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  • Question 1 - Parasympathetic fibers innervating the parotid gland originate from where? ...

    Incorrect

    • Parasympathetic fibers innervating the parotid gland originate from where?

      Your Answer: Ciliary ganglion

      Correct Answer: Otic ganglion

      Explanation:

      The inferior salivatory nucleus is responsible for regulating the secretion of saliva from the parotid gland through postsynaptic parasympathetic fibers. These fibers exit the brain via the glossopharyngeal nerve’s tympanic branch and pass through the tympanic plexus in the middle ear before forming the lesser petrosal nerve. The otic ganglion is where the fibers synapse before continuing on as part of the mandibular nerve’s auriculotemporal branch to reach the parotid gland.

      The parotid gland is located in front of and below the ear, overlying the mandibular ramus. Its salivary duct crosses the masseter muscle, pierces the buccinator muscle, and drains adjacent to the second upper molar tooth. The gland is traversed by several structures, including the facial nerve, external carotid artery, retromandibular vein, and auriculotemporal nerve. The gland is related to the masseter muscle, medial pterygoid muscle, superficial temporal and maxillary artery, facial nerve, stylomandibular ligament, posterior belly of the digastric muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, stylohyoid muscle, internal carotid artery, mastoid process, and styloid process. The gland is supplied by branches of the external carotid artery and drained by the retromandibular vein. Its lymphatic drainage is to the deep cervical nodes. The gland is innervated by the parasympathetic-secretomotor, sympathetic-superior cervical ganglion, and sensory-greater auricular nerve. Parasympathetic stimulation produces a water-rich, serous saliva, while sympathetic stimulation leads to the production of a low volume, enzyme-rich saliva.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      14.7
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  • Question 2 - A 49-year-old woman experiences jaundice and undergoes an ERCP. After 36 hours, she...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman experiences jaundice and undergoes an ERCP. After 36 hours, she develops a fever and rigors. What organism is most likely to be cultured from her blood sample?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      A surgical emergency is indicated when Charcot’s triad is present. Patients require biliary decompression and administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics. The most frequently identified organism in cholangitis infections is E. coli, with enterobacter being a less common finding.

      Ascending Cholangitis: A Bacterial Infection of the Biliary Tree

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. The primary risk factor for this condition is gallstones. Patients with ascending cholangitis may experience Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant pain. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Fever is the most common symptom, occurring in 90% of patients, followed by RUQ pain (70%) and jaundice (60%). In some cases, patients may also experience hypotension and confusion, which, when combined with the other three symptoms, makeup Reynolds’ pentad.

      In addition to the above symptoms, patients with ascending cholangitis may also have raised inflammatory markers. Ultrasound is typically the first-line investigation used to diagnose this condition. It is used to look for bile duct dilation and stones.

      The management of ascending cholangitis involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction. By understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with ascending cholangitis, healthcare providers can diagnose and treat this condition promptly, reducing the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      14.4
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old male is having surgery to remove his appendix due to appendicitis....

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male is having surgery to remove his appendix due to appendicitis. Where is the appendix typically located in the body?

      Your Answer: Retrocaecal

      Explanation:

      The majority of appendixes are located in the retrocaecal position. In cases where removal of a retrocaecal appendix proves challenging, mobilizing the right colon can greatly enhance accessibility.

      Appendix Anatomy and Location

      The appendix is a small, finger-like projection located at the base of the caecum. It can be up to 10cm long and is mainly composed of lymphoid tissue, which can sometimes lead to confusion with mesenteric adenitis. The caecal taenia coli converge at the base of the appendix, forming a longitudinal muscle cover over it. This convergence can aid in identifying the appendix during surgery, especially if it is retrocaecal and difficult to locate. The arterial supply to the appendix comes from the appendicular artery, which is a branch of the ileocolic artery. It is important to note that the appendix is intra-peritoneal.

      McBurney’s Point and Appendix Positions

      McBurney’s point is a landmark used to locate the appendix during physical examination. It is located one-third of the way along a line drawn from the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to the Umbilicus. The appendix can be found in six different positions, with the retrocaecal position being the most common at 74%. Other positions include pelvic, postileal, subcaecal, paracaecal, and preileal. It is important to be aware of these positions as they can affect the presentation of symptoms and the difficulty of locating the appendix during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal pain, weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal pain, weight loss, and diarrhoea for the past 6 months. During gastroscopy, a gastrinoma is discovered in the antrum of his stomach. What is the purpose of the hormone produced by this tumor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It increases HCL production and increases gastric motility

      Explanation:

      A tumor that secretes gastrin is known as a gastrinoma, which leads to an increase in both gastrointestinal motility and HCL production. It should be noted that while gastrin does increase gastric motility, it does not have an effect on the secretion of pancreatic fluid. This is instead regulated by hormones such as VIP, CCK, and secretin.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man who is a heavy smoker complains of dyspepsia. Upon testing,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man who is a heavy smoker complains of dyspepsia. Upon testing, he is diagnosed with helicobacter pylori infection. Later, he experiences an episode of haematemesis and faints. Which blood vessel is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      It is probable that he has a duodenal ulcer located at the back. Such ulcers can penetrate the gastroduodenal artery and result in significant bleeding. While gastric ulcers can also invade vessels, they are not typically associated with major bleeding of this type.

      The Gastroduodenal Artery: Supply and Path

      The gastroduodenal artery is responsible for supplying blood to the pylorus, proximal part of the duodenum, and indirectly to the pancreatic head through the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries. It commonly arises from the common hepatic artery of the coeliac trunk and terminates by bifurcating into the right gastroepiploic artery and the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

      To better understand the relationship of the gastroduodenal artery to the first part of the duodenum, the stomach is reflected superiorly in an image sourced from Wikipedia. This artery plays a crucial role in providing oxygenated blood to the digestive system, ensuring proper functioning and health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 6 - Surgical occlusion of which of these structures will cause the most significant decrease...

    Incorrect

    • Surgical occlusion of which of these structures will cause the most significant decrease in hepatic blood flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      The contents of the portal vein consist of digested products. Sinusoids distribute arterial and venous blood to the central veins of the liver lobules, which then empty into the hepatic veins and ultimately into the IVC. Unlike other hepatic veins, the caudate lobe directly drains into the IVC.

      Structure and Relations of the Liver

      The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.

      The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.

      The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 7 - A healthy 56-year-old woman attends her flexible sigmoidoscopy as part of the UK's...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 56-year-old woman attends her flexible sigmoidoscopy as part of the UK's national screening program. While performing the procedure, the surgeon observes and biopsies several polyps for further analysis. Additionally, the patient has multiple hyperpigmented macules on her lips.

      During her follow-up visit, the patient is informed that the type of polyp found in her bowel increases her risk of developing cancers in other parts of her body.

      What is the name of the benign colorectal tumor that the patient has?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peutz-Jeghers polyps

      Explanation:

      Understanding Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract, particularly in the small bowel. In addition, patients with this syndrome may also have pigmented freckles on their lips, face, palms, and soles.

      While the polyps themselves are not cancerous, individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of developing other types of gastrointestinal tract cancers. In fact, around 50% of patients will have died from another gastrointestinal tract cancer by the age of 60 years.

      Common symptoms of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome include small bowel obstruction, which is often due to intussusception, as well as gastrointestinal bleeding. Management of this condition is typically conservative unless complications develop. It is important for individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome to undergo regular screening and surveillance to detect any potential cancerous growths early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 8 - Samantha is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing painless obstructive jaundice. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing painless obstructive jaundice. Upon investigation, a malignancy is discovered. The surgeon recommends a Whipple's procedure to remove the malignancy.

      What type of malignancy is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Ductal adenocarcinoma is the most frequently occurring type of pancreatic cancer, particularly in the head of the pancreas. Endocrine tumors of the pancreas are uncommon.

      Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.

      Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.

      Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.

      Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old soldier sustains a gunshot wound to the abdomen resulting in severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old soldier sustains a gunshot wound to the abdomen resulting in severe damage to the abdominal aorta. The surgeons opt to place a vascular clamp just below the diaphragm to control the bleeding. What is the potential risk of injury to one of the vessels during this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior phrenic arteries

      Explanation:

      The inferior phrenic arteries, which are the first branches of the abdominal aorta, are most vulnerable. On the other hand, the superior phrenic arteries are located in the thorax. The area around the diaphragmatic hiatus could be a valuable location for aortic occlusion, but keeping the clamp on for more than 10-15 minutes typically results in unfavorable results.

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 10 - The action of which one of the following brush border enzymes leads to...

    Incorrect

    • The action of which one of the following brush border enzymes leads to the production of glucose and galactose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lactase

      Explanation:

      Enzymes play a crucial role in the breakdown of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal system. Amylase, which is present in both saliva and pancreatic secretions, is responsible for breaking down starch into sugar. On the other hand, brush border enzymes such as maltase, sucrase, and lactase are involved in the breakdown of specific disaccharides. Maltase cleaves maltose into glucose and glucose, sucrase cleaves sucrose into fructose and glucose, while lactase cleaves lactose into glucose and galactose. These enzymes work together to ensure that carbohydrates are broken down into their simplest form for absorption into the bloodstream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following hemodynamic changes is not observed in hypovolemic shock? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hemodynamic changes is not observed in hypovolemic shock?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced systemic vascular resistance

      Explanation:

      Cardiogenic shock can occur due to conditions such as a heart attack or valve abnormality. This can lead to an increase in systemic vascular resistance (vasoconstriction in response to low blood pressure), an increase in heart rate (due to sympathetic response), a decrease in cardiac output, and a decrease in blood pressure. Hypovolemic shock can occur due to blood volume depletion from causes such as hemorrhage, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, or third-space losses during major surgeries. This can lead to an increase in systemic vascular resistance, an increase in heart rate, a decrease in cardiac output, and a decrease in blood pressure. Septic shock occurs when peripheral vascular dilatation causes a fall in systemic vascular resistance. This response can also occur in anaphylactic shock or neurogenic shock. In septic shock, there is a reduced systemic vascular resistance, an increased heart rate, a normal or increased cardiac output, and a decrease in blood pressure. Typically, systemic vascular resistance will decrease in septic shock.

      Shock is a condition where there is not enough blood flow to the tissues. There are five main types of shock: septic, haemorrhagic, neurogenic, cardiogenic, and anaphylactic. Septic shock is caused by an infection that triggers a particular response in the body. Haemorrhagic shock is caused by blood loss, and there are four classes of haemorrhagic shock based on the amount of blood loss and associated symptoms. Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a disruption in the autonomic nervous system, leading to decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Adrenaline is the most important drug in treating anaphylaxis and should be given as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of abdominal pain, diarrhea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of abdominal pain, diarrhea, and painful aphthous ulcers that have been bothering him for the last four weeks. He has also observed that his clothes have become loose lately.

      What is the typical disease pattern associated with his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inflammation anywhere from the mouth to anus

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is characterized by inflammation that can occur anywhere from the mouth to the anus. This patient’s symptoms, including weight loss, abdominal pain, and diarrhea, suggest inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). The presence of mouth ulcers indicates Crohn’s disease, as it is known for causing discontinuous inflammation throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Ulcerative colitis, on the other hand, does not cause mouth ulcers and typically involves continuous inflammation that extends from the rectum. While colorectal polyposis can be a complication of IBD, it alone does not explain the patient’s symptoms. Ulcerative colitis is characterized by continuous inflammation that is limited to the submucosa and originates in the rectum, which is not the case for this patient.

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 13 - An 80-year-old man who frequently drinks alcohol presents to his doctor with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man who frequently drinks alcohol presents to his doctor with symptoms of productive cough, fever, and chills. Upon examination, a chest x-ray reveals a distinct cavity in the right lower lobe with an air-fluid level. The patient's sputum is sent for culture and sensitivity, and he is prescribed clindamycin.

      After ten days, the patient reports experiencing watery diarrhea 3-4 times a day and abdominal pain. He has not experienced any fever or weight loss, and his vital signs are normal. What is the initial medication recommended for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vancomycin

      Explanation:

      The preferred antibiotic for treating C. difficile infection is oral vancomycin. However, in the case of a patient with clinical features and radiological findings indicative of a lung abscess, who also has a history of alcohol consumption that increases the risk of aspiration and lung abscesses, clindamycin was used as a treatment. Unfortunately, this led to the development of a C. difficile infection, which can be confusing when considering the antibiotics involved in causing and treating the infection.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old man presents with fatigue and joint pains for the past 8...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with fatigue and joint pains for the past 8 months. He cannot recall any specific trigger for the symptoms and they have been persistent. During examination, you observe that his skin is quite tanned but no other significant findings are noted.

      The following are his blood test results:

      - Bilirubin: 10 umol/L
      - ALT: 120 IU/L
      - Albumin: 35 g/L
      - Ferritin: 450 mg/mL
      - Transferrin saturation: 70%
      - Random plasma glucose: 17.0 mmol/L

      Afterwards, a genetic test was conducted and returned with positive results. Based on the most probable diagnosis, what is the mode of inheritance for this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      The probable condition affecting the patient is hereditary haemochromatosis, which is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. The presence of iron overload and abnormal liver function tests are indicative of this diagnosis. Additionally, the patient’s elevated blood glucose levels and skin pigmentation changes may suggest the presence of bronze diabetes.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms and Complications

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to iron accumulation in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is prevalent in people of European descent, with 1 in 10 carrying a mutation in the genes affecting iron metabolism. Early symptoms of haemochromatosis are often non-specific, such as lethargy and arthralgia, and may go unnoticed. However, as the disease progresses, patients may experience fatigue, erectile dysfunction, and skin pigmentation.

      Other complications of haemochromatosis include diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis. While some symptoms are reversible with treatment, such as cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy, liver cirrhosis is irreversible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 15 - A passionate surgical resident attempts his first independent splenectomy. The procedure proves to...

    Incorrect

    • A passionate surgical resident attempts his first independent splenectomy. The procedure proves to be more challenging than expected and the resident places a tube drain in the splenic bed at the conclusion of the surgery. Within the next 24 hours, around 500ml of clear fluid drains into the tube. What is the most probable result of biochemical testing on the fluid?

      Elevated creatinine
      28%
      Elevated triglycerides
      10%
      Elevated glucagon
      9%
      Elevated amylase
      25%
      None of the above
      29%

      During a splenectomy, the tail of the pancreas may be harmed, causing the pancreatic duct to drain into the splenic bed, resulting in an increase in amylase levels. Glucagon is not produced in the pancreatic duct.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated amylase

      Explanation:

      If the tail of the pancreas is damaged during splenectomy, the pancreatic duct may end up draining into the splenic bed. This can result in an increase in amylase levels, but there will be no secretion of glucagon into the pancreatic duct.

      Understanding the Anatomy of the Spleen

      The spleen is a vital organ in the human body, serving as the largest lymphoid organ. It is located below the 9th-12th ribs and has a clenched fist shape. The spleen is an intraperitoneal organ, and its peritoneal attachments condense at the hilum, where the vessels enter the spleen. The blood supply of the spleen is from the splenic artery, which is derived from the coeliac axis, and the splenic vein, which is joined by the IMV and unites with the SMV.

      The spleen is derived from mesenchymal tissue during embryology. It weighs between 75-150g and has several relations with other organs. The diaphragm is superior to the spleen, while the gastric impression is anterior, the kidney is posterior, and the colon is inferior. The hilum of the spleen is formed by the tail of the pancreas and splenic vessels. The spleen also forms the apex of the lesser sac, which contains short gastric vessels.

      In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the spleen is crucial in comprehending its functions and the role it plays in the human body. The spleen’s location, weight, and relations with other organs are essential in diagnosing and treating spleen-related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 16 - During an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, a 78-year-old man has two clamps placed...

    Incorrect

    • During an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, a 78-year-old man has two clamps placed on his aorta, with the inferior clamp positioned at the point of aortic bifurcation. Which vertebral body will be located posterior to the clamp at this level?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The point at which the aorta divides into two branches is known as the bifurcation, which is a crucial anatomical landmark that is frequently assessed. This bifurcation typically occurs at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebrae (L4).

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 17 - A 46-year-old male has presented with bruises on his legs. He also reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old male has presented with bruises on his legs. He also reports that he bleeds excessively whenever he gets a cut on his limbs. He has a past medical history of familial hypercholesterolaemia. His body mass index is 31 kg/m2. He does not have a medical history of bleeding disorders and denies a family history of haemophilia.

      During his last visit, his lipid profile showed elevated total cholesterol, elevated LDL and low HDL. He was prescribed a medication to help lower his LDL cholesterol.

      What medication was he most likely prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholestyramine

      Explanation:

      Cholestyramine has the potential to decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamin A, D, E, and K. Vitamin K is particularly important for the production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, and a deficiency in this vitamin can result in clotting abnormalities.

      Clomiphene is a medication used to stimulate ovulation in women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), and it is not linked to an elevated risk of bleeding.

      Psyllium husk is not known to cause any bleeding disorders.

      Cholestyramine: A Medication for Managing High Cholesterol

      Cholestyramine is a medication used to manage high levels of cholesterol in the body. It works by reducing the reabsorption of bile acid in the small intestine, which leads to an increase in the conversion of cholesterol to bile acid. This medication is particularly effective in reducing LDL cholesterol levels. In addition to its use in managing hyperlipidaemia, cholestyramine is also sometimes used to treat diarrhoea following bowel resection in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      However, cholestyramine is not without its adverse effects. Some patients may experience abdominal cramps and constipation while taking this medication. It can also decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, which can lead to deficiencies if not properly managed. Additionally, cholestyramine may increase the risk of developing cholesterol gallstones and raise the level of triglycerides in the blood. Therefore, it is important for patients to discuss the potential benefits and risks of cholestyramine with their healthcare provider before starting this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 18 - An older gentleman was discovered to have an asymptomatic midline abdominal mass. What...

    Incorrect

    • An older gentleman was discovered to have an asymptomatic midline abdominal mass. What physical feature during examination would suggest a diagnosis of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Expansile

      Explanation:

      Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm:
      An abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is frequently found incidentally in men, particularly in older age groups. As a result, ultrasound screening has been introduced in many areas to detect this condition. However, the diagnosis of AAA cannot be made based on pulsatility alone, as it is common for pulsations to be transmitted by the organs that lie over the aorta. Instead, an AAA is characterized by its expansile nature. If a tender, pulsatile swelling is present, it may indicate a perforated AAA, which is a medical emergency. Therefore, it is important for men to undergo regular screening for AAA to detect and manage this condition early.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 19 - A scan is being done on a foetus which is 34 weeks gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A scan is being done on a foetus which is 34 weeks gestation. The pancreas and its associated ducts are identified.

      What does the pancreatic duct in the foetus become in the adult?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ligamentum teres

      Explanation:

      The ligamentum teres in the adult is derived from the umbilical vein in the foetus.

      The Three Embryological Layers and their Corresponding Gastrointestinal Structures and Blood Supply

      The gastrointestinal system is a complex network of organs responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients. During embryonic development, the gastrointestinal system is formed from three distinct layers: the foregut, midgut, and hindgut. Each layer gives rise to specific structures and is supplied by a corresponding blood vessel.

      The foregut extends from the mouth to the proximal half of the duodenum and is supplied by the coeliac trunk. The midgut encompasses the distal half of the duodenum to the splenic flexure of the colon and is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. Lastly, the hindgut includes the descending colon to the rectum and is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      Understanding the embryological origin and blood supply of the gastrointestinal system is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By identifying the specific structures and blood vessels involved, healthcare professionals can better target their interventions and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of chronic fatigue, bloating,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of chronic fatigue, bloating, and intermittent diarrhea. She denies any recent changes in her diet, rectal bleeding, or weight loss. Upon physical examination, no abnormalities are detected. Further investigations reveal the following results: Hb 95g/L (Female: 115-160), Platelets 200 * 109/L (150-400), WBC 6.2 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), and raised IgA-tTG serology. What additional test should the GP arrange to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endoscopic intestinal biopsy

      Explanation:

      The preferred method for diagnosing coeliac disease is through an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. This should be performed if there is suspicion of the condition based on serology results. While endomysial antibody testing can be useful, it is more expensive and not as preferred as the biopsy. A stomach biopsy would not be helpful in diagnosing coeliac disease, as the condition affects the cells in the intestine. A skin biopsy would only be necessary if there were skin lesions indicative of dermatitis herpetiformis. Repeating the IgA-tTG serology test is not recommended for diagnosis.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.

      To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.

      In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 21 - A patient with common bile duct obstruction is undergoing an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with common bile duct obstruction is undergoing an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). During the procedure, the Ampulla of Vater, a structure that marks the anatomical transition from the foregut to midgut is encountered.

      What two structures combine to form the Ampulla of Vater in a different patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic duct and common bile duct

      Explanation:

      The correct anatomy of the biliary and pancreatic ducts is as follows: the common hepatic duct and cystic duct merge to form the common bile duct, which then joins with the pancreatic duct to form the Ampulla of Vater. This structure, also known as the hepatopancreatic duct, enters the second part of the duodenum. The flow of pancreatic enzymes and bile into the duodenum is controlled by the Sphincter of Oddi, a muscular valve also known as Glisson’s sphincter.

      Anatomy of the Pancreas

      The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.

      The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 22 - A 48-year-old female patient complains of pain in the right hypochondrium. Upon palpation...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old female patient complains of pain in the right hypochondrium. Upon palpation of the abdomen, she experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant and reports that the pain worsens during inspiration. Based on the history and examination, the probable diagnosis is cholecystitis caused by a gallstone. If the gallstone were to move out of the gallbladder, which of the ducts would it enter first?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystic duct

      Explanation:

      The biliary tree is composed of various ducts, including the cystic duct that transports bile from the gallbladder. The right and left hepatic ducts in the liver merge to form the common hepatic duct, which then combines with the cystic duct to create the common bile duct. The pancreatic duct from the pancreas also connects to the common bile duct, and they both empty into the duodenum through the hepatopancreatic ampulla (of Vater). The accessory duct, which may or may not exist, is a small supplementary duct(s) to the biliary tree.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 23 - A 63-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe, sudden-onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe, sudden-onset abdominal pain that has been ongoing for an hour. She describes the pain as intense and cramping, with a severity rating of 9/10.

      The patient has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and atrial fibrillation.

      After undergoing a contrast CT scan, a thrombus is discovered in the inferior mesenteric artery, and the patient is immediately scheduled for an urgent laparotomy.

      What structures are likely to be affected based on this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distal third of colon and the rectum superior to pectinate line

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery is responsible for supplying blood to the hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum superior to the pectinate line. In this case, the patient’s sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and history of atrial fibrillation suggest acute mesenteric ischemia, with the affected artery being the inferior mesenteric artery. Therefore, if a thrombus were to block this artery, the distal third of the colon and superior rectum would experience ischaemic changes. It is important to note that the ascending colon, caecum, ileum, appendix, greater omentum, and stomach are supplied by different arteries and would not be affected by a thrombus in the inferior mesenteric artery.

      The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut

      The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.

      The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.

      Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a left groin swelling and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a left groin swelling and reports experiencing moderate pain and discomfort. The diagnosis is an inguinal hernia, and he is scheduled for elective surgery to repair the defect. During the procedure, which nerve running through the inguinal canal is at risk of being damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve

      Explanation:

      The inguinal canal is a crucial anatomical structure that houses the spermatic cord in males and the ilioinguinal nerve in both genders. The ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves stem from the L1 nerve root and run through the canal. The ilioinguinal nerve enters the canal via the abdominal muscles and exits through the external inguinal ring. It is primarily a sensory nerve that provides sensation to the upper medial thigh. If the nerve is damaged during hernia repair, patients may experience numbness in this area after surgery.

      Other nerves that pass through the pelvis include the femoral nerve, which descends behind the inguinal canal, the obturator nerve, which travels through the obturator foramen, and the sciatic nerve, which exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and runs posteriorly.

      The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 25 - A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of diffuse abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of diffuse abdominal pain that has been ongoing for several hours. He reports passing bloody stool during a recent bowel movement. Upon examination, you observe an irregular pulse and a tender abdomen. After conducting tests, you diagnose the patient with ischaemic colitis affecting the transverse colon.

      What other organ receives blood supply from the same branch of the aorta at the vertebral level L1?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4th part of the duodenum

      Explanation:

      The splenic flexure of the colon marks the boundary between the midgut and the hindgut.

      When a blood clot travels to the abdominal arteries and blocks the blood supply to a section of the gut, it can lead to ischaemic colitis. This condition is more prevalent in older individuals, and those with atrial fibrillation (as indicated by the patient’s irregular pulse) are at a higher risk. The area most commonly affected is the watershed region of the colon, where blood supply transitions from one artery to another. This region is the junction between the midgut and the hindgut.

      The superior mesenteric artery supplies the midgut, which includes the proximal transverse colon.

      The foregut-derived organs, such as the 1st part of the duodenum, spleen, and liver, are supplied by the coeliac trunk.

      The hindgut includes the descending colon, which is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      The Three Embryological Layers and their Corresponding Gastrointestinal Structures and Blood Supply

      The gastrointestinal system is a complex network of organs responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients. During embryonic development, the gastrointestinal system is formed from three distinct layers: the foregut, midgut, and hindgut. Each layer gives rise to specific structures and is supplied by a corresponding blood vessel.

      The foregut extends from the mouth to the proximal half of the duodenum and is supplied by the coeliac trunk. The midgut encompasses the distal half of the duodenum to the splenic flexure of the colon and is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. Lastly, the hindgut includes the descending colon to the rectum and is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      Understanding the embryological origin and blood supply of the gastrointestinal system is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By identifying the specific structures and blood vessels involved, healthcare professionals can better target their interventions and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 26 - A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue. She has experienced occasional bouts of diarrhea...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue. She has experienced occasional bouts of diarrhea for several years and has recurrent abdominal pain and bloating.

      During the abdominal examination, no abnormalities were found, but a blood test revealed anemia due to folate deficiency. The patient tested positive for immunoglobulin A-tissue transglutaminase (IgA-tTG), and an intestinal biopsy showed villous atrophy.

      Which serotype is most strongly linked to this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HLA-DQ2

      Explanation:

      The incorrect HLA serotypes are HLA-A3, HLA-B27, and HLA-B51. HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis, which can be asymptomatic in early stages and present with non-specific symptoms such as lethargy and arthralgia. HLA-B27 is associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and anterior uveitis. Ankylosing spondylitis presents with lower back pain and stiffness that worsens in the morning and improves with exercise. Reactive arthritis is characterized by arthritis following an infection, along with possible symptoms of urethritis and conjunctivitis. Anterior uveitis is inflammation of the iris and ciliary body and is a differential diagnosis for red eye. HLA-B51 is associated with Beh├žet’s disease, which involves oral and genital ulcers and anterior uveitis.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 27 - A 4-day old neonate with Down's syndrome is experiencing excessive vomiting during their...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-day old neonate with Down's syndrome is experiencing excessive vomiting during their stay in the ward. The mother had an uncomplicated full-term pregnancy. The baby has not yet had their first bowel movement, causing increased concern for the parents. Upon examination, there is slight abdominal distension. Where is the site of pathology within the colon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Muscularis propria externa

      Explanation:

      The myenteric nerve plexus, also known as Auerbach’s plexus, is located within the muscularis externa, which is one of the four layers of the bowel. In neonates with Hirschsprung disease, there is a lack of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus, resulting in a lack of peristalsis and symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, bloating, and delayed passage of meconium. This condition is more common in males and children with Down’s syndrome.

      The four layers of the bowel, from deep to superficial, are the mucosa, submucosa, muscularis propria (externa), and serosa. The muscularis externa contains two layers of smooth muscle, the inner circular layer and the outer longitudinal layer, with the myenteric plexus located between them. The mucosa also contains a thin layer of connective tissue called the lamina propria.

      Layers of the Gastrointestinal Tract and Their Functions

      The gastrointestinal (GI) tract is composed of four layers, each with its own unique function. The innermost layer is the mucosa, which can be further divided into three sublayers: the epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosae. The epithelium is responsible for absorbing nutrients and secreting mucus, while the lamina propria contains blood vessels and immune cells. The muscularis mucosae helps to move food along the GI tract.

      The submucosa is the layer that lies beneath the mucosa and contains Meissner’s plexus, which is responsible for regulating secretion and blood flow. The muscularis externa is the layer that lies beneath the submucosa and contains Auerbach’s plexus, which controls the motility of GI smooth muscle. Finally, the outermost layer of the GI tract is either the serosa or adventitia, depending on whether the organ is intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal. The serosa is responsible for secreting fluid to lubricate the organs, while the adventitia provides support and protection. Understanding the functions of each layer is important for understanding the overall function of the GI tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 28 - A 36-year-old male patient visits the surgical clinic with a suspected direct inguinal...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male patient visits the surgical clinic with a suspected direct inguinal hernia that is likely to pass through Hesselbach's triangle. What structure forms the medial edge of this triangle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle

      Explanation:

      Although of minimal clinical significance, Hesselbach’s triangle is the pathway for direct inguinal hernias, with the rectus muscle serving as its medial boundary.

      Hesselbach’s Triangle and Direct Hernias

      Hesselbach’s triangle is an anatomical region located in the lower abdomen. It is bordered by the epigastric vessels on the superolateral side, the lateral edge of the rectus muscle medially, and the inguinal ligament inferiorly. This triangle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of direct hernias, which pass through this region.

      To better understand the location of direct hernias, it is essential to know the boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle. The epigastric vessels are located on the upper and outer side of the triangle, while the lateral edge of the rectus muscle is on the inner side. The inguinal ligament forms the lower boundary of the triangle.

      In medical exams, it is common to test the knowledge of Hesselbach’s triangle and its boundaries. Understanding this region is crucial for identifying and treating direct hernias, which can cause discomfort and other complications. By knowing the location of Hesselbach’s triangle, medical professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with direct hernias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following anatomical planes separates the prostate from the rectum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anatomical planes separates the prostate from the rectum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Denonvilliers fascia

      Explanation:

      The rectum is separated from the prostate by the Denonvilliers fascia, while the sacrum is separated from the rectum by Waldeyer’s fascia.

      Anatomy of the Prostate Gland

      The prostate gland is a small, walnut-shaped gland located below the bladder and separated from the rectum by Denonvilliers fascia. It receives its blood supply from the internal iliac vessels, specifically the inferior vesical artery. The gland has an internal sphincter at its apex, which can be damaged during surgery and result in retrograde ejaculation.

      The prostate gland has four lobes: the posterior lobe, median lobe, and two lateral lobes. It also has an isthmus and three zones: the peripheral zone, central zone, and transition zone. The peripheral zone, which is the subcapsular portion of the posterior prostate, is where most prostate cancers occur.

      The gland is surrounded by various structures, including the pubic symphysis, prostatic venous plexus, Denonvilliers fascia, rectum, ejaculatory ducts, lateral venous plexus, and levator ani. Its lymphatic drainage is to the internal iliac nodes, and its innervation comes from the inferior hypogastric plexus.

      In summary, the prostate gland is a small but important gland in the male reproductive system. Its anatomy includes lobes, zones, and various surrounding structures, and it plays a crucial role in ejaculation and prostate health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 30 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department due to severe abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department due to severe abdominal pain. She has tenderness throughout her abdomen, but it is especially painful in the right iliac fossa. Her parents are concerned because they noticed blood in her stool earlier today.

      The patient is admitted and receives appropriate treatment. Further investigations reveal the presence of ectopic ileal mucosa.

      What is the probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is the most likely diagnosis for this child’s symptoms. It is a congenital condition that affects about 2% of the population and typically presents with symptoms around the age of 2. Some children with Meckel’s diverticulum may develop diverticulitis, which can be mistaken for appendicitis. The presence of ectopic ileal mucosa is a key factor in diagnosing Meckel’s diverticulum.

      Appendicitis is an unlikely diagnosis as it would not explain the presence of ectopic ileal mucosa. Duodenal atresia is also unlikely as it typically presents in newborns and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Necrotising enterocolitis is another unlikely diagnosis as it primarily affects premature infants and would not explain the ectopic ileal mucosa.

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine that is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. It occurs in 2% of the population, is 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve, and is 2 inches long. It is usually asymptomatic but can present with abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Investigation includes a Meckel’s scan or mesenteric arteriography. Management involves removal if narrow neck or symptomatic, with options between wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically lined by ileal mucosa but ectopic gastric, pancreatic, and jejunal mucosa can also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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