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  • Question 1 - A senior citizen is referred to the Emergency Department by his General Practitioner,...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen is referred to the Emergency Department by his General Practitioner, feeling generally unwell and with reduced urine output. Bloods tests show: Na+ 128 mmol/l, K+ 7.2 mmol/l, urea 42.6 mmol/l, creatinine 828 μmol/l.
      An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows widespread tenting of T-waves.
      Which of the following treatments should be given first?

      Your Answer: Intravenous saline

      Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyperkalaemia: Immediate Actions and Treatment Options

      Hyperkalaemia, defined as a serum potassium level greater than 6.5 mmol/l, requires immediate attention to prevent fatal arrhythmias. The first step is to confirm the result with repeat electrolyte testing and administer calcium gluconate or chloride to stabilize cardiac membranes. ECG changes such as peaked/tented T-waves and prolonged PR interval may indicate the need for urgent intervention.

      Insulin and dextrose infusion, along with salbutamol nebulizers, can be used to lower serum potassium levels. Calcium resonium may be used for continued potassium reduction, but it is not effective in acute management.

      It is important to prioritize cardioprotection by administering calcium gluconate first, followed by insulin and dextrose and salbutamol nebulizers as needed. Intravenous saline may be useful in cases of dehydration-related acute kidney injury, but it will not have an immediate effect on significant hyperkalaemia.

      In summary, prompt recognition and management of hyperkalaemia are crucial to prevent life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old postmenopausal woman with a 2-year history of invasive ductal carcinoma of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old postmenopausal woman with a 2-year history of invasive ductal carcinoma of the left breast with axillary lymph node involvement presents with confusion and lethargy. She had nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, constipation, polyuria and polydipsia for 1 week. Investigations show:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Sodium (Na+) 144 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate (HCO3-) 23 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      PaCO2 5.6 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      Corrected Ca2+ 3.47 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Phosphate (PO43-) 0.55 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Magnesium (Mg2+) 1.9 mmol/l 0.75–1.00 mmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of these manifestations?

      Your Answer: Bone metastasis and release of osteoclast activating factor

      Correct Answer: Tumour release of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia in Malignancy-Associated Hypercalcaemia

      Malignancy-associated hypercalcaemia is a common complication in patients with advanced malignancies. The primary cause of hypercalcaemia in this condition is the release of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP) by tumours. This can lead to symptoms such as confusion, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, constipation, polyuria, and polydipsia.

      While osteolytic bone metastasis is a common cause of hypercalcaemia in patients with advanced malignancies, the presence of hypophosphataemia in this patient suggests a different aetiology. In this case, the phosphaturic action of PTH or PTHrP is responsible for the hypophosphataemia.

      Excess PTH production, bone metastasis and release of osteoclast activating factor, tumour production of 1-hydroxylase, and excess calcium and vitamin D intake are other potential causes of hypercalcaemia. However, in this patient, these causes can be ruled out based on the laboratory findings and symptoms.

      Treatment of symptomatic hypercalcaemia involves addressing the underlying cause and administering bisphosphonates for long-term control. Understanding the causes of hypercalcaemia in malignancy-associated hypercalcaemia is crucial for effective management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old man has been experiencing increasing pain in his left hip for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has been experiencing increasing pain in his left hip for the past six months, resulting in severe limitations in movement. Upon examination, there is significant restriction in flexion and external rotation of the left hip. An X-ray of the hip reveals significant joint deformity with loss of joint space and extensive new bone growth. The possibility of Paget's disease is being considered. What is the most likely elevated factor in this case?

      Your Answer: Phosphate

      Correct Answer: Alkaline phosphatase

      Explanation:

      Laboratory Markers in Paget’s Disease: Understanding Their Significance

      Paget’s disease is a condition characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, leading to bone deformities and fractures. Laboratory markers can provide valuable information about the disease activity and response to treatment. Here are some key markers and their significance in Paget’s disease:

      Alkaline phosphatase: This enzyme is produced by osteoblasts and is a marker of bone formation. Elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase are commonly seen in patients with Paget’s disease. Treatment with bisphosphonates can lead to a decrease in alkaline phosphatase levels, indicating a reduction in disease activity.

      Calcium: Calcium levels are typically normal in patients with Paget’s disease and do not provide any useful information about disease activity.

      Magnesium: Low levels of magnesium are associated with highly active Paget’s disease, likely due to increased uptake by bone. However, elevated levels of magnesium are not a feature of the disease.

      Phosphate: Phosphate accumulation is not a feature of Paget’s disease. Low-phosphate diet and phosphate binders are important in the management of patients with chronic kidney disease.

      Vitamin D: Elevated levels of vitamin D are not involved in the pathogenesis of Paget’s disease. However, in other conditions such as sarcoidosis, increased production of vitamin D can lead to hypercalcemia.

      Understanding the significance of these laboratory markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of Paget’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency room unconscious with a long history...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency room unconscious with a long history of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations reveal elevated levels of sodium, potassium, urea, and glucose. What is the osmolality?

      Your Answer: 442

      Explanation:

      Understanding Plasma Osmolality and its Clinical Significance

      Plasma osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solutes in the blood and is an important indicator of a patient’s clinical state. To calculate plasma osmolality, the equation 2 [Na+ + K+] + [urea] + [glucose] is used. The normal osmolality of extracellular fluid is 280-290 mOsm/kg.

      A high plasma osmolality may indicate conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, caused by undiagnosed diabetes, or high blood ethanol, methanol, or ethylene glycol. On the other hand, low plasma osmolality may be caused by excess fluid intake, hyponatremia, SIADH, or paraneoplastic syndromes.

      It is important to identify the cause of abnormal plasma osmolality as it can help guide appropriate treatment. For example, hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state requires urgent fluid resuscitation and insulin, while hyponatremia may require fluid restriction or medication to correct.

      Overall, understanding plasma osmolality and its clinical significance can aid in the diagnosis and management of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient's arterial blood gas shows the following:
    pH 7.30
    O2 13 kPa
    CO2 3.0 kPa
    HCO3−...

    Incorrect

    • A patient's arterial blood gas shows the following:
      pH 7.30
      O2 13 kPa
      CO2 3.0 kPa
      HCO3− 15.0 mmol/l
      Which of the following does the above blood gas picture represent for a patient in their 60s?

      Your Answer: A compensated respiratory alkalosis

      Correct Answer: A partially compensated metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acid-Base Imbalances: Differentiating Partially Compensated Metabolic Acidosis, Respiratory Acidosis, Compensated Respiratory Acidosis, Metabolic Acidosis, and Compensated Respiratory Alkalosis

      Acid-base imbalances can be challenging to interpret, but understanding the underlying mechanisms can help healthcare professionals identify the cause and provide appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to differentiate between different types of acid-base imbalances:

      Partially Compensated Metabolic Acidosis: The patient is acidotic, but the CO2 is low, indicating compensation. The lowered HCO3- confirms metabolic acidosis, but calculating the anion gap can help identify the cause.

      Respiratory Acidosis: The CO2 is high, indicating respiratory acidosis.

      Compensated Respiratory Acidosis: The CO2 is high, but the pH is normal due to compensation.

      Metabolic Acidosis: The HCO3- is low, indicating metabolic acidosis. However, if there is partial compensation with lowered CO2, it can be classified as partially compensated metabolic acidosis.

      Compensated Respiratory Alkalosis: The patient is acidotic, not alkalotic, so this is not the correct diagnosis.

      By understanding the different types of acid-base imbalances and their underlying mechanisms, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.2, p(O2) of 16.3...

    Incorrect

    • The arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.2, p(O2) of 16.3 kPa, p(CO2) of 3.9 kPa, HCO3– of 16 mmol/l, and SaO2 of 94% on high-flow oxygen. Based on these results, which clinical scenario is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bowel ischaemia

      Explanation:

      Bowel ischaemia leads to a metabolic acidosis, as evidenced by a low pH, low HCO3–, and low p(CO2). This is caused by the release of lactate due to the lack of blood flow to the bowel. Pneumonia may cause a type 1 respiratory failure with low p(O2) and normal or low p(CO2), but it is less likely to cause an acidosis without hypoxia. Cardiogenic shock may result in pulmonary oedema and hypoxia, but it is unlikely to cause an acidosis. Chronic furosemide ingestion can cause metabolic acidosis, but it is not a likely cause for this patient. Hyperventilation can lead to an elevated pH and low p(CO2) due to the loss of p(CO2) faster than the kidneys can compensate with HCO3– reduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 7 - An 89-year-old patient presents to the Cardiology clinic. She has been seen previously...

    Incorrect

    • An 89-year-old patient presents to the Cardiology clinic. She has been seen previously for worsening congestive heart failure symptoms, but today she reports that her mobility and breathlessness have greatly improved, thanks to a new medication she has been prescribed. Routine blood tests report the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 122 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 187 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 115 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      What is the cause of her biochemical abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of the Na+K+2Cl− symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms and Side-Effects of Different Diuretics

      Loop diuretics like furosemide and bumetanide inhibit the Na+K+2Cl− symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, leading to hyponatraemia, hypochloraemia and hypokalaemia. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, antagonizes aldosterone, causing natriuresis, diuresis and potassium conservation, but also hyperkalaemia. Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase, leading to the excretion of sodium, chloride and bicarbonate, and is mainly used in acute open angle closure glaucoma. Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+/Cl− cotransporter in the late distal convoluted tubules, causing hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia and other side-effects. ACE inhibitors like ramipril and enalapril block the production of angiotensin II, causing vasodilation and hyperkalaemia, and are used in hypertension, symptomatic heart failure and secondary prophylaxis following a myocardial infarction. Common side-effects of these diuretics include hyperkalaemia, hypokalaemia, hyperuricaemia, hyperglycaemia, gout, postural hypotension, and altered liver function tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old woman comes to her primary care physician complaining of ongoing lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to her primary care physician complaining of ongoing lower back pain. She has a medical history of type I diabetes mellitus since the age of 17 and hypertension. Upon examination, her total serum calcium level is found to be 3.5 (2.2–2.6 mmol/l), and her serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) level is significantly low. What is the most probable reason for these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malignancy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypercalcaemia: Causes and Mnemonics

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. It can be caused by various factors, including malignancy, primary hyperparathyroidism, primary hypoparathyroidism, and respiratory alkalosis. High serum calcium levels in the presence of low PTH levels suggest malignancy, while primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with high levels of both PTH and calcium. On the other hand, primary hypoparathyroidism is characterized by low levels of both PTH and calcium. Respiratory alkalosis can cause a high PTH level in the setting of normal or low serum calcium levels.

      To remember the clinical features of primary hyperparathyroidism/hypercalcaemia, the mnemonic bones, stones, groans, moans can be used. Bones refer to bone pain, stones refer to kidney stones, groans refer to abdominal pain, and moans refer to emotional upset such as depression and anxiety.

      Understanding the causes and mnemonics of hypercalcaemia can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition. Further research is needed to fully understand the pathogenesis and treatment of hypercalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 9 - A 21-year-old with long-standing type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought unconscious to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old with long-standing type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department. Investigations reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 160 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 50 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Glucose 60 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      PO2 15 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pH 7.1 7.35–7.45
      pCO2 1.3 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      Chloride (Cl−) 90 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 4.0 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      What is the anion gap?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 72

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Anion Gap

      The anion gap is a calculation used to determine the cause of metabolic acidosis when a clinical cause is not immediately obvious. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of the two major anions (HCO3− + Cl−) from the sum of the two major cations (Na+ + K+). In healthy individuals, the anion gap is typically 10-18 mmol/l and reflects the anionic nature of most proteins in plasma at physiological pH, with phosphate and other anions also making a small contribution.

      An increased anion gap indicates an acidosis in which anions other than chloride are increased, such as in cases of lactate, ketones, or salicylate. On the other hand, a normal anion gap in the presence of acidosis suggests a loss of bicarbonate, such as in renal tubular acidosis.

      Understanding the anion gap can be a useful tool in diagnosing and treating metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old man visits the Emergency Department with severe sharp pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man visits the Emergency Department with severe sharp pain in the left groin and chronic lower back pain after falling in his garden. He is unable to walk. He has a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2. His pulse is 80 bpm and regular, blood pressure (BP) 140/80 mm Hg. Fracture of the left neck of the femur is identified on X-ray and treated.
      Routine laboratory results are below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Serum calcium concentration 2.1 mmol/l 2.15 – 2.6 mmol/l
      Serum phosphate concentration 0.8 mmol/l 0.8 – 1.4 mmol/l
      Parathyroid hormone level 60 pg/ml 11 – 54 pg/ml
      Urea 5 mmol/l 2.5 – 7.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 80 μmol/l 60 – 110 μmol/l
      What is the next most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum 25-hydroxy vitamin D (25(OH)D) levels

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Vitamin D Deficiency, Hyperparathyroidism, and Multiple Myeloma

      Vitamin D deficiency, hyperparathyroidism, and multiple myeloma are conditions that can affect calcium and phosphate levels in the body. To diagnose these conditions, various tests are used.

      Serum 25-hydroxy vitamin D (25(OH)D) levels are the best test to determine vitamin D status. Levels lower than 25 nmol/l indicate positive vitamin D deficiency. Treatment should commence if serum 25(OH)D levels are in the range of 25–50 nmol/l.

      Serum protein electrophoresis is used in the diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In multiple myeloma, there are osteolytic bone lesions leading to hypercalcemia.

      Ultrasonogram (USG) neck is used to assess parathyroid adenoma, which is associated with hyperparathyroidism. In hyperparathyroidism, serum PTH levels are very high with increased calcium and decreased phosphate levels.

      Urine Bence Jones Protein is positive in multiple myeloma. In multiple myeloma, there are osteolytic bone lesions leading to hypercalcemia, with impaired renal function.

      24-hour urinary calcium is elevated in hyperparathyroidism, type I renal tubular acidosis, vitamin D intoxication, and Bartter syndrome. However, it has no role in the diagnosis of vitamin D deficiency.

      Overall, these diagnostic tests can help healthcare professionals identify and treat these conditions, leading to improved patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old man is suspected of having bone disease.
    The following results are obtained:
    Plasma
    Investigation...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is suspected of having bone disease.
      The following results are obtained:
      Plasma
      Investigation Result Normal range
      Corrected Ca2+ 1.85 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Albumin 42 g/l 35–55 g/l
      PO43− 0.7 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 180 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Which of the following diagnoses is consistent with these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Bone Disorders: Osteomalacia, Osteoporosis, Paget’s Disease, Myeloma, and Bone Metastases

      Osteomalacia is a condition where there is insufficient mineralization of bone, resulting in softening of the bone. This is caused by a decrease in plasma PO43− and Ca2+ levels, and an increase in alkaline phosphatase due to increased bone turnover. It can be caused by various factors such as vitamin D deficiency, renal failure, medications, tumors, or liver disease.

      Osteoporosis, on the other hand, is associated with normal plasma PO43−, Ca2+, and alkaline phosphatase levels. Paget’s disease is caused by increased bone turnover, resulting in elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, but normal plasma PO43− and Ca2+ levels.

      Myeloma and bone metastases both cause raised plasma Ca2+ levels, but the distinguishing feature is the alkaline phosphatase level. Myeloma has normal alkaline phosphatase levels, while bone metastases have elevated levels.

      It is important to note that in interpreting calcium levels, only the total calcium concentration is given, not corrected calcium. Alterations in serum protein concentration directly affect the total blood calcium concentration, even if the ionized calcium concentration remains normal. An algorithm to correct for protein changes is to adjust the total serum calcium upward by 0.8 times the deficit in serum albumin or by 0.5 times the deficit in serum immunoglobulins. However, in this question, the serum albumin value is within normal limits, hence no correction for total calcium is required.

      Overall, understanding the differences between these bone disorders and their associated laboratory findings is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old man with extensive peripheral vascular disease has sudden-onset severe abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with extensive peripheral vascular disease has sudden-onset severe abdominal pain with cramping and bloody stools. An arterial blood gas shows a pH of 6.9.
      Which one of the following would you most likely find in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pCO2: decreased; HCO3−: decreased; urine pH: decreased

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Acid-Base Disorders: Understanding the Relationship between pCO2, HCO3−, and Urine pH

      When analyzing acid-base disorders, it is important to understand the relationship between pCO2, HCO3−, and urine pH. Here are some examples:

      1. Metabolic acidosis: pCO2 decreased, HCO3− decreased, urine pH decreased. This is due to excess H+ ions, which causes HCO3− to decrease and respiratory compensation to increase. The kidneys also work to excrete excess acid, lowering the pH of the urine.

      2. Respiratory acidosis: pCO2 increased, HCO3− increased, urine pH decreased. A pH of 6.9 suggests acidosis, so CO2 would be reduced and HCO3− would be increased to try and normalize the pH. The urinary pH would be decreased.

      3. Metabolic alkalosis: pCO2 increased, HCO3− increased, urine pH increased. HCO3− is increased as they are metabolically alkalotic, CO2 increased to try and offset the alkalosis, and the urinary pH increased as the kidneys try to excrete the excess HCO3−.

      4. Renal metabolic acidosis: pCO2 decreased, HCO3− decreased, urine pH increased. In this case, the urine pH will be increased as the metabolic acidosis is due to renal dysfunction, and the kidneys are excreting the excess acid.

      5. Mixed acidosis/alkalosis: pCO2 decreased, HCO3− increased, urine pH decreased. This is not seen in any straightforward acid-base disorder but could be seen in states of mixed acidosis/alkalosis.

      Understanding these relationships can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat acid-base disorders effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 13 - A 67-year-old woman was admitted 3 days ago with small bowel obstruction. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman was admitted 3 days ago with small bowel obstruction. A nasogastric (NG) tube was inserted, and she began 2 litres of intravenous (IV) fluids daily. She reports feeling short of breath and, on examination has widespread fine crackles on auscultation of her chest and pitting sacral oedema. Her notes show that she weighs 48 kg. You're-calculate her daily fluid intake.
      What is her required daily fluid intake?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1000–1500 ml

      Explanation:

      Calculating Maintenance Fluids for a Patient in Fluid Overload

      When a patient is in fluid overload and experiencing pulmonary edema, it is important to carefully calculate their maintenance fluid requirements to avoid worsening their condition. The recommended calculation is 25-30 ml/kg/day. For a patient weighing 48 kg, this equates to a fluid requirement of 1200-1440 ml per day.

      If the patient is currently receiving 2 liters of fluid per day, it is likely that this was necessary initially to replace fluid loss. However, once this has been achieved, it is important to step down to normal maintenance levels to avoid exacerbating the fluid overload. Giving 1500-2000 ml or more would only worsen the patient’s condition.

      Therefore, it is important to carefully monitor a patient’s fluid intake and adjust as necessary to maintain a safe balance and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of generalised aches, especially...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of generalised aches, especially in his knees when he walks. He also feels like his muscles are weaker now despite maintaining the same exercise routine as always. The GP notices that the patient is wearing long sleeves and trousers despite the warm weather, and the patient admits to disliking the sun. Upon conducting a blood test, the GP discovers low levels of calcium and phosphate. What is the most probable diagnosis for this metabolic bone condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Bone Disorders: Understanding the Characteristics of Osteomalacia, Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica, Osteopetrosis, Osteoporosis, and Paget’s Disease

      Bone disorders can present with similar symptoms, making it challenging to diagnose the specific condition. Understanding the characteristics of each disorder can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Osteomalacia is caused by a lack of vitamin D, resulting in soft bones. Risk factors include limited sunlight exposure, covering the skin, and a diet lacking in vitamin D. Low levels of vitamin D lead to decreased serum calcium and phosphate levels.

      Osteitis fibrosa cystica is caused by hyperparathyroidism, resulting in increased bone breakdown and raised serum calcium but low phosphate levels. Patients commonly present with bone pain, fractures, and skeletal deformities.

      Osteopetrosis involves impaired bone remodelling due to the failure of osteoclasts to resorb bone, resulting in increased bone mass but skeletal fragility. It can be autosomal recessive or dominant.

      Osteoporosis is characterised by reduced bone mass, resulting in skeletal fragility, and is common in the elderly. However, it does not typically present with bone pain, and serum calcium and phosphate levels are unaffected.

      Paget’s disease is characterised by pathological increased bone turnover, commonly affecting the skull, pelvis, spine, and legs. Bone pain is a common presenting symptom, but serum calcium and phosphate levels are unaffected.

      Understanding the unique characteristics of each bone disorder can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 15 - A 21-year-old unemployed woman attempts suicide by ingesting a household substance in excess....

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old unemployed woman attempts suicide by ingesting a household substance in excess. Her arterial blood gas analysis shows the following results:
      pH 7.26 (normal range: 7.35–7.45)
      pCO2 3.0 kPa (normal range: 4.6–6.0 kPa)
      pO2 14.6 kPa (normal range: 10.5–13.5 kPa)
      HCO3- 15.2 mmol/l (normal range: 24–30 mmol/l)
      BE -7.4
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l (normal range: 135–145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
      Chloride (Cl-) 103 mmol/l (normal range: 98-106 mmol/l)
      Urea 12.9 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5–6.5 mmol/l)

      What is the anion gap of the 21-year-old patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 28.1

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Anion Gap in Metabolic Acidosis

      The anion gap is a useful tool in determining the cause of metabolic acidosis when it is not immediately apparent. In a healthy individual, the anion gap ranges from 10-18 mmol/l and reflects the anionic nature of proteins in plasma at physiological pH, along with other anions such as phosphate.

      When anions other than chloride are increased, such as in cases of elevated lactate, ketones, or salicylate, the anion gap is increased. On the other hand, in cases of bicarbonate loss, such as in renal tubular acidosis, the plasma chloride concentration is increased and the anion gap remains normal.

      To calculate the anion gap, the sum of the two major cations (Na+ and K+) is subtracted from the sum of the two major anions (HCO3- and Cl-). A high anion gap indicates the presence of an exogenous acid or acid present in unmeasured small quantities during health.

      In clinical scenarios where the cause of metabolic acidosis is not immediately obvious, calculating the anion gap can provide valuable information in determining the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 16 - A frail 82-year-old woman with metastatic renal cell carcinoma is admitted with acute...

    Incorrect

    • A frail 82-year-old woman with metastatic renal cell carcinoma is admitted with acute confusion. She takes paracetamol and codeine for pain and has been on bendroflumethiazide for several years to treat hypertension. On examination, she is disorientated in time and place. She is clinically hypovolaemic but her blood pressure and heart rate are normal. Chest, cardiovascular, abdominal and neurological examinations are otherwise normal. There is no evidence of infection. Her blood results are as follows:
      Creatinine 140 μmol/l
      Urea 18.0 mmol/l
      Sodium 129 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.0 mmol/l
      Corrected calcium 3.2 mmol/l
      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer 2 l of 0.9% sodium chloride over 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Managing Malignant Hypercalcaemia: Urgent Treatment Required

      Malignant hypercalcaemia is a serious oncological and palliative care emergency that requires urgent treatment. In this patient, bony metastases are the most likely cause, but hypercalcaemia can also arise as a paraneoplastic phenomenon. A calcium level of >2.8 mmol/l will usually require treatment.

      Administering 2 l of 0.9% sodium chloride over 24 hours is a crucial first step in managing hypercalcaemia. However, it is important to note that renal dialysis would not be the first choice of management. Instead, the mainstay of treatment is rehydration followed by a bisphosphonate infusion. Therefore, it is not advisable to commence an infusion of pamidronate before the patient is rehydrated, as this can reduce the efficacy of the bisphosphonate and cause or exacerbate renal failure.

      It is also important to stop any medications that may inhibit renal excretion of calcium, such as bendroflumethiazide. However, stopping this medication alone would not acutely resolve the hypercalcaemia present in this patient or resolve her confusion.

      Encouraging oral fluids and reassessing in 24 hours is not a suitable option for this patient, as she is already confused and has a high calcium level that requires urgent treatment. Ignoring the issue could potentially worsen the hypercalcaemia and put the patient at a severely increased risk of coma and death.

      In summary, managing malignant hypercalcaemia requires urgent treatment, including rehydration and bisphosphonate infusion, while also stopping any medications that may inhibit renal excretion of calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 17 - A 67-year-old woman comes to the General Practice complaining of lethargy and fatigue....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to the General Practice complaining of lethargy and fatigue. She had undergone abdominal surgery for ulcerative colitis and was discharged from the hospital recently. She is waiting for the reversal of a stoma and has been experiencing profuse diarrhoea and high output from the stoma. Her routine blood tests are normal, except for a significantly low magnesium level. What is the best course of action to correct her magnesium levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) magnesium sulfate

      Explanation:

      Management of Magnesium Deficiency in a Patient with High Stoma Output and Diarrhoea

      Magnesium deficiency is a common problem in patients with high stoma output and diarrhoea. The most appropriate management for correcting magnesium levels in such patients is intravenous (IV) magnesium sulfate. While an intramuscular injection is also an option, it can be painful. Once magnesium levels are corrected, it is important to involve the Colorectal Team to discuss management of the stoma and prevent further recurrence.

      While loperamide can improve diarrhoea and stoma output, it is not the best answer for correcting magnesium levels. Oral magnesium aspartate and oral magnesium sulfate are not well absorbed and can worsen diarrhoea. Oral magnesium glycerophosphate can prevent recurrence of magnesium deficiency after correction via IV or intramuscular routes, but IV correction is preferred in symptomatic patients with significantly low magnesium levels and increased losses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old woman presented with abdominal swelling, pain and constipation for 5 days....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presented with abdominal swelling, pain and constipation for 5 days. She also complained of generalised aches and pains and feelings of thirst. She had recently been diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer which had recurred. She has a past medical history of irritable bowel syndrome and hypothyroidism. Her regular medications include paracetamol and thyroxine. Her general practitioner (GP) had started her on codeine yesterday. On examination, she appeared dehydrated and had a soft, but mildly distended, abdomen. Thyroid function tested 2 weeks ago was normal.
      What is the most likely cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical emergency that can occur in patients with cancer, especially those with metastatic cancer and osteolytic lesions. Breast, lung, and multiple myeloma are the most common cancers that cause hypercalcaemia. Symptoms include lethargy, anorexia, nausea, constipation, dehydration, polyuria, polydipsia, renal stones, confusion, and generalised aches. Treatment involves intravenous fluid resuscitation and bisphosphonates. Codeine can cause constipation, but if it lasts for more than five days, it may not be the cause. Hypothyroidism and irritable bowel syndrome can also lead to constipation, but the patient’s thyroid function test is normal, and there are no other symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome. Malignant bowel obstruction causes absolute constipation, a distended abdomen, and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department in a state of distress....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department in a state of distress. She is experiencing left carpopedal spasm and tingling around her lips and tongue, along with hyperventilation. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that she has recently received some upsetting news. Her blood work reveals the following results:
      pH 7.45
      PaO2 11.1 kPa
      PaCO2 3.0 kPa
      What is the probable reason for her carpopedal spasm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A reduction in free ionised calcium

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hyperventilation-Induced Hypocalcaemia

      Hyperventilation can lead to respiratory alkalosis, which in turn can cause a reduction in free ionised calcium levels. This occurs because both hydrogen ions and calcium bind to albumin in the blood, and by reducing the number of hydrogen ions, more binding sites become available for calcium ions, resulting in a drop in free ionised calcium. This can lead to symptoms of hypocalcaemia, such as carpopedal spasm. Management involves rebreathing expired air or using small doses of benzodiazepines in extreme cases. It is important to note that measured calcium levels may be normal despite the presence of hypocalcaemia.

      While hyperventilation-induced hypocalcaemia is a possible explanation for these symptoms, it is important to rule out other potential causes. High oxygen levels and low carbon dioxide levels may not directly cause these symptoms, but they are related to the hyperventilation that leads to respiratory alkalosis. Additionally, while certain psychiatric disorders may make hyperventilation more likely, the presence of low carbon dioxide levels and the patient’s signs and symptoms suggest that this is not a functional disorder. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of hyperventilation-induced hypocalcaemia can aid in proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 20 - You are a surgical house officer (F1) attending to a patient on the...

    Incorrect

    • You are a surgical house officer (F1) attending to a patient on the surgical ward. The nurses mention to you that the patient is having intermittent episodes of pyrexia, without other complaints. The patient is now on their second day following a subtotal thyroidectomy. On assessing the patient, you note that the patient is well in himself and, apart from pyrexia, has no other complaints.
      Examination is unremarkable and vital signs are normal, and specifically the neck has no swelling or discharge. A bedside ECG does not reveal any abnormalities. Blood tests are noted as follows:
      Investigations Results Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 111 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelet (Plt) 415 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea (Ur) 4.5 mmol/l 2.6–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 35 mmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 7 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Liver function tests (LFTs) sample haemolysed
      Which of the following interventions would you do first if the patient was 70 years old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take a repeat blood sample to check the potassium level

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyperkalaemia: Prioritizing Interventions

      Hyperkalaemia is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent management. In the scenario where a blood sample shows raised potassium levels, the first intervention should be to repeat the blood sample to confirm the hyperkalaemia. Clinical features associated with hyperkalaemia are non-specific, and an ECG should be performed to investigate any changes associated with hyperkalaemia. Treatment involves stabilizing the myocardium with calcium gluconate, pushing potassium intracellularly with insulin and glucose or nebulized salbutamol, and administering calcium resonium to promote excretion of potassium from the body. In this scenario, administering calcium gluconate should be considered only if there is evidence of hyperkalaemic changes on the ECG or in the presence of moderate to severe hyperkalaemia. Establishing an iv line is essential, and a septic screen should be performed if the patient has post-operative intermittent pyrexia. However, the priority is to confirm the hyperkalaemia and treat it and the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with a one-day history of symptoms suggestive of severe pneumonia. Before admission, he had become increasingly confused. On examination, he is drowsy; his oxygen saturations were 90% on room air, blood pressure 142/75 mmHg and pulse 98 bpm, with coarse crackles in the right lung on auscultation. He is clinically euvolaemic. A chest X-ray reveals dense right lung consolidation. Computed tomography (CT) of the brain is normal. While in the Emergency Department, he has a tonic–clonic seizure.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 112 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Glucose 5.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Urea 2.4 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 64 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Plasma osmolarity 261 mOsmol/kg 280–295 mOsmol/kg
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 3 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
      Random cortisol 450 nmol/l
      9 am: 140–500 nmol/l
      Midnight: 50–300 nmol/l
      Urine osmolarity 560 mOsmol/kg 300–900 mOsmol/kg
      Urine sodium 55 mmol/l
      What is the most appropriate management of this patient’s hyponatraemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) 3% hypertonic saline

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Severe Symptomatic Hyponatraemia Secondary to SIADH

      Severe symptomatic hyponatraemia secondary to syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) requires urgent treatment. The first-line treatment is a single infusion of 150 ml of 3% hypertonic saline or equivalent over 20 minutes, with serum sodium concentration measured after 20 minutes. The infusion should be repeated until a target of 5 mmol/l increase in serum sodium concentration is achieved, with a limit of 10 mmol/l in the first 24 hours and 8 mmol/l during every 24 hours thereafter until a serum sodium concentration of 130 mmol/l is reached. The serum sodium concentration should be checked after one, six, and 12 hours.

      Fluid restriction of 800 ml/day is considered first line in moderate SIADH, but in severe cases, IV hypertonic saline is required urgently to raise the sodium concentration. Oral slow sodium tablets are second line after fluid restriction, but not suitable for severe symptomatic hyponatraemia. Demeclocycline is not recommended due to lack of evidence beyond modest efficacy and reports of acute kidney injury.

      It is important to note that giving normal saline to a patient with SIADH will actually lower the serum sodium concentration even more, as sodium and water handling by the kidney are regulated independently. In SIADH, only water handling is out of balance from too much antidiuretic hormone, while sodium handling is intact. Therefore, administering normal saline will result in all of the sodium being excreted, but about half of the water being retained, worsening the hyponatraemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 22 - A geriatric patient presents to the Emergency Department with a fast, irregular pulse,...

    Incorrect

    • A geriatric patient presents to the Emergency Department with a fast, irregular pulse, chest pain, weakness and palpitations. Upon arrival, investigations were carried out, including the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      PaO2 90 mmHg 75–100 mmHg
      pH 7.35 7.35–7.45
      PaCO2 27 mmHg 35–45 mmHg
      Sodium (Na+) 125 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      HCO3− 15 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl−) 107 mmol/l 98–106 mmol/l
      Normal anion gap 10–18 mmol/l
      With which of the following are the results consistent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyperkalaemia and Metabolic Acidosis with Normal Anion Gap

      An Addisonian crisis is a severe form of adrenal insufficiency that can cause hyperkalaemia and metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. This condition may be due to previously undiagnosed Addison’s disease, sudden adrenal function impairment, or an intercurrent problem in someone with Addison’s. Excessive thiazide treatment, on the other hand, can result in hypokalaemia instead of hyperkalaemia.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis is another condition that presents with hyperkalaemia and metabolic acidosis, but the anion gap is increased due to ketone bodies. Burns can also cause hyperkalaemia due to rhabdomyolysis, with an associated raised anion gap metabolic acidosis. Meanwhile, diarrhoea can cause hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, loss of bicarbonate, and metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 23 - A 70-year-old woman with metastatic carcinoma of the breast is admitted to your...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman with metastatic carcinoma of the breast is admitted to your ward, as her family are finding it difficult to cope with her deterioration over the past two weeks. She appears drowsy and lethargic. She has known hepatic and bony secondary lesions.
      Her admission blood tests are:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 7.9 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 98 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Calcium Ca2+ 3.13 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      PO43− 0.87 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Magnesium (Mg2+) 0.91 mmol/l 0.75 –1.00 mmol/l
      Albumin 37 g/l 35–55 g/l
      Haemoglobin 103 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 98.3 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 186 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this lady’s hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous (iv) normal saline

      Explanation:

      Management of Hypercalcaemia in Palliative Care Patients

      Hypercalcaemia is a common complication in patients with advanced cancer and can cause significant symptoms. The first step in managing hypercalcaemia is to confirm whether it is true hypercalcaemia by calculating the corrected calcium using the serum calcium and albumin values. Adequate hydration with intravenous normal saline is the first-line treatment, with a generous volume of 3000-4000 ml administered. If the calcium levels remain elevated, a single dose of intravenous bisphosphonate, such as pamidronate, may be prescribed. Local protocols for the management of hypercalcaemia should be followed. Other interventions, such as radiotherapy or oral prednisolone, are not first-line treatments for hypercalcaemia. In palliative care patients, simple interventions to relieve symptoms are warranted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old woman (an immigrant from India) complained of lower back and pelvic...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman (an immigrant from India) complained of lower back and pelvic pain, as well as weakness when climbing stairs. Her physician suspects that she may have a vitamin D deficiency.
      Which of the following blood tests would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum calcium 7.9 mg/dl (8.4–10.2 mg/dl)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Laboratory Results of Vitamin D Deficiency

      Vitamin D deficiency can lead to various health problems, including hypocalcaemia and osteoporosis. To diagnose this deficiency, laboratory tests are conducted to measure the levels of different substances in the blood. Here is an explanation of some of the common laboratory results associated with vitamin D deficiency:

      – Serum calcium: A low level of serum calcium is a common indicator of vitamin D deficiency. This is because vitamin D helps in the absorption of calcium from the intestine and its reabsorption in the kidneys.
      – Alkaline phosphatase: Vitamin D deficiency can cause secondary hyperparathyroidism, which leads to increased bone turnover. This, in turn, results in high levels of alkaline phosphatase.
      – Serum phosphate: Due to secondary hyperparathyroidism, there is phosphaturia, which causes low levels of serum phosphate.
      – 25-(OH) D3 level: The best way to diagnose vitamin D deficiency is by measuring the levels of 25-(OH) D3 in the blood. Normal levels would exclude vitamin D deficiency.
      – Magnesium level: Magnesium and vitamin D levels are correlated, but the mechanism for this is still unknown. In vitamin D deficiency, magnesium levels tend to be low or normal, but they are never high.

      In conclusion, understanding the laboratory results associated with vitamin D deficiency can help in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer presents with bony leg pain, constipation...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer presents with bony leg pain, constipation for 4 days, abdominal pain, thirst and disorientation. On examination, he is cachectic and dehydrated. He is apyrexial and haemodynamically stable. He has a past medical history of hypertension and is an ex-smoker. He has no known drug allergies. His calcium is 3.1 mmol/l and he has normal renal function.
      What is the most suitable initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous (iv) 0.9% normal saline

      Explanation:

      Management of Hypercalcaemia in Cancer Patients

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical emergency commonly seen in cancer patients. It presents with symptoms such as lethargy, anorexia, nausea, constipation, dehydration, polyuria, polydipsia, renal stones, confusion, and generalised aches. Other causes of hypercalcaemia include primary and tertiary hyperparathyroidism, sarcoidosis, myeloma, and vitamin D excess. The management of hypercalcaemia involves intravenous (iv) normal saline and bisphosphonates. Local protocols should be referenced for specific guidelines.

      Steroids such as dexamethasone are not recommended for patients who do not have cord compression. Furosemide may be used alongside iv fluids if the patient is at risk of fluid overload, such as in heart failure. Bisphosphonates, such as iv pamidronate, act over 48 hours by preventing bone resorption and inhibiting osteoclasts. Urgent chemotherapy is not recommended for hypercalcaemia as it does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms.

      In conclusion, hypercalcaemia in cancer patients requires prompt management with iv normal saline and bisphosphonates. Other treatment options should be considered based on the patient’s individual needs and local protocols.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 26 - A 47-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department after collapsing in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department after collapsing in a shopping mall. Her identity is unknown and she is unable to provide any medical history. The patient undergoes assessment and blood tests are taken, including an arterial blood gas (ABG). The ABG results reveal a metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap.
      What condition could potentially present with this ABG result in a 47-year-old woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proximal renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Metabolic Acidosis and their Anion Gap

      Metabolic acidosis is classified based on the anion gap, which determines the presence of an unmeasured acid in the circulation. Proximal renal tubular acidosis is caused by the loss of bicarbonate in the kidneys, which is replaced by chloride, maintaining the anion gap but causing acidosis. High anion gap acidosis can be caused by lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis, rhabdomyolysis, and ingestion of certain compounds. Normal anion gap acidosis can be caused by gastrointestinal loss of bicarbonate, hyperventilation, and hypoaldosteronism. Lactic acidosis occurs due to excess production of lactic acid in anaerobic metabolism, while rhabdomyolysis releases intracellular anions causing acidosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis is caused by ketones, and salicylate overdose causes a mixed picture of metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 27 - A 16-year-old girl takes 45 of her stepfather’s aspirin tablets, following an argument...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl takes 45 of her stepfather’s aspirin tablets, following an argument with her boyfriend. 12 hours into her admission, the following arterial blood gas (ABG) and biochemistry tests were performed.
      pH 7.27, PCO2 3.0 kPa, PO2 14.3 kPa, HCO3− 16.2 mmol/l, base excess −7.4 mmol/l
      Na+ 143 mmol/l, K+ 4.5 mmol/l, Cl− 107 mmol/l, urea 12.4 mmol/l, creatinine 87 μmol/l
      What is the patient’s anion gap?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24.3 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anion Gap and Its Significance in Metabolic Acidosis

      Anion gap is a crucial parameter used to diagnose metabolic acidosis, a condition where the body produces excess acid or loses too much base. It is calculated by subtracting the main anions (bicarbonate and chloride) from the main cations (sodium and potassium) in the plasma. The normal range for anion gap is 10-20 mmol/l.

      An increased anion gap indicates the presence of an exogenous acid or acids that are not usually measured in small quantities. This can be caused by drug poisoning, lactic acidosis, renal failure, or ketoacidosis. On the other hand, a low anion gap is less common and can be seen in conditions such as albuminaemia, lithium toxicity, and multiple myeloma.

      Understanding anion gap is essential in determining the cause of metabolic acidosis and guiding appropriate treatment. In cases of deliberate aspirin overdose, metabolic acidosis occurs due to altered metabolism and uncoupling of normal oxidative phosphorylation. Therefore, measuring anion gap can help diagnose and manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 28 - An 80-year-old woman, who has been homebound for several years due to difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman, who has been homebound for several years due to difficulty with mobility, presents with worsening bone pain. She appears unsteady on her feet but has no other specific complaints. Laboratory tests are conducted.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 118 g/dl 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 240 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Calcium 2.01 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Phosphate 9.8 mmol/l 15–50 mmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 450 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Bone Disorders: Causes and Symptoms

      Osteomalacia and rickets are caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, resulting in decreased levels of serum calcium and phosphate and bone matrix hypomineralisation. This condition is often characterised by difficulty mobilising and general fragility. Osteitis fibrosa cystica, on the other hand, is caused by hyperparathyroidism, resulting in raised serum calcium, low phosphate, and elevated ALP. Patients with osteitis fibrosa cystica may also experience kidney stones, nausea, or constipation. Osteopetrosis involves impaired bone remodelling due to failure of osteoclasts to resorb bone, resulting in increased bone mass and skeletal fragility. In contrast, osteoporosis is characterised by reduced bone mass, while Paget’s disease involves pathological increased bone turnover. Understanding the causes and symptoms of these different bone disorders is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 29 - An 85-year-old man has been admitted to the Elderly Care Ward following a...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old man has been admitted to the Elderly Care Ward following a fall. He is clinically euvolaemic and does not take diuretics. He is hyponatraemic with the following paired investigation results:
      Serum Electrolytes
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Creatinine 97 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Urea 3.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Sodium 124 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Osmolality 200 mmol/l 275-295 mmol/l
      Urine Biochemistry
      Sodium 32 mmol/l < 20 mmol/l
      Osmolality 420 mOsm/l < 100 mOsm/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this 85-year-old man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic secretion (SIADH)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Hyponatraemia: Understanding SIADH, Addison’s Disease, Viral Gastroenteritis, Psychogenic Polydipsia, and Diabetes Insipidus

      Hyponatraemia can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. One of the conditions that can cause hyponatraemia is the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic secretion (SIADH). However, the diagnostic criteria for SIADH can vary, and it is a diagnosis of exclusion. Other causes of hyponatraemia, such as diuretic therapy, adrenal failure, and hypothyroidism, should be ruled out before considering SIADH. In a patient with SIADH, euvolaemia with hyponatraemia and low serum osmolality, combined with an inappropriately concentrated urine (high urinary sodium and urine osmolality >100 mOsm/l), suggest the condition.

      Another condition that can cause hyponatraemia is Addison’s disease. However, in this case, the patient would usually be dehydrated with a high serum osmolality and possibly a raised potassium.

      Viral gastroenteritis can also cause hyponatraemia, but the patient would likely have presented with nausea, vomiting, or diarrhoea, and they would likely be hypovolaemic as a result.

      Psychogenic polydipsia is another condition that can cause hyponatraemia. However, in this case, the urine would be appropriately dilute (low urinary sodium and urine osmolality <100 mOsm/l), and the patient might be hypervolaemic. In contrast, in viral gastroenteritis, the patient would be hypovolaemic. Finally, diabetes insipidus can cause hypernatraemia due to excess loss of water resulting from a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone or renal insensitivity to this hormone. It is important to differentiate between these conditions to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications. In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis for hyponatraemia is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 30 - A 78-year-old man is referred to rheumatology outpatients with increasing pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man is referred to rheumatology outpatients with increasing pain in the left leg. On examination, the left leg is slightly larger than the right and appears slightly deformed. An X-ray demonstrates cortical expansion and coarsening of trabeculae in keeping with Paget’s disease of bone.
      What is likely to be found on serum biochemistry?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised ALP, normal calcium, normal phosphate

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Test Results for Paget’s Disease and Other Conditions

      Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disorder that affects bone turnover and can lead to bone pain and deformity. When interpreting blood test results, a raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level is a key indicator of Paget’s disease, while normal levels of calcium and phosphate are typical. However, if calcium is raised along with ALP, other conditions such as parathyroid disease or cancer may be the cause. If ALP and calcium are both raised, osteitis fibrosa cystica may be the culprit, while raised levels of all three (ALP, calcium, and phosphate) may indicate vitamin D intoxication or Milk alkali syndrome. Treatment for Paget’s disease typically involves analgesia, with bisphosphonates as a secondary option if needed. It’s important to seek specialist input for proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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