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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a friend. The man...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a friend. The man appears drowsy and has a strong smell of alcohol. According to his friend, he complained of sudden, severe retrosternal pain that worsened when swallowing. The patient has a history of alcoholic liver disease. His vital signs include a heart rate of 130/min, respiratory rate of 24/min, temperature of 37.7ºC, oxygen saturation of 98%, and blood pressure of 100/74 mmHg. Upon examination, there are crackles heard on auscultation of his chest wall, and dried vomit is present around his mouth. An ECG shows sinus rhythm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear

      Correct Answer: Boerhaave's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Boerhaave’s syndrome is a condition where the oesophagus ruptures spontaneously due to repeated episodes of vomiting. This man’s symptoms, including retrosternal chest pain and subcutaneous emphysema, are consistent with the classic triad of Boerhaave’s syndrome. Alcoholics and individuals with bulimia are at higher risk of developing this condition due to forceful vomiting against a closed glottis, which can cause a build-up of pressure in the oesophagus and lead to a transmural rupture. Urgent surgery is required for individuals with this condition, who tend to be systemically unwell.

      Bleeding oesophageal varices, duodenal ulcer haemorrhage, and Mallory-Weiss syndrome are not the correct diagnoses for this man’s symptoms. Bleeding oesophageal varices typically present with life-threatening haematemesis, while duodenal ulcer haemorrhage causes hypotension, melena, and haematemesis. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is a small tear at the gastroesophageal junction that usually presents with haematemesis on a background of vomiting. None of these conditions would explain the subcutaneous emphysema or retrosternal chest pain seen in this case.

      Boerhaave’s Syndrome: A Dangerous Rupture of the Oesophagus

      Boerhaave’s syndrome is a serious condition that occurs when the oesophagus ruptures due to repeated episodes of vomiting. This rupture is typically located on the left side of the oesophagus and can cause sudden and severe chest pain. Patients may also experience subcutaneous emphysema, which is the presence of air under the skin of the chest wall.

      To diagnose Boerhaave’s syndrome, a CT contrast swallow is typically performed. Treatment involves thoracotomy and lavage, with primary repair being feasible if surgery is performed within 12 hours of onset. If surgery is delayed beyond 12 hours, a T tube may be inserted to create a controlled fistula between the oesophagus and skin. However, delays beyond 24 hours are associated with a very high mortality rate.

      Complications of Boerhaave’s syndrome can include severe sepsis, which occurs as a result of mediastinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 19-year-old female has suffered a minor cut on her right hand while...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female has suffered a minor cut on her right hand while gardening. She has received all necessary immunisations. What is the most appropriate course of action for tetanus prevention?

      Your Answer: No action is required

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Toxoid Immunisation Schedule

      Active immunisation with tetanus toxoid is a routine vaccination given to infants at 2, 3, and 4 months of age as part of the DPT vaccine. A fourth dose is administered after three years, and a fifth dose is given before leaving school. Once a patient has received all five injections at the appropriate intervals, further toxoid is generally not required due to the risk of side effects and decreased immunity caused by overstimulation. Therefore, this man is considered fully immunised against tetanus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      15.2
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain, nausea,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting that started 4 hours ago after a celebratory meal for her husband's 55th birthday. She has experienced similar discomfort after eating for a few years, but never with this level of intensity. On physical examination, there is tenderness and guarding in the right hypochondrium with a positive Murphy's sign. What is the most suitable initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Ultrasound is the preferred initial investigation for suspected biliary disease due to its non-invasive nature and lack of radiation exposure. It can detect gallstones, assess gallbladder wall thickness, and identify dilation of the common bile duct. However, it may not be effective in obese patients. A positive Murphy’s sign, where pain is felt when the inflamed gallbladder is pushed against the examiner’s hand, supports a diagnosis of cholecystitis. CT scans are expensive and expose patients to radiation, so they should only be used when necessary. MRCP is a costly and resource-heavy investigation that should only be used if initial tests fail to diagnose gallstone disease. ERCP is an invasive procedure used for investigative and treatment purposes, but it carries serious potential complications. Plain abdominal X-rays are rarely helpful in diagnosing biliary disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      21.4
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  • Question 4 - What is the life expectancy for a man in the UK? ...

    Correct

    • What is the life expectancy for a man in the UK?

      Your Answer: 80–84 years

      Explanation:

      The Remarkable Increase in Life Expectancy for Women in the UK

      At the beginning of the twentieth century, the life expectancy for a woman in the UK was only 59 years old. However, due to a combination of factors such as reduced infant mortality, improved public health, modern medical advances, and the introduction of the welfare state, women in the UK can now expect to live an average of 82.5 years. This remarkable increase in life expectancy is a testament to the progress made in healthcare and social welfare in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 9-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the clinic. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the clinic. She has been experiencing gradual difficulty in eating. She complains that when she swallows, the food gets stuck behind her chest and it takes a while for it to pass. She frequently regurgitates undigested food. A follow-up barium study reveals a bird's beak appearance. Which mediator's loss may be contributing to her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Motilin

      Correct Answer: Nitric oxide

      Explanation:

      Understanding Achalasia: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Achalasia is a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax, causing difficulty in swallowing and regurgitation of undigested food. This is commonly due to the denervation of inhibitory neurons in the distal esophagus, leading to a progressive worsening of symptoms over time. Diagnosis is made through a barium study and manometry, which reveal a bird’s beak appearance of the lower esophagus and an abnormally high sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing. Nitric oxide, which increases smooth muscle relaxation and reduces sphincter tone, is reduced in achalasia. Treatment options include surgical intervention, botulinum toxin injection, and pharmacotherapy with drugs such as calcium channel blockers, long-acting nitrates, and sildenafil.

      Other gastrointestinal hormones such as cholecystokinin, motilin, somatostatin, and gastrin do not play a role in achalasia. Cholecystokinin stimulates pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contractions, while motilin is responsible for migrating motor complexes. Somatostatin decreases gastric acid and pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contractions. Gastrin promotes hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach and can result in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome when produced in excess by a gastrinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      23.4
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  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old girl has been admitted to the acute medical unit for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl has been admitted to the acute medical unit for a mild exacerbation of her asthma. She has recovered well, and her peak flow measurements have almost returned to normal. After being seen on the ward round, she asks an FY1 for contraceptive advice. She mentions that she is sexually active with one partner, her 19-year old boyfriend.
      What is the first most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Explain that there are several contraceptive options and arrange an appointment with her GP to discuss these with her

      Correct Answer: Determine if the Fraser guideline criteria are met and ask questions about her relationship to ascertain if there are any safeguarding concerns

      Explanation:

      Providing Contraceptive Advice to Young Girls: Following Fraser Guidelines and Safeguarding Protocols

      Explanation:

      When a young girl under the age of 16 requests contraception, doctors must follow the Fraser guidelines to ensure that they meet the criteria for providing contraceptive advice and treatment without informing their parents. Additionally, if the partner is over 16 years old, doctors must also exclude any safeguarding concerns before providing contraceptive advice.

      It is crucial to sensitively ask the patient about their relationship to ascertain if there are any safeguarding issues. If both Gillick competence and the Fraser guidelines are met, then providing contraceptive advice is appropriate. However, it is prudent to involve senior members of the medical team.

      If the patient is below the age of 13, the doctor must escalate the case to their child protection lead, as the partner would be committing a criminal offence.

      It is inappropriate to decline providing contraceptive advice by telling the patient that it is illegal to have sex at their age. This could potentially antagonize the patient and make any assessment relating to the Fraser guidelines and safeguarding issues much more difficult.

      Informing the parents or escalating the case to the child protection lead without first assessing the Fraser guidelines and safeguarding concerns would be a breach of doctor-patient confidentiality and inappropriate.

      Instead, doctors should explain the various contraceptive options available and arrange an appointment with the patient’s GP to discuss these options further. By following the Fraser guidelines and safeguarding protocols, doctors can provide appropriate contraceptive advice to young girls while ensuring their safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      17
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of feeling down and fatigued....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of feeling down and fatigued. She struggles to fall asleep at night and has difficulty getting up in the morning. Despite her love for exercise, she lacks motivation and finds it hard to engage in physical activity.

      What is the duration of her symptoms that would warrant a diagnosis of a depressive episode?

      Your Answer: One month

      Correct Answer: Two weeks

      Explanation:

      DSM-IV Criteria for Diagnosing Depression

      Depression is a mental health condition that can significantly impact a person’s daily life. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has adopted the DSM-IV criteria for diagnosing depression. The key symptoms include persistent sadness or low mood and marked loss of interests or pleasure. These symptoms must be present for at least two weeks, most days, most of the time.

      In addition to the core symptoms, other associated symptoms may include disturbed sleep, changes in appetite and weight, fatigue, agitation or slowing of movements, poor concentration or indecisiveness, feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt, and suicidal thoughts or acts.

      It is important to note that these symptoms can vary in duration. Some individuals may experience symptoms for only two days, while others may experience them for up to two months. If you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of depression, it is important to seek professional help.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      16.5
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  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old man visits his GP complaining of voiding symptoms but no storage...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man visits his GP complaining of voiding symptoms but no storage symptoms. After being diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia, conservative management proves ineffective. The recommended first-line medication also fails to alleviate his symptoms. Further examination reveals an estimated prostate size of over 30g and a prostate-specific antigen level of 2.2 ng/ml. What medication is the GP likely to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Finasteride

      Explanation:

      If a patient with BPH has a significantly enlarged prostate, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors should be considered as a second-line treatment option. Finasteride is an example of a 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor and is used when alpha-1-antagonists fail to manage symptoms. Desmopressin is a later stage drug used for BPH with nocturnal polyuria after other treatments have failed. Tamsulosin is an alpha-1-antagonist and is the first-line option for BPH. Terazosin is another alpha-blocker and could also be used as a first-line option.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with confusion and involuntary leg...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with confusion and involuntary leg muscle jerks. He is too agitated to provide his medical history. Upon examination, his heart rate is 150/min, respiratory rate 20/min, blood pressure 147/92 mmHg, and temperature 37.9 ºC. He appears sweaty, clammy, and has a resting tremor. Cardiovascular examination is normal, and a neurological examination reveals hyperreflexia. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.

      Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      54.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of muscle weakness and constipation...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of muscle weakness and constipation for the past three weeks. He also reports feeling increasingly tired and thirsty during this time. The patient has a history of a previous STEMI and stage 1 chronic kidney disease. Upon examination, the GP orders some blood tests, which reveal the following results:

      - Calcium: 3.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      - Phosphate: 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      - ALP: 174 u/L (30 - 100)
      - Na+: 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+: 3.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 70 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for the patient in the vignette is primary hyperparathyroidism. This is indicated by the patient’s symptomatic hypercalcaemia, as well as their blood test results showing a raised calcium, reduced phosphate level, and a raised ALP. Multiple myeloma, Paget’s disease of bone, and sarcoidosis are all incorrect diagnoses as they do not match the patient’s symptoms and blood test results.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.

      Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are asked by a nurse to review a 47-year-old woman who is...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked by a nurse to review a 47-year-old woman who is day one postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. She is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.3 °C. When you see her, she complains of shortness of breath and a non-productive cough.
      What is the most likely postoperative complication seen in this patient?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolus (PE)

      Correct Answer: Atelectasis

      Explanation:

      Post-operative Complications: Atelectasis

      One of the most common post-operative complications is atelectasis, which typically presents on days 1-2 after surgery. This condition is often caused by positive pressure ventilation used during general anesthesia and can lead to pyrexia and shortness of breath. Treatment typically involves the use of salbutamol and saline nebulizers, as well as chest physiotherapy.

      Other potential post-operative complications include wound infection, pulmonary embolus (PE), anastomotic leak, and hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP). However, these conditions typically present at different times following surgery and may have different symptoms. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential complications and to monitor patients closely for any signs of post-operative distress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has a beaked nose and telangiectasia on the face. There is evidence of tight, waxy skin of the fingers, with calcification on one finger. She has had Raynaud’s disease for many years.
      Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be positive?

      Your Answer: Anti-centromere antibody

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Autoantibodies in Connective Tissue Diseases

      Connective tissue diseases are a group of autoimmune disorders that affect various parts of the body. Differentiating between these diseases can be challenging, but autoantibodies can provide valuable clues. Here are some common autoantibodies and the connective tissue diseases they are associated with:

      1. Anti-centromere antibody: This antibody is most likely to be present in limited systemic sclerosis (CREST).

      2. Anti-Scl-70: This antibody is found in diffuse systemic sclerosis.

      3. Anti-RNP antibody: This antibody is found in mixed connective tissue disease.

      4. Anti-Ro antibody: This antibody is classically positive in Sjögren’s syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus.

      5. Anti-Jo-1 antibody: This antibody is commonly raised in polymyositis.

      By identifying the specific autoantibodies present in a patient, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage connective tissue diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fresh blood per rectum....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fresh blood per rectum. He had previously received treatment for haemorrhoids, including dietary advice, rectal analgesics, and haemorrhoid banding, but his symptoms have persisted. What is the next step in managing this man before conducting an examination under anaesthesia?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy

      Correct Answer: Flexible sigmoidoscopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Procedures for Haemorrhoidal Disease

      Haemorrhoidal disease is a common condition that can be managed with dietary changes, analgesia, and anti-inflammatory agents. However, if symptoms persist, outpatient interventions such as banding or injection may be necessary. In some cases, further investigation is required to rule out colorectal cancer.

      Flexible sigmoidoscopy is a useful tool for young patients with low risk of cancer, while older patients or those with a family history of colorectal cancer may require a full colonoscopy. If sigmoidoscopy is normal, an examination under anaesthesia can be performed to diagnose and treat any haemorrhoids, fissures, fistulas, or abscesses.

      A barium follow-through is not necessary in the absence of suspicion of malignancy. Similarly, a CT scan or MRI of the abdomen and pelvis is not the best choice for direct visualisation of the bowel mucosa.

      In summary, a range of diagnostic procedures are available for haemorrhoidal disease, depending on the patient’s age, risk factors, and symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      19
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  • Question 14 - As a GP, you come across a 42-year-old man who had an incidental...

    Correct

    • As a GP, you come across a 42-year-old man who had an incidental discovery of hyperlipidaemia during a recent insurance medical examination at work. His test results showed cholesterol levels of 22 mmol/L (ideal <5 mmol/L) with triglycerides of 18 mmol/L (<1.5 mmol/L). He is generally healthy but has low albumin and peripheral oedema. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the results are as follows:

      Haemoglobin: Negative
      Urobilinogen: Negative
      Bilirubin: Negative
      Protein: +++
      Glucose: Negative
      Nitrites: Negative
      Leucocytes: Negative
      Ketones: +

      What could be the possible explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine, low levels of serum albumin, and peripheral edema. Patients with this condition often have severe hyperlipidemia, with total cholesterol levels exceeding 10 mmol/L. Additionally, the loss of natural anticoagulants in the urine can lead to altered clotting, which requires treatment with antiplatelet agents and/or low molecular weight heparin.

      It is important to note that in the early stages of nephrotic syndrome, the levels of urea and creatinine may appear normal despite underlying renal pathology. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients with marked hyperlipidemia and proteinuria on urinalysis for signs of nephrotic syndrome. If diagnosed, patients should be referred to a local renal team for management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      20.8
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  • Question 15 - A 78-year-old man with known dementia is admitted to hospital for treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man with known dementia is admitted to hospital for treatment of a community acquired pneumonia. Unfortunately, he was not accompanied by a family member and the history provided by the patient seems confused. Upon arrival of the daughter, she confirms that her father has been confusing real events with those from his imagination. Through this process he appears to be able to maintain a superficial conversation despite significant cognitive impairment.
      Which of the following describes this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Delusions

      Correct Answer: Confabulation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Confabulation, Delusions, and Other Psychiatric Phenomena

      Confabulation, delusions, and other psychiatric phenomena can be confusing and difficult to differentiate. Confabulation is a phenomenon where patients fabricate imaginary experiences due to memory loss, often seen in patients with cognitive impairment. Delusions, on the other hand, are beliefs held with strong conviction despite evidence to the contrary, commonly seen in conditions such as schizophrenia. Flight of ideas, pressure of speech, and hallucinations are other psychiatric phenomena that can be seen in different conditions. Understanding the differences between these phenomena is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      17.9
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing a burning sensation on passing urine with...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing a burning sensation on passing urine with frequency for the past two days, and she also has some lower abdominal pain. She has no unusual vaginal discharge and denies any recent sexual contact. This is the first time she has experienced anything like this.
      She is a non-smoker and a well-controlled asthmatic on regular inhalers (daily beclomethasone and salbutamol as needed) but has no other medical problems or medication apart from the oral combined contraceptive pill.
      On examination her heart rate is 85 beats per minute, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, and temperature 36.8°C.
      Abdominal examination – soft abdomen, no guarding, mildly tender hypogastric region, active bowel sounds.
      Urinalysis:
      Leukocytes –
      Nitrites ++
      Blood +
      Bilirubin –
      Protein +
      Glucose –
      Ketones –

      What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection (UTI)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Symptoms of Urethritis

      Symptoms of urethritis, such as dysuria, urgency, frequency, suprapubic tenderness, strangury, flank or back pain, haematuria, and a change in the smell of urine, can be caused by various conditions. A diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI) is likely if three or more symptoms are present, especially if dysuria and frequency are both present. A midstream urine specimen should be sent for testing, and appropriate antibiotic treatment should be based on regional guidelines.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is not the cause of these symptoms, as it typically presents with unexplained pelvic pain, deep dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and purulent vaginal or cervical discharge. Bladder cancer is also unlikely without a history or risk factors, and the presenting feature is typically painless gross haematuria. Gonococcal infection, a sexually transmitted infection, may cause similar symptoms but is less likely without a history of sexual contact and in the absence of leukocytes on dipstick testing. It may also cause increased or altered vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain, and dysuria without frequency.

      Nephrotic syndrome, which causes heavy proteinuria and peripheral oedema affecting the ankles and legs, is not a likely cause of these symptoms. However, a UTI may be asymptomatic and diagnosed solely by routine dip testing, which may show positive results for nitrites and/or leukocytes indicating bacterial infection. Dipstick testing should not be used to diagnose UTIs in patients with indwelling urinary catheters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 15-year-old presents with a tender, pea-sized lump in the upper pole of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old presents with a tender, pea-sized lump in the upper pole of his left testis. He says it has developed gradually over the last 24 hours. His mum states that his grandfather died of testicular cancer at just 45 years of age. Other than pain from the lump, he says he feels generally well in himself. On examination, the lump does not transilluminate and feels regular. There is no associated oedema or erythema.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epididymal cyst

      Correct Answer: Torsion of the testicular appendage

      Explanation:

      Common Testicular Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Testicular conditions can cause discomfort and pain in men. Here are some common conditions and their characteristics:

      1. Torsion of the Testicular Appendage: This condition develops over 24 hours and results in a tender, pea-sized nodule in the upper pole of the testis. Oedema and associated symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting, are rare. An ultrasound scan (USS) is done to ensure that the man is not suffering from torsion. Surgical intervention is only necessary if there is a lot of pain.

      2. Testicular Torsion: This condition is characterised by sudden-onset, severe pain. On examination, the cremasteric reflex will be absent, and there may be associated scrotal oedema. Patients often suffer from nausea and vomiting. It requires surgical exploration within 6 hours.

      3. Varicocele: Although a varicocele is most common in teenagers and young men, it rarely causes pain. Characteristically, it feels like a ‘bag of worms’ and may cause mild discomfort.

      4. Testicular Teratoma: This condition typically presents as a firm, tethered irregular mass, which increases in size gradually, rather than appearing over 24 hours. It is the more common testicular malignancy in the 20- to 30-year-old age group.

      5. Epididymal Cyst: An epididymal cyst is more common in older men, typically in the 40- to 50-year old age group. The cyst transilluminates and is palpable separately from the testis.

      Knowing the characteristics of these common testicular conditions can help men identify and seek treatment for any discomfort or pain they may experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      12
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  • Question 18 - A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair loss. He has a medical history of high blood pressure and asthma and takes salbutamol, amlodipine, and simvastatin. He appears to be in good health, and his neurological exam is unremarkable. The results of his auto-antibody screen are negative, but his creatine kinase (CK) level is 1,000 U/l, which is higher than the normal range of 22-198 U/l. What is the most likely cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Correct Answer: Statin therapy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Differential Diagnosis of Elevated CK Levels

      Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels can indicate a variety of underlying conditions. When considering an elevated CK, it is important to take a detailed medication history as statin therapy, which is a common medication, can cause CK levels to rise in up to 5% of patients. Other common causes of mildly elevated CK include hypothyroidism, steroid use, and alcohol excess.

      Polymyositis is a potential differential diagnosis for a patient with elevated CK and fatigue, but it typically presents with objective proximal muscle weakness. The CK levels are often considerably higher than in the scenario described. Dermatomyositis, which features dermatological features alongside myositis, may present with papules on the hands, periorbital edema, flagellate erythema, or nailfold hemorrhages, none of which are present in this history.

      Extensive exercise can cause elevated CK levels, but it does not usually raise levels to the extent seen in this scenario. Rhabdomyolysis, which is a common cause of elevated CK, often occurs in elderly patients who have experienced a fall and long lie. However, there is no such history in this case, and CK levels in these patients are usually significantly higher.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of elevated CK levels requires a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, medication use, and presenting symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department after injuring his knee while...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department after injuring his knee while playing basketball. He reports hearing a loud 'pop' and experiencing severe pain in his right knee, causing him to fall to the ground. He is unable to bear weight on the affected knee and feels like it may give out. Upon examination, the knee is visibly swollen. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      The sudden popping sound that occurred during athletic activity followed by knee pain, swelling, and instability is indicative of an ACL injury. This is the most likely answer based on the given information. A ruptured patella tendon would result in a high riding patella, while a ruptured medial meniscus would cause catching or locking of the knee. A ruptured posterior cruciate ligament is less common and would require further testing to differentiate from an ACL injury. However, based on the scenario described, an ACL injury is the most probable cause.

      The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is a knee ligament that is frequently injured, with non-contact injuries being the most common cause. However, a lateral blow to the knee or skiing can also cause ACL injuries. Symptoms of an ACL injury include a sudden popping sound, knee swelling, and a feeling of instability or that the knee may give way. To diagnose an ACL injury, doctors may perform an anterior draw test or a Lachman’s test. During the anterior draw test, the patient lies on their back with their knee at a 90-degree angle, and the examiner pulls the tibia forward to assess the amount of anterior motion in comparison to the femur. An intact ACL should prevent forward translational movement. Lachman’s test is a variant of the anterior draw test, but the knee is at a 20-30 degree angle, and it is considered more reliable than the anterior draw test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      29.4
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  • Question 20 - A 61-year-old man undergoes a laparotomy for bowel obstruction. On postoperative day 2,...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man undergoes a laparotomy for bowel obstruction. On postoperative day 2, while walking in the hallway he experiences a sudden sharp pain and tearing sensation in his lower abdomen. Physical examination of the abdomen reveals separated wound margins with a tiny gaping area and splitting of the sutures in the lower half of the incision. His vital measurements indicate a blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, and a heart rate of 96 beats per minute.

      What is the best initial step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Surgical management in theatre

      Correct Answer: Cover with sterile saline-soaked gauze + IV antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The initial management of abdominal wound dehiscence involves covering the wound with saline impregnated gauze and administering IV broad-spectrum antibiotics. Bedside suturing should be avoided to prevent further infections. Blood grouping and cross-match followed by blood transfusion is not necessary at this stage as the patient is not actively bleeding and vital measurements are stable. Manual reduction with sterile gloves is not recommended as it can cause damage to the gut loops. If necessary, arrangements for a return to the operation theatre should be made.

      Abdominal wound dehiscence is a serious issue that surgeons who perform abdominal surgery frequently encounter. It occurs when all layers of an abdominal mass closure fail, resulting in the protrusion of the viscera externally. This condition is associated with a 30% mortality rate and can be classified as either superficial or complete, depending on the extent of the wound failure.

      Several factors increase the risk of abdominal wound dehiscence, including malnutrition, vitamin deficiencies, jaundice, steroid use, major wound contamination (such as faecal peritonitis), and poor surgical technique. To prevent this condition, the preferred method is the mass closure technique, also known as the Jenkins Rule.

      When sudden full dehiscence occurs, the wound should be covered with saline impregnated gauze, and the patient should receive IV broad-spectrum antibiotics, analgesia, and IV fluids. Arrangements should also be made for a return to the operating theatre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      17.9
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  • Question 21 - A 54-year-old truck driver visits his cardiologist for a follow-up appointment before returning...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old truck driver visits his cardiologist for a follow-up appointment before returning to work. He has been regularly monitored for atrial fibrillation, which was diagnosed four months ago, and mild heart failure with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 45% based on his recent echocardiogram. The patient is eager to resume his job as a night driver for a local haulage company. During the consultation, he inquires about the potential side effects of his current medications that could affect his job performance. Which medication is most likely to have adverse effects that could impact his ability to carry out his job?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      The use of amiodarone in patients who drive for a living can cause corneal microdeposits, leading to visual disturbances and glare while driving at night. Regular eye examinations are recommended, and an alternative should be sought wherever possible for heavy goods vehicle drivers. Warfarin, simvastatin, bumetanide, and lisinopril are other drugs used in the treatment of various cardiovascular conditions, with varying side effects that may affect driving ability. Regular monitoring and caution are necessary when using these drugs in occupational drivers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of chest pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of chest pain. He admits to snorting 'a large amount' of cocaine in the past few hours. What is the most likely feature that his cocaine use will cause?

      Your Answer: Decreased deep tendon reflexes

      Correct Answer: Hyperthermia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cocaine Toxicity

      Cocaine is a popular recreational stimulant derived from the coca plant. However, its widespread use has resulted in an increase in cocaine toxicity cases. The drug works by blocking the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin, leading to a variety of adverse effects.

      Cardiovascular effects of cocaine include coronary artery spasm, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, QRS widening, QT prolongation, and aortic dissection. Neurological effects may include seizures, mydriasis, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. Psychiatric effects such as agitation, psychosis, and hallucinations may also occur. Other complications include ischaemic colitis, hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and rhabdomyolysis.

      Managing cocaine toxicity involves using benzodiazepines as a first-line treatment for most cocaine-related problems. For chest pain, benzodiazepines and glyceryl trinitrate may be used, and primary percutaneous coronary intervention may be necessary if myocardial infarction develops. Hypertension can be treated with benzodiazepines and sodium nitroprusside. The use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is controversial, with some experts warning against it due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm.

      In summary, cocaine toxicity can lead to a range of adverse effects, and managing it requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.5
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following is least commonly associated with constipation in toddlers? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is least commonly associated with constipation in toddlers?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.

      If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.

      In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      12.2
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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old male returns from a backpacking trip in Eastern Europe with symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male returns from a backpacking trip in Eastern Europe with symptoms of diarrhea. He has been experiencing profuse watery diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain for the past week. He has been going to the toilet approximately 10 times a day and occasionally feels nauseated, but has not vomited. He has lost around 5 kg in weight due to this illness. On examination, he has a temperature of 37.7°C and appears slightly dehydrated. There is some slight tenderness on abdominal examination, but no specific abnormalities are detected. PR examination reveals watery, brown feces. What investigation would be the most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stool microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Giardiasis in Traveller’s Diarrhoea

      Traveller’s diarrhoea is a common condition that can occur when travelling to different parts of the world. In this case, the patient is likely suffering from giardiasis, which is caused by a parasite that can be found in contaminated water or food. The best way to diagnose giardiasis is through microscopic examination of the faeces, where cysts may be seen. However, in some cases, chronic disease may occur, and cysts may not be found in the faeces. In such cases, a duodenal aspirate or biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis.

      The treatment for giardiasis is metronidazole, which is an antibiotic that is effective against the parasite.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vaginal bleeding. She is...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vaginal bleeding. She is currently 6 weeks pregnant and denies experiencing any abdominal pain, dizziness, or shoulder tip pain. She reports passing less than a teaspoon of blood without any clots. The patient has no history of ectopic pregnancy. During examination, her heart rate is 85 beats per minute, blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Monitor expectantly and advise to repeat pregnancy test in 7 days. If negative, this confirms miscarriage. If positive, or continued or worsening symptoms, refer to the early pregnancy assessment unit

      Explanation:

      Conduct a blood test to measure the levels of beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the serum, and then repeat the test after 120 hours.

      Bleeding in the First Trimester: Understanding the Causes and Management

      Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for many women. It can be caused by various factors, including miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. However, the most important cause to rule out is ectopic pregnancy, as it can be life-threatening if left untreated.

      To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal tenderness, pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman has bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service.

      A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat. If the pregnancy is less than six weeks gestation and the woman has bleeding but no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, she can be managed expectantly. However, she should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops and to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test means that the pregnancy has miscarried.

      In summary, bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy can be caused by various factors, but ectopic pregnancy is the most important cause to rule out. Early referral to an early pregnancy assessment service and a transvaginal ultrasound scan are crucial in identifying the location of the pregnancy and ensuring appropriate management. Women should also be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any worrying symptoms or if bleeding or pain persists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.6
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  • Question 26 - A patient who recently had a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) has been...

    Correct

    • A patient who recently had a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) has been prescribed medication to manage their hypertension. However, they are unable to continue taking the medication due to experiencing a dry cough, which is a common side effect. Which medication is most likely responsible for this side effect?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Ramipril, lisinopril, and other ACE inhibitors are effective in managing hypertension by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II in the RAAS. This system increases blood pressure by stimulating the release of aldosterone and ADH, increasing sympathetic activity, and sodium absorption in the kidneys. By inhibiting this conversion, hypertension can be managed. However, a common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough due to increased bradykinin levels. Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker used to limit myocardial oxygen requirement following a heart attack. Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor antagonist used in hypertension management for patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the dry cough side effect. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension without causing a dry cough. Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide-type diuretic used to treat hypertension and has a role in heart failure, but is not commonly used due to the effectiveness of ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor antagonists. It can cause electrolyte abnormalities such as hyponatremia and hypokalemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old woman has had a hysterectomy for a fibroid uterus two days...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has had a hysterectomy for a fibroid uterus two days ago. She will soon be ready for discharge, and your consultant has asked you to start the patient on hormone replacement therapy (HRT).
      She has a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2, a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus on metformin and no personal or family history of venous thromboembolism.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a combination of oestrogen and progesterone therapy

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an oestrogen patch

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate method of HRT for the patient in this scenario is a transdermal oestrogen patch, as she has had a hysterectomy and oestrogen monotherapy is the regimen of choice. As the patient’s BMI is > 30 kg/m2, an oral oestrogen preparation is not recommended due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. HRT has benefits for the patient, including protection against osteoporosis, urogenital atrophy, and cardiovascular disorders. However, HRT also has risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism and endometrial and breast cancer. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication to HRT, and there is no evidence that HRT affects glucose control. Combination HRT regimens are reserved for women with a uterus, and oral oestradiol once daily is not recommended for patients with a BMI > 30 kg/m2 due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Women at high risk of developing venous thromboembolism or those with a strong family history or thrombophilia should be referred to haematology before starting HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 27-year-old woman presents to her doctor to discuss the results of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to her doctor to discuss the results of her recent cervical smear. She is sexually active with one partner for the past 6 months and denies any history of sexually transmitted infections or post-coital bleeding. The results of her cervical smear show low-grade dyskaryosis and a positive human papillomavirus test. What is the next best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat cytology in 3 months

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s cervical smear shows abnormal cytology and a positive result for a high-risk strain of human papillomavirus, the next step is to refer them for colposcopy to obtain a cervical biopsy and assess for cervical cancer. This patient cannot be discharged to normal recall as they are at significant risk of developing cervical cancer. If the cytology is inadequate, it can be retested in 3 months. However, if the cytology shows low-grade dyskaryosis, colposcopy and further assessment are necessary. Delaying the repeat cytology for 6 months would not be appropriate. If the cytology is normal but the patient is positive for high-risk human papillomavirus, retesting for human papillomavirus in 12 months is appropriate. However, if abnormal cytology is present with high-risk human papillomavirus, colposcopy and further assessment are needed.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hr HPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of back and leg pain while...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of back and leg pain while walking for the past 8 months. She has noticed a decrease in her walking distance over the last 3 months due to an increase in pain severity. She finds relief from her pain when bending over. Walking downhill is difficult for her, but she can manage uphill without symptoms. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes. On examination, there is no weakness or atrophy of the leg muscles, and distal foot pulses are present. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      If a patient shows signs of intermittent claudication that do not worsen with increased exertion, it is likely due to neurogenic causes rather than ischemic causes.

      Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.

      Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24.2
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  • Question 30 - A 54-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after falling from a step-ladder...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after falling from a step-ladder and landing on her back. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently taking trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection. Upon examination, her GCS is 15/15, but her heart rate is only 50 beats/min and her blood pressure is 90/45 mmHg. Despite receiving intravenous fluids, her blood pressure only increases slightly to 91/47 mmHg. However, her peripheries are warm and her capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds. What is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Cardiogenic shock

      Correct Answer: Neurogenic shock

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing neurogenic shock, which is a type of distributive shock. As a result, the patient’s peripheries will feel warm due to peripheral vasodilation. Neurogenic shock occurs when the autonomic nervous system is interrupted, leading to a decrease in sympathetic tone or an increase in parasympathetic tone. This causes marked vasodilation and a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance, resulting in warm peripheries. Unlike other types of shock, administering intravenous fluids will not improve the patient’s blood pressure. Anaphylactic shock, cardiogenic shock, and hemorrhagic shock are not the correct diagnoses for this patient. Anaphylactic shock is caused by exposure to an allergen, which is not present in this case. Cardiogenic shock is characterized by circulatory collapse and cool peripheries, while hemorrhagic shock causes vasoconstriction and cool peripheries to preserve blood volume. Additionally, the patient’s blood pressure did not improve after fluid resuscitation, making neurogenic shock a more likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Shock: Aetiology and Management

      Shock is a condition that occurs when there is inadequate tissue perfusion. It can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, haemorrhage, neurogenic injury, cardiogenic events, and anaphylaxis. Septic shock is a major concern, with a mortality rate of over 40% in patients with severe sepsis. Haemorrhagic shock is often seen in trauma patients, and the severity is classified based on the amount of blood loss and associated physiological changes. Neurogenic shock occurs following spinal cord injury, leading to decreased peripheral vascular resistance and cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is commonly caused by ischaemic heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe hypersensitivity reaction that can be life-threatening.

      The management of shock depends on the underlying cause. In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics and haemodynamic stabilisation are crucial. In haemorrhagic shock, controlling bleeding and maintaining circulating volume are essential. In neurogenic shock, peripheral vasoconstrictors are used to restore vascular tone. In cardiogenic shock, supportive treatment and surgery may be required. In anaphylactic shock, adrenaline is the most important drug and should be given as soon as possible.

      Understanding the aetiology and management of shock is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide timely and appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      30.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (1/5) 20%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (2/3) 67%
Statistics (1/1) 100%
Ethics And Legal (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (2/4) 50%
Musculoskeletal (2/3) 67%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Colorectal (0/1) 0%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Sexual Health (1/1) 100%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/2) 0%
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