-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
When compared to unipolar diathermy, which of the following is more specific to bipolar diathermy?
Your Answer: May interfere with pacemaker function
Correct Answer: Has a power output of up to 140 joules per second
Explanation:Electrocautery, also known as diathermy, is a technique for coagulation, tissue cutting, and fulguration that uses a high-frequency current to generate heat (cell destruction from dehydration).
The two electrodes in bipolar diathermy are the tips of forceps, and current passes between the tips rather than through the patient. Bipolar diathermy’s power output (40-140 W) is lower than unipolar diathermy’s typical output (400 W). There is no earthing in the bipolar circuit.
A cutting electrode and a indifferent electrode in the form of a metal plate are used in unipolar diathermy. The high-frequency current completes a circuit by passing through the patient from the active electrode to the metal plate. When used correctly, the current density at the indifferent electrode is low, and the patient is unlikely to be burned. Between the patient plate and the earth is placed an isolating capacitor. This has a low impedance to a high frequency current, such as diathermy current, and is used in modern diathermy machines. The capacitor has a high impedance to current at 50 Hz, which protects the patient from electrical shock.
High frequency currents (500 KHz – 1 MHz) are used in both unipolar and bipolar diathermy, which can cause tissue damage and interfere with pacemaker function (less so with bipolar diathermy).
The effect of diathermy is determined by the current density and waveform employed. The current is a pulsed square wave pattern in coagulation mode and a continuous square wave pattern in cutting mode.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
The most abundant intracellular ion is?
Your Answer: Sodium
Correct Answer: Phosphate
Explanation:Phosphate is the principal anion of the intracellular fluid, most of which is bound to either lipids or proteins. They dissociate or associate with different compounds, depending on the enzymatic reaction, thus forming a constantly shifting pool.
Calcium and magnesium are also present intracellularly, however in lesser amounts than phosphate.
Sodium is the most abundant extracellular cation, and Chloride and is the most abundant extracellular anion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
The biochemical assessment of malnutrition can be measured by the amount of plasma proteins. In acute starvation, which of these plasma proteins is the most sensitive indicator?
Your Answer: Albumin
Correct Answer: Retinol binding globulin
Explanation:The half life of Retinol binding protein (RBP) is 10-12 hours and therefore reflects more acute changes in protein metabolism than any of these proteins. Therefore it is not commonly used as a parameter for nutritional assessment.
The half life of Transthyretin (thyroxine binding pre-albumin) is only one to two days and so levels are less sensitive and this protein is not an albumin precursor. 15 mg/dL represents early malnutrition and a need for nutritional support.
Albumin levels have been frequently as a marker of nutrition but this is not a very sensitive marker. It’s half life more than 30 days and significant change takes some time to be noticed. Also, synthesis of albumin is decreased with the onset of the stress response after burns. Unrelated to nutritional status, the synthesis of acute phase proteins increases and that of albumin decreases.
A more accurate indicator of protein stores is transferrin. It’s response to acute changes in protein status is much faster. The half life of serum transferrin is shorter (8-10 days) and there are smaller body stores than albumin. A low serum transferrin level is below 200 mg/dL and below 100 mg/dL is considered severe. Serum transferrin levels can also affect serum transferrin level.
Fibronectin is used a nutritional marker but levels decrease after seven days of starvation. It is a glycoprotein which plays a role in enhancing the phagocytosis of foreign particles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
When an inotrope is given to the body, it has the following effects on the cardiovascular system: The automaticity of the sino-atrial node increases, Lusitropy is accelerated, Dromotropy is increased, Chronotropy is increased, Inotropy increases, There is increased excitability of the conducting system. The most probably mechanism of action of this compound is?
Your Answer: Increase in intracellular sensitivity to calcium
Correct Answer: Increase in intracellular calcium influenced by a conformational change of a Gs protein
Explanation:A beta-1 adrenoreceptor agonist is most likely the ligand that causes increased automaticity, increased chronotropy, increased excitability, and increased inotropy on the sino-atrial node. However, alpha-1 adrenoreceptor effects may cause an increase in systemic vascular resistance. Noradrenaline, adrenaline, dopamine, and ephedrine are examples of drugs with mixed alpha and beta effects.
Adrenaline, noradrenaline, dopamine, dopexamine, dobutamine, ephedrine, and isoprenaline are examples of drugs that have some beta-1 activity. The beta-1 receptor is a G protein-coupled metabotropic receptor. When the beta-1 agonist binds to the cell surface membrane, it causes a conformational change in the Gs unit, which triggers a cAMP-dependent pathway and a calcium influx into the cell.
Catecholamines also help to relax the heart muscle (positive lusitropy). Dromotropy is the ability to increase the atrioventricular (AV) node’s conduction velocity.
Inodilators cause an increase in intracellular calcium as a result of phosphodiesterase III (PDIII) inhibition. Milrinone, enoximone, and amrinone are some examples. Positive inotropy is caused by increased calcium entry into the myocytes. Lusitropy is also increased by phosphodiesterase inhibitors. Increased cAMP inhibits myosin light chain kinase, resulting in reduced phosphorylation of vascular smooth muscle myosin, lowering systemic and pulmonary vascular resistance.
The mechanism of action of alpha-1 adrenoreceptor agonists is an increase in intracellular calcium caused by an increase in inositol triphosphate (IP3). IP3 is a second messenger that causes an increase in systemic vascular resistance by stimulating the influx of Ca2+ into smooth muscle cells. Reflex bradycardia can occur as a result of the subsequent increase in blood pressure. Phenylephrine and metaraminol are examples of pure alpha-1 agonists.
Levosimendin is a novel inotrope that makes myocytes more sensitive to intracellular Ca2+. It causes a positive inotropy without changing heart rate or oxygen consumption significantly.
The Na-K-ATPase membrane pump in the myocardium is inhibited by digoxin. This inhibition promotes sodium-calcium exchange, resulting in an increase in intracellular Ca2+ and increased contraction force. The parasympathetic effects of digoxin on the AV node result in bradycardia. Systemic vascular resistance will not be affected by it.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
The diaphragm is a muscle that is relatively resistant to non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade's effects. When these muscle relaxants are used, which of the following peripheral nerve stimulator twitch patterns is best for monitoring the return of diaphragmatic function?
Your Answer: Double burst stimulation
Correct Answer: Post-tetanic count stimulation
Explanation:Certain skeletal muscles are more resistant to the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents, both non-depolarizing and depolarizing. The diaphragm is the most resistant. The muscles of the larynx and the corrugator supercilii are less resistant. The abdominal, orbicularis oris, and limb peripheral muscles are the most sensitive muscles.
Twitch stimulation patterns:
Supramaximal single stimulus:
The frequency ranges from 1 Hz to 0.1 Hz (one every second to one every 10 seconds)
The response is proportional to the frequency of the event.
It has limited clinical utility because it only tells you whether or not a patient is paralysed (no information on degree of paralysis).Over the course of 0.5 seconds (2 Hz), four supramaximal stimulate were applied:
It is possible to see ‘fade’ and use it as a basis for evaluation.
This stimulation pattern is used to determine the degree of blockade (1-2 twitches is appropriate for abdominal surgery)
If the train of four (TOF) count is 1-2, reversal agents can be used in conjunction with medium-acting neuromuscular blocking agents.Ratio of TOF:
This is the ratio of the 4th twitch amplitude to the 1st twitch amplitude.
The ratio decreases with non-depolarising block and is inversely proportional to the degree of block, allowing objective measurement of residual neuromuscular blockade.
To achieve adequate reversal, the ratio (as measured by accelerography) must be between 0.7 and 0.9.Count of twitches after a tetanic experience(PTC):
50 Hz for 5 seconds, then a 3 second pause, followed by a single 1 Hz twitch stimulus.
When the TOF count is zero, this stimulation pattern is used to assess deep blockade (that is, in neurosurgery, microsurgery or ophthalmic surgery when even small movements of a patient will disturb the surgical field)
It gives an estimate of how long it will take for the response to return to single twitches, allowing assessment of blocks that are too deep for any other technique.
A palpable post-tetanic count (PTC) of 2 indicates no twitch response for about 20-30 minutes, and a PTC of 5 indicates no twitch response for about 10-15 minutes.This is without a doubt the best way to keep track of paralysis in patients who need to avoid diaphragmatic movement. It’s best to use drug infusions and aim for a PTC of 2. After a tetanic stimulus, acetylcholine is mobilised, causing post-tetanic potentiation.
Stimulation in Two Bursts:
750 milliseconds between two short bursts of 50 Hz
This stimulation pattern is used to assess small amounts of residual blockade manually (tactile). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength?
Your Answer: Radio waves
Correct Answer: X rays
Explanation:Electromagnetic waves are categorized according to their frequency or equivalently according to their wavelength. Visible light makes up a small part of the full electromagnetic spectrum.
Electromagnetic waves with shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies include ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma rays. Electromagnetic waves with longer wavelengths and lower frequencies include infrared light, microwaves, and radio and televisions waves.
Different electromagnetic waves according to their wavelength from shorter to longer are X-rays, ultraviolet radiations, visible light, infrared radiation, radio waves. X-ray among electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength and higher frequency with wavelengths ranging from 10*-8 to 10* -12 and corresponding frequencies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Obeying Boyle's law and Charles's law is a characteristic feature of an ideal gas. The gas which is most ideal out of the following options is?
Your Answer: Carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: Helium
Explanation:The ideal gas equation makes the following assumptions:
The gas particles have a small volume in comparison to the volume occupied by the gas.
Between the gas particles, there are no forces of interaction.
Individual gas particle collisions, as well as gas particle collisions with container walls, are elastic, meaning momentum is conserved.
PV = nRT
Where:P = pressure
V = volume
n = moles of gas
T = temperature
R = universal gas constantHelium is a monoatomic gas with a small helium atom. The attractive forces between helium atoms are small because the helium atom is spherical and has no dipole moment. Because helium atoms are spherical, collisions between them approach the ideal state of elasticity.
Most real gases behave qualitatively like ideal gases at standard temperatures and pressures. When intermolecular forces and molecular size become important, the ideal gas model tends to fail at lower temperatures or higher pressures. It also fails to work with the majority of heavy gases.
Helium, argon, neon, and xenon are noble or inert gases that behave the most like an ideal gas. Xenon is a noble gas with a much larger atomic size than helium.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin?
Your Answer: Is synthesised in the posterior pituitary gland
Correct Answer: Reduces the threshold for depolarisation of the uterine smooth muscle
Explanation:Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). It increases the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus.
Oxytocin acts through G protein-coupled receptor and phosphoinositide-calcium second messenger system to contract uterine smooth muscle.
It has 0.5 to 1 % ADH activity introducing possibilities of water intoxication when used in high doses.
The sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin increases as the pregnancy progresses.
It is used for induction of labour in post maturity and uterine inertia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Because this benzodiazepine has a half-life of 2-4 hours, it is preferred for clinical use. This benzodiazepine has which of the following properties that no other benzodiazepine has?
Your Answer: It is the drug of choice for status epilepticus
Correct Answer: It is water soluble at a pH of 3.5 and lipid soluble at a pH of 7.4
Explanation:Midazolam is the benzodiazepine in question. It’s the only benzodiazepine that undergoes tautomeric transformation (dynamic isomerism). The molecule is ionised and water soluble at pH 3.5, but when injected into the body at pH 7.4, it becomes unionised and lipid soluble, allowing it to easily pass through the blood brain barrier.
The half-life of midazolam is only 2-4 hours.
It is a GABAA receptor agonist because it is a benzodiazepine. GABAA receptors are found in abundance throughout the central nervous system, particularly in the cerebral cortex, hippocampus, thalamus, basal ganglia, and limbic system. GABAA receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, with the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid as the endogenous agonist. It is a pentameric protein (2, 2 and one subunit) that spans the cell membrane, and when the agonist interacts with the alpha subunit, a conformational change occurs, allowing chloride ions to enter the cell, resulting in neuronal hyperpolarization.
For status epilepticus, midazolam is not the drug of choice. Lorazepam is the benzodiazepine of choice for status epilepticus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman presents to emergency department. She is experiencing generalised seizures. She is given emergency management of her symptoms before being referred to the neurologist who diagnoses her with new onset of tonic-clonic epilepsy. What is the most appropriate first line of treatment?
Your Answer: Vagal nerve stimulation should be considered early on in the management
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine should be offered as first line of treatment
Explanation:Tonic-clonic (Grand mal) epilepsy is characterised by a general loss of consciousness with violent involuntary muscle contractions.
The NICE guidelines for treatment indicates the use of sodium valproate and lamotrigine, but sodium valproate unsuitable in this case and she is a woman of reproductive age and it is known to have teratogenic effects. Lamotrigine is a more suitable choice, prescribed as 800mg daily.
NICE guidelines also advice an additional prescription of 5mg of folic acid daily for women on anticonvulsant therapy looking to get pregnant. It also warns of the need for extra contraceptive precaution as there is a possibly that the anticonvulsant agent can reduce levels of contraceptive agents.
Stimulation of the vagal nerve stimulation is only necessary in patients who are refractory to medical treatment and not candidates for surgical resection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
What is NOT a feature of Propofol infusion syndrome?
Your Answer: Hepatomegaly
Correct Answer: Hypotriglyceridaemia
Explanation:Propofol infusion syndrome is a rare but extremely dangerous complication of propofol administration
Common organ systems affected by PRIS include the following:
1. cardiovascular
widening of QRS complex, Brugada syndrome-like patterns (particularly type 1), ventricular tachyarrhythmias, cardiogenic shock, and asystole2. hepatic
Liver enzymes elevation, hepatomegaly, and steatosis3. skeletal muscular
myopathy and overt rhabdomyolysis4. renal
Hyperkalaemia, acute kidney injury5. metabolic
High anion gap metabolic acidosis (due to elevation in lactic acid). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man is being operated on for a radical gastrectomy for carcinoma of the stomach. Which structure needs to be divided to gain access to the coeliac axis?
Your Answer: Greater omentum
Correct Answer: Lesser omentum
Explanation:The lesser omentum will need to be divided. This forms one of the nodal stations that will need to be taken during a radical gastrectomy.
The celiac axis is the first branch of the abdominal aorta and supplies the entire foregut (mouth to the major duodenal papilla). It arises at the level of vertebra T12. It has three major branches:
1. Left gastric
2. Common hepatic
3. Splenic arteries. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Which of the following drugs is safe to be used in porphyria?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Correct Answer: Chloral hydrate
Explanation:Porphyria is a group of disorders in which there is excess production and excess excretion of porphyrins and their precursors. They are usually genetic and are caused due to defects in the haem metabolic pathway. However, other factors like infection, pregnancy, mensuration, starvation may precipitate the attack.
Sulphonamides, barbiturates (methohexitone and thiopental), and phenytoin are considered to be precipitants so are not safe to use
Chloral hydrate is thought to be safe to use.
Etomidate lacks proper studies and may be used with caution but it is generally advised not to use this drug especially if other alternatives are available. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
The ED95 of muscle relaxants is the dose required to reduce twitch height by 95% in half of the target population. The dose of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants used for intubation is 2-3 times the ED95. For procedures that need a short duration of muscle relaxation and abrupt recovery, the short-acting drug Mivacurium is given at less than 2 times the ED95. What is the explanation for Mivacurium being an exception to this rule?
Your Answer: Mivacurium has a high potency
Correct Answer: Dose related histamine release occurs which frequently leads to tachycardia and hypotension
Explanation:Mivacurium, when administered at doses greater than 0.2 mg/kg,increases the risk for hypotension, tachycardia, and erythema. This is due to the ability of mivacurium to release histamine with increasing dose. Contrary to this fact, anaphylaxis is rare for mivacurium because of the short duration of histamine release.
The effective dose 50 (ED50) of mivacurium is between 0.08-0.15 mg/kg. It is administered slowly to prevent and decrease the risk of developing adverse effects.
Mivacurium has a high potency thus a longer duration of action, however this is not the answer that we are looking for.
Although drug metabolism takes longer for mivacurium than succinylcholine, it has no effect on the dose required for intubation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains will experience immediately which physiologic response to high altitude and hypoxia?
Your Answer: Increased muscle capillary density
Correct Answer: Increased cardiac output
Explanation:A person remaining at high altitudes for days, weeks, or years becomes more and more acclimatized to the low PO2, so it causes fewer deleterious effects on the body.
After acclimatization, it becomes possible for the person to work harder without hypoxic effects or to ascend to still higher altitudes. The principal means by which acclimatization comes about are (1) a great increase in pulmonary ventilation, (2) increased numbers of red blood cells, (3) diffusing capacity of the lungs, (4) increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues, and (5) increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low PO2.
The cardiac output often increases as much as 30% immediately after a person ascends to high altitude but then decreases back toward normal over a period of weeks as the blood haematocrit increases, so the amount of oxygen transported to the peripheral body tissues remains about normal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Regarding anti diuretic hormone (ADH), one of the following statements is correct:
Your Answer: Decreases the osmolarity of urine
Correct Answer: Increases the total amount of electrolyte free water in the body
Explanation:The major action of ADH is to increase reabsorption of osmotically unencumbered water from the glomerular filtrate and decreases the volume of urine passed. The osmolarity of urine is increased to a maximum of four times that of plasma (approx. 1200 mOsm/kg) by Increasing water reabsorption.
Chronic water loading, Lithium, potassium deficiency, cortisol and calcium excess, all blunt the action of ADH. This leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
ADH’s primary site of action is the distal tubule and collecting duct.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and other anticoagulants?
Your Answer: Active orally
Correct Answer: Competitive thrombin inhibitor blocking both free and bound thrombin
Explanation:Dabigatran template is a prodrug and its active metabolite is a direct thrombin inhibitor. It is a synthetic, reversible, non-peptide thrombin inhibitor. This inhibition of thrombin results in a decrease of fibrin and reduces platelet aggregation.
Drugs like warfarin act by inhibiting the activation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. These factors are synthesized by the liver and activated by gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues with the help of vitamin K. Hydroquinone form of vitamin K is converted to epoxide form in this reaction and regeneration of hydroquinone form by enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR) is required for this activity. Oral anticoagulants prevent this regeneration by inhibiting VKOR, thus vitamin K-dependent factors are not activated. These factors include clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X as well as anti-clotting proteins, protein C and protein S.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male has tonsillitis and is in considerable pain. Which nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the tonsillar fossa?
Your Answer: Facial nerve
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation:A tonsillar sinus or fossa is a space that is bordered by the triangular fold of the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches in the lateral wall of the oral cavity. The palatine tonsils are in these sinuses.
The glossopharyngeal nerve is the main sensory nerve for the tonsillar fossa. The tonsillar branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve supply the palatine tonsils forming a plexus around it. Filaments from this plexus are distributed to the soft palate and fauces where they communicate with the palatine nerves. A lesser contribution is made by the lesser palatine nerve. Because of this otalgia may occur following tonsillectomy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A patient admitted to the hospital is on oxygen via a venturi mask. The air entrainment ratio is 1:9 i.e. 1 litre of 100% oxygen from the source entrains 9 litres of air from the atmosphere). The flow rate of 100% oxygen is 6L/minute. Based on the given data which of the following value approximates the oxygen concentration delivered to the patient?
Your Answer: 40%
Correct Answer: 28%
Explanation:The formula for calculating air: oxygen entrainment ratio is given as :
100% ˆ’ FiO2 = air/oxygen entrainment ratio
Since FiO2 ˆ’ 21% and the entrainment ratio is already known. Substituting the values in the equation: x = FiO2.100 ˆ’ x = 9
x ˆ’ 21
100 ˆ’ x = 9(x ˆ’ 21)
100 ˆ’ x = 9x ˆ’ 189
10x = 289
x = 289/10
x = 28.9%. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements about that parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) are true except:
Your Answer: Facial nerve supplies the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
Correct Answer: The PNS has nicotinic receptors throughout the system
Explanation:With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)
1. It is not under voluntary control
2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.
The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.
There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.
There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.
Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.
The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.
The cranial outflow consists of
1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreasThe sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.
The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
There are:
M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
M5 = brainThe lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A transport ventilator connected to a size CD oxygen cylinder has a setting of air/oxygen entrainment ratio of 1:1 and a minute volume set at 10 litres/minute. Which value best approximates to the FiO2?
Your Answer: 0.6
Explanation:A nominal volume of 2 litres is contained in a CD cylinder. It has a pressure of 230 bar when full and contains litres 460 L of useable oxygen at STP.
For every 1000 mL 100% oxygen there will be an entrainment of 1000 mL or air (20% oxygen) in an air/oxygen mix.
The average concentration is, therefore, 120/2=60% or 0.6.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Very small SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes. One femtolitre is equal to which of the following volumes?
Your Answer: 0.000, 000, 000, 000, 000, 001 L
Correct Answer: 0.000, 000, 000, 000, 001 L
Explanation:Small measurement units are denoted by the following SI mathematical prefixes:
1 deci = 0.1
1 milli = 0.001
1 micro = 0.000001
1 nano = 0.000000001
1 pico = 0.000000000001
1 femto = 0.000000000000001 (used to measure red blood cell volume)
1 atto = 0.000000000000000001. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
Lisa is a 75-year-old female rushed into the emergency department by first-aid responders. The ambulance team give a history of vomiting, homonymous hemianopia, weakness of the left upper and lower limb, and dysphasia. Lisa adds that she has a headache that keeps worsening. Lisa takes Warfarin as she is a known case of atrial fibrillation. Her INR is 4.3 despite the ideal target being 2-3. CT scan of the head suggests anterior cerebral artery haemorrhage. What areas of the brain are affected by an anterior cerebral artery stroke?
Your Answer: Parietal, temporal and occipital lobes
Correct Answer: Frontal and parietal lobes
Explanation:The anterior cerebral artery supplies the midline portion of the frontal lobe and the superior medial parietal lobe of the brain. It also supplies the front four-fifths of the corpus callosum and provides blood to deep structures such as the anterior limb of the internal capsule, part of the caudate nucleus, and the anterior part of the globus pallidus.
The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries.
Clinically, the internal carotid arteries and their branches are often referred to as the anterior circulation of the brain. The anterior cerebral arteries are connected by the anterior communicating artery. Near their termination, the internal carotid arteries are joined to the posterior cerebral arteries by the posterior communicating arteries, completing the cerebral arterial circle around the interpeduncular fossa, the deep depression on the inferior surface of the midbrain between the cerebral peduncles.
The middle cerebral artery supplies part of the frontal, temporal and parietal lobes.
The posterior cerebral artery supplies the occipital lobe.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Which structure has the greatest amount of musculi pectinati?
Your Answer: Left ventricle
Correct Answer: Right atrium
Explanation:The pectinate muscles (musculi pectinati) are parallel muscular ridges that extend anterolaterally on the right atrial walls. The most prominent pectinate muscle, which forms the bridge of the sulcus terminalis internally, is the taenia sagittalis (second crest or septum spurium).
In the left atrium, the pectinate muscles are confined to the inner surface of its atrial appendage. They tend to be fewer and smaller than in the right atrium. This is due to the embryological origin of the auricles, which are the true atria.
Pectinate muscles of the atria are different from the trabeculae carneae, which are found on the inner walls of both ventricles.
The interior of the right atrium has five distinct features:
1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
2. Musculi pectinati – a rough anterior wall of pectinate muscles
3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum, which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Regarding oxygen consumption, which of these organs has the highest consumption at rest?
Your Answer: Skeletal muscle
Correct Answer: Kidney
Explanation:Oxygen delivery is related to blood flow as most of the oxygen binds to haemoglobin in red blood cells, although a small amount is dissolved in the plasma. Blood flow per 100 g of tissue is greatest in the kidneys.
The following is the oxygen consumption rate of different organs in ml/minute/100g
Hepatoportal = 2.2
Kidney = 6.8
Brain = 3.7
Skin = 0.38
Skeletal muscle = 0.18
Heart = 11. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old boy with status epilepticus was brought to ER and has already received two doses of intravenous lorazepam but is still continuing to have seizures. Which of the following drug would be best for his treatment?
Your Answer: Midazolam 0.5 mg/kg buccally
Correct Answer: Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV
Explanation:When the convulsion lasts for five or more than five minutes, or if there are recurrent episodes of convulsions in a 5 minute period without returning to the baseline, it is termed as Status Epilepticus.
The first priority in the patient with seizures is maintaining the airway, breathing, and circulation.Guideline for the management of Status Epilepticus in children by Advanced Life Support Group is as follow:
Step 1 (Five minutes after the start of seizures):
If intravascular access is available start treatment with lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV
If no intravascular access then give buccal midazolam 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam 0.5 mg/kg.Step 2 (Ten minutes after the start of seizure):
If the convulsions continue then a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. Senior should be called on-site and phenytoin should be prepared.
No more than two doses or benzodiazepines should be given (including any doses given before arrival at the hospital)
If still no IV access then obtain intraosseous access (IO).Step 3 (Ten minutes after step 2)
Senior help along with anaesthetic/ICU help should be sought
Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV over 20 minutes
If the seizure stops before the full dose of phenytoin is given then the infusion should be completed as this provides up to 24 hours of anticonvulsant effect
In children already receiving phenytoin as treatment for epilepsy then an alternative is phenobarbitone 20 mg/kg IV over five minutes
Once the phenytoin is started, senior staff may wish to give rectal paraldehyde 0.4 mg/kg although this is no longer included in the routine algorithm recommended by APLS.Step 4 (20 minutes after step 3)
If 20 minutes after starting phenytoin the child remains in status epilepticus then rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia with thiopentone and a short acting paralysing agent is needed and the child transferred to paediatric intensive care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 57-year old lady is admitted to the Emergency Department with signs of a subarachnoid haemorrhage. On admission, her GCS was 7. She has been intubated, sedated and is being ventilated and is waiting for a CT scan. Her Blood pressure is 140/70mmHg. The arterial blood gas analysis shows the following: pH 7.2 (7.35 - 7.45), PaO2 70 mmHg (80-100), PaCO2 78 mmHg (35-45), BE -3 mEq/L (-3 +/-3), Standard bic 27 mmol/L (21-27), SaO2 94%. The most likely cause of an increase in the patient's global cerebral blood flow (CBF) is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypercapnia
Explanation:PaCO2 is one of the most important factors that regulate cerebral vascular tone. CO2 induces cerebral vasodilatation and as a result, it increases CBF. Between 20 mmHg (2.7 kPa) and 80 mmHg (10.7 kPa), there is a linear increase of PaCO2.
Sometimes, there are areas where auto regulation has failed locally but not globally. Similarly, local vs. systemic acidosis will have similar effects. When the PaO2 falls below 50 mmHg (6.5 kPa), the CBF progressively increases.
An increase in the cerebral metabolic rate for oxygen (CMRO2) and therefore CBF can be caused by hyperthermia.
A late feature of cerebral injury is hyperthermia secondary to hypothalamic injury. Therefore this is not the most likely cause of an increased CBF in this scenario. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
One of the causes of increased pulse pressure is when the aorta becomes less compliant because of age-related changes. Another cause of increased pulse pressure is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased stroke volume
Explanation:Impaired ventricular relaxation reduces diastolic filling and therefore preload.
Decreased blood volume decreases preload due to reduced venous return.
Heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction and therefore stroke volume.
Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure (is increased by stroke volume) = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume
Aortic stenosis would decrease stroke volume as end systolic volume would increase.
This is because of an increase in afterload, an increase in resistance that the heart must pump against due to a hard stenotic valve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Have the same molecular formula but different structural formulae
Explanation:Structural isomers have a similar molecular formula, but they have a different structural formula as their atoms are arranged in a different manner. Such small changes lead to the differential pharmacological activity. Enflurane and isoflurane are two prime examples of structural isomers.
Stereoisomers are those substances that have a similar molecular and structural formula, but the arrangement spatially of atoms are different and have optical activity.
Enantiomers are a pair of stereoisomers, which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. They also have chiral centres of molecular symmetry. Ketamine is considered as an example of racemic mixture (contain 50% R and 50% S enantiomers)
Geometric isomers contain a carbon-carbon double bond (i.e. C=C) or a rigid carbon-carbon single bond in a heterocyclic ring. Cis-atracurium is one example.
Dynamic isomers or Tautomers are a pait of unstable structural isomers, which are present in equilibrium. One isomer can easily change after the change in pH. Midazolam and thiopentone are their examples.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
The outer muscular layer of the oesophagus is covered by?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loose connective tissue
Explanation:The oesophagus has four layers namely; 1. the mucosal layer, 2. the submucosal layer, 3. the muscular layer and 4. the layer of loose connective tissue which binds to the outer mucosal layer. The oesophagus lacks the serosal layer and therefore holds sutures poorly.
The mucosal layer consists of muscularis mucosa and the lamina propria and is made up of non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium. The mucosal layer is the innermost layer of the oesophagus.
The submucosal layer being the strongest layer of all has mucous glands which are called as the tuboalveolar mucous glands.
The outer muscular layer has two types of muscle layers of which one is the circular layer and the other the longitudinal layer. The Auerbach’s and Meissner’s nerve plexuses lie in between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers and submucosally. The muscle fibres present in the upper 1/3rd part of the oesophagus are skeletal muscle fibres, the middle 1/3rd layer has both smooth and skeletal muscle fibres, but the lower 1/3rd only has smooth muscle fibres.
The loose connective tissue layer or the adventitious layer has dense fibrous tissue.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)