receptor antagonist, can help with acid reflux symptoms, but is unlikely to help with colic or bloating. Metoclopramide, a D2 dopamine receptor antagonist, is used as an antiemetic and prokinetic, but is not effective for colic and bloating symptoms.
In summary, treatment options for IBS depend on the predominant symptoms and can include antispasmodics, laxatives, and acid reflux medications. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman comes to the Surgical Admissions Unit complaining of colicky abdominal pain and vomiting in the right upper quadrant. The pain started while eating but is now easing. During the examination, she appears restless and sweaty, with a pulse rate of 100 bpm and blood pressure of 125/86. An abdominal ultrasound reveals the presence of gallstones.
What is the most frequent type of gallstone composition?Your Answer: Cholesterol
Explanation:Gallstones are formed in the gallbladder from bile constituents. In Europe and the Americas, they can be made of pure cholesterol, bilirubin, or a mixture of both. Mixed stones, also known as brown pigment stones, usually contain 20-80% cholesterol. Uric acid is not typically found in gallstones unless the patient has gout. Palmitate is a component of gallstones, but cholesterol is the primary constituent. Increased bilirubin production, such as in haemolysis, can cause bile pigment stones, which are most commonly seen in patients with haemolytic anaemia or sickle-cell disease. Calcium is a frequent component of gallstones, making them visible on radiographs, but cholesterol is the most common constituent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of progressive weakness and fatigue. He reports experiencing 'abdominal complaints' for the past 6 years, without relief from any treatments. Upon examination, he appears severely pale and has glossitis. He has been having bowel movements five to six times per day. The only significant history he has is that he had to undergo surgery at the age of 4 to remove a swallowed toy. Blood tests show the following results: Hemoglobin - 98 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), Vitamin B12 - 60 pmol/l (normal range: 160-900 pmol/l), Folate - 51 μg/l (normal range: 2.0-11.0 μg/l), and Cholesterol - 2.7 mmol/l (normal range: <5.2 mmol/l). What is the appropriate definitive treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Gluten free diet
Correct Answer: Antibiotics
Explanation:Treatment Options for Small Intestinal Bacterial Overgrowth (SIBO)
Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) is a condition that can cause malabsorption, chronic diarrhea, and megaloblastic anemia. It is often caused by a failure of normal mechanisms that control bacterial growth within the small gut, such as decreased gastric acid secretion and factors that affect gut motility. Patients who have had intestinal surgery are also at an increased risk of developing SIBO.
The most effective treatment for SIBO is a course of antibiotics, such as metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, co-amoxiclav, or rifaximin. A 2-week course of antibiotics may be tried initially, but in many patients, long-term antibiotic therapy may be needed.
In contrast, a gluten-free diet is the treatment for coeliac disease, which presents with malabsorption and iron deficiency anemia. Steroids are not an appropriate treatment for SIBO or coeliac disease, as they can suppress local immunity and allow further bacterial overgrowth.
Vitamin B12 replacement is necessary for patients with SIBO who have megaloblastic anemia due to B12 malabsorption and metabolism by bacteria. There is no indication of intestinal tuberculosis in this patient, but in suspected cases, intestinal biopsy may be needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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