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  • Question 1 - A surgical registrar performing an adrenalectomy procedure on the left suprarenal gland of...

    Correct

    • A surgical registrar performing an adrenalectomy procedure on the left suprarenal gland of a 25 - year old male patient, accidentally jabbed and injured a vital structure that lies anterior to the left suprarenal organ. Which of the following was the structure most likely injured?

      Your Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      The adrenal (suprarenal) glands are organs of the endocrine system located on top of each of the kidneys. The left suprarenal gland, in question, is crescent in shape and slightly larger than the right suprarenal gland. It is posteriorly located to the lateral aspect of the head of the pancreas which is thus the most likely to be injured. The other organs like the duodenum, liver and the inferior vena cava are related to the right suprarenal gland. The spleen and the colon are not in close proximity with the left suprarenal gland and are not likely to be the organs injured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - During an anatomy revision session, medical students are told that the posterior wall...

    Incorrect

    • During an anatomy revision session, medical students are told that the posterior wall of the rectus sheath ends in a thin curved margin whose concavity is directed downwards. What is the name of this inferior border of the rectus sheath?

      Your Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Correct Answer: Arcuate line

      Explanation:

      The rectus sheath is a tendinous sheath that encloses the rectus abdominis muscle. It covers the entire anterior surface however on the posterior surface of the muscle the sheath is incomplete ending inferiorly at the arcuate line. Below the arcuate line, the rectus abdominis is covered by the transversalis fascia. The linea alba is a band of aponeurosis on the midline of the anterior abdominal wall, which extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis. It is formed by the combined abdominal muscle aponeuroses. This is a useful site for midline incision during abdominal surgery because it does not carry many blood vessels. All of the other answer choices are related to the inguinal canal.
      The falx inguinalis (sometimes called the inguinal falx or conjoint tendon), is the inferomedial attachment of the transversus abdominis with some fibres of the internal abdominal oblique – it contributes to the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.
      The inguinal ligament is the ligament that connects the anterior superior iliac spine with the pubic tubercle – it makes the floor of the inguinal canal.
      The internal (deep) inguinal ring is the entrance to the inguinal canal, where the transversalis fascia pouches out and creates an opening through which structures can leave the abdominal cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 11 year old girl who is small for her age presents to...

    Correct

    • An 11 year old girl who is small for her age presents to the clinic with hypermobile fingers and poor muscular development. Multiple fractures of the long bones and irregular patches of ossification are seen on the x-rays. What is her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta

      Explanation:

      Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta

      Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a disorder of bone fragility chiefly caused by mutations in the COL1A1 and COL1A2 genes that encode type I procollagen.

      Type II – Perinatal lethal
      Some providers who treat large numbers of patients with osteogenesis imperfecta suggest that the diagnosis of Type II OI be made in retrospect for patients who do not survive the perinatal period, and that even patients with very severe forms of OI who nonetheless are long term survivors be classified as Type III. Blue sclera may be present. Patients may have a small nose, micrognathia, or both. All patients have in utero fractures, which may involve the skull, long bones, and/or vertebrae. The ribs are beaded, and the long bones are severely deformed.
      Causes of death include extreme fragility of the ribs, pulmonary hypoplasia, and malformations or haemorrhages of the CNS.

      Type III – Severe, progressively deforming

      Patients may have joint hyperlaxity, muscle weakness, chronic unremitting bone pain, and skull deformities (e.g., posterior flattening) due to bone fragility during infancy.

      Deformities of upper limbs may compromise function and mobility. The presence of dentinogenesis imperfecta is independent of the severity of the osteogenesis imperfecta. The sclera have variable hues. In utero fractures are common. Limb shortening and progressive deformities can occur. Patients have a triangular face with frontal and temporal bossing. Malocclusion is common. Basilar invagination is an uncommon but potentially fatal occurrence in osteogenesis imperfecta.
      Vertigo is common in patients with severe osteogenesis imperfecta. Hypercalciuria may be present in about 36% of patients with osteogenesis imperfecta, and adults may be at higher risk of renal calculi. Respiratory complications secondary to kyphoscoliosis are common in individuals with severe osteogenesis imperfecta.
      Constipation and hernias are also common in people with osteogenesis imperfecta.

      Obtain a radiographic skeletal survey after birth.

      In mild (type I) osteogenesis imperfecta, images may reveal thinning of the long bones with thin cortices. Several wormian bones may be present. No deformity of long bones is observed.

      In extremely severe (type II) osteogenesis imperfecta, the survey may reveal beaded ribs, broad bones, and numerous fractures with deformities of the long bones. Platyspondylia may also be revealed.

      In moderate and severe (types III and IV) osteogenesis imperfecta, imaging may reveal cystic metaphysis, or a popcorn appearance of the growth cartilage. Normal or broad bones are revealed early, with thin bones revealed later. Fractures may cause deformities of the long bones. Old rib fractures may be present. Vertebral fractures are common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man underwent CT scan of the whole abdomen. The result showed...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man underwent CT scan of the whole abdomen. The result showed renal cell carcinoma with a tumour size of 7cm and extension into the regional lymph. What is the clinical stage of his renal cell cancer?

      Your Answer: Stage III

      Explanation:

      Renal cell carcinoma is a kidney cancer that originates in the lining of the proximal convoluted tubule. It is the most common type of kidney cancer in adults, responsible for approximately 90–95% of cases. Renal cell carcinomas can be staged by using the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) TNM (tumour-node-metastasis) classification, as follows: Stage I: tumours that are 7 cm or smaller and confined to the kidney, Stage II: tumours that are larger than 7 cm but still confined to the kidney, Stage III: tumours extending into the renal vein or vena cava, involving the ipsilateral adrenal gland and/or perinephric fat, or which have spread to one local lymph node and Stage IV: tumours extending beyond Gerota’s fascia, to more than one local node, or with distant metastases Recent literature has questioned whether the cut-off in size between stage I and stage II tumours should be 5 cm instead of 7 cm. The patient’s cancer in this case is stage III.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which...

    Incorrect

    • Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which of the following sites?

      Your Answer: Neck

      Correct Answer: Sacrococcygeal area

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. It is derived from all three cell layers. The most common location of teratoma in new-born infants is in the sacrococcygeal area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - From which of the following cells is heparin produced? ...

    Correct

    • From which of the following cells is heparin produced?

      Your Answer: Mast cells

      Explanation:

      Heparin is a natural highly-sulphated glycosaminoglycan that has anticoagulant functions. It is produced by the body basophils and mast cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 71 year old woman is being observed at the hospital for severe...

    Correct

    • A 71 year old woman is being observed at the hospital for severe epigastric pain. Her abdomen is soft and non tender. However, the medical intern states that you should look at the ECG which looks abnormal. Which of the following features is an indication for urgent coronary thrombolysis or percutaneous intervention?

      Your Answer: ST elevation of greater than 1mm in leads II, III and aVF

      Explanation:

      Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), also known as coronary angioplasty, is a nonsurgical technique for treating obstructive coronary artery disease, including unstable angina, acute myocardial infarction (MI), and multivessel coronary artery disease (CAD).

      Inferior STEMI is usually caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery, or less commonly the left circumflex artery, causing infarction of the inferior wall of the heart.

      The ECG findings of an acute inferior myocardial infarction include the following:
      ST segment elevation in the inferior leads (II, III and aVF)
      Reciprocal ST segment depression in the lateral and/or high lateral leads (I, aVL, V5 and V6)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following diseases can cause paraesthesia along the distribution of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following diseases can cause paraesthesia along the distribution of the median nerve of the hand, especially after activities which require flexion and extension of the wrist?

      Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carpal tunnel syndrome tends to occur in women between the ages of 30-50. There are many risk factors, including diabetes, hypothyroidism, obesity, pregnancy, and repetitive wrist work. Symptoms include pain in the hand and wrist, tingling, and numbness distributed along the median nerve (the palmar side of the thumb, the index and middle fingers, and the radial half of the ring finger), which worsens at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 24 year old female is rushed to the emergency room after complaining...

    Correct

    • A 24 year old female is rushed to the emergency room after complaining of pain in the lower abdomen. She is diffusely tender on examination and a laparoscopy is performed. Multiple fine adhesions are seen between the liver and abdominal wall during the operation. However, her appendix is normal. Which of the following is her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome

      Explanation:

      Answer: Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome

      Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is a rare disorder that occurs almost exclusively in women. It is characterized by inflammation of the membrane lining the stomach (peritoneum) and the tissues surrounding the liver (perihepatitis). The muscle that separates the stomach and the chest (diaphragm), which plays an essential role in breathing, may also be affected. Common symptoms include severe pain in the upper right area (quadrant) of the abdomen, fever, chills, headaches, and a general feeling of poor health (malaise). Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is a complication of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a general term for infection of the upper genital tract in women. Infection is most often caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.

      Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is characterized by the onset of sudden, severe pain in the upper right area of the abdomen. Pain may spread to additional areas including the right shoulder and the inside of the right arm. Movement often increases pain. The upper right area may be extremely tender.

      Additional symptoms may occur in some cases including fever, chills, night sweats, vomiting and nausea. Some affected individuals may develop headaches, hiccupping, and a general feeling of poor health (malaise).

      Some affected individuals may have symptoms associated with pelvic inflammatory disease including fever, vaginal discharge, and lower abdominal pain. Lower abdominal pain may precede, follow, or occur simultaneously with upper abdominal pain.

      Most cases of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome are caused by infection with the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis, which causes Chlamydia or the organism Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which causes gonorrhoea. Chlamydia and gonorrhoea are common sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Researchers believe that more cases of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome are caused by infection with Chlamydia trachomatis than with Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

      The exact process by which such infections cause Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (pathogenesis) is not completely understood. Some researchers believe that it occurs because of infection of the liver and surrounding tissue, which may result from bacteria traveling from the pelvis directly to the liver or via the bloodstream or lymphatic system. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is characterized by the developed of string-like, fibrous scar tissue (adhesions) between the liver and the abdominal wall or the diaphragm.

      Laparoscopy is the gold standard for diagnosing FHCS and PID. In the setting of PID, laparoscopy can show oedema with exudates on tubal surfaces, ectopic pregnancy, or tubo-ovarian abscess. FHCS can be diagnosed directly via visualization of adhesions between the diaphragm and liver or liver and the anterior abdominal wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25 year-old male patient was brought to the hospital due to a...

    Correct

    • A 25 year-old male patient was brought to the hospital due to a vehicular accident. A skull x-ray was done which revealed a fracture along the base of the middle cranial fossa. The patient has no sense of touch over the skin over his cheek and chin. Injury to the maxillary and the mandibular nerves is suspected. In which foramina do these two affected sensory branches leave the cranial cavity.

      Your Answer: Foramen rotundum and foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      The patient’s clinical manifestations suggests an injury to the maxillary and mandibular nerves. The maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through and exits the skull via the pterygopalatine fossa and the foramen rotundum. At the base of the skull the foramen ovale (Latin: oval window) is one of the larger of the several holes (the foramina) that transmit nerves through the skull. The foramen ovale is situated in the posterior part of the sphenoid bone, posterolateral to the foramen rotundum. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery (small meningeal or paradural branch, sometimes derived from the middle meningeal artery), lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve and
      an emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins. Occasionally it will also carry the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A gymnast was admitted to hospital for investigation of a weakness in the...

    Correct

    • A gymnast was admitted to hospital for investigation of a weakness in the extension and adduction of his arm. He had a previous penetrating wound in the area of the posterior axillary fold. Which of these muscles is the likely cause?

      Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      All the criteria of this case points towards the latissimus dorsi. This muscle is greatly involved in extension, adduction and medial rotation of the arm and forms the posterior axillary fold which in this case was injured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 64 year old woman arrives at the emergency department with acute bowel...

    Correct

    • A 64 year old woman arrives at the emergency department with acute bowel obstruction. She complains of vomiting up to 15 times per day and is currently taking erythromycin. She is now complaining of dizziness that is sudden in onset. ECG shows torsades de pointes. Which of the following is the most appropriate step in her management?

      Your Answer: IV Magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      Torsade de pointes is an uncommon and distinctive form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) characterized by a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line. Torsade de pointes, often referred to as torsade, is associated with a prolonged QT interval, which may be congenital or acquired. Torsade usually terminates spontaneously but frequently recurs and may degenerate into ventricular fibrillation. This woman is likely to have hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia as a result of vomiting. In addition to this, the erythromycin will predispose her to torsades de pointes. The patient should be given Magnesium 2g over 10 minutes. Knowledge of the management of this peri arrest diagnosis is hence important in surgical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that...

    Incorrect

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that the hernial sac is protruding out of the superficial inguinal ring. The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in which structure?

      Your Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Correct Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique just above and lateral to the pubic crest. The opening is oblique and corresponds to the fibres of the aponeurosis. It is bound inferiorly by the pubic crest, on either side by the margins of the opening in the aponeurosis and superiorly by the curved intercrural fibres.
      The inferior crus is formed by the portion of the inguinal ligament that is inserted into the pubic tubercle.
      The falx inguinalis is made of arching fibres of the transversalis fascia and the internal abdominal oblique muscle. It forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.
      The internal abdominal oblique forms the root of the inguinal canal.
      Scarpa’s and Camper’s fascia are the membranous and fatty layers, respectively of subcutaneous fascia.
      Transversalis fascia covers the posterior surface of the rectus abdominis muscle inferior to the arcuate line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which part of the nephron would have to be damaged to stop the...

    Correct

    • Which part of the nephron would have to be damaged to stop the reabsorption of the majority of salt and water?

      Your Answer: Proximal tubule

      Explanation:

      The proximal tubule is the portion of the duct system of the nephron of the kidney which leads from Bowman’s capsule to the loop of Henle. It is conventionally divided into the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) and the proximal straight tubule (PST). The proximal tubule reabsorbs the majority (about two-thirds) of filtered salt and water. This is done in an essentially iso-osmotic manner. Both the luminal salt concentration and the luminal osmolality remain constant (and equal to plasma values) along the entire length of the proximal tubule. Water and salt are reabsorbed proportionally because the water is dependent on and coupled with the active reabsorption of Na+. The water permeability of the proximal tubule is high and therefore a significant transepithelial osmotic gradient is not possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Prostatectomy carries a risk of loss of penile erection due to injury to...

    Correct

    • Prostatectomy carries a risk of loss of penile erection due to injury to the prostatic plexus responsible for an erection. From which nerves do these fibres originate?

      Your Answer: Pelvic splanchnics

      Explanation:

      Erection is a function of the parasympathetic nerves. Of the nerves listed, only the pelvic splanchnic nerves have parasympathetic fibres that innervate the smooth muscles and glands of the pelvic viscera.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient with this type of tumour is advised to follow up regularly...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with this type of tumour is advised to follow up regularly for monitoring of tumour size as there is a strong correlation with malignant potential and tumour size. Which of the following is the most likely tumour in this patient?

      Your Answer: Prostate adenocarcinoma

      Correct Answer: Renal adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      The distinction between a benign renal adenoma and renal adenocarcinoma is commonly made on the basis of size. Tumours less than 2 cm in size rarely become malignant as opposed to those greater than 3 cm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 46-year-old male is involved in a polytrauma and requires a massive transfusion...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old male is involved in a polytrauma and requires a massive transfusion of packed red cells and fresh frozen plasma. Three hours later he develops marked hypoxia and his CVP is noted to be 10mm Hg. A chest x-ray shows bilateral diffuse pulmonary infiltrates. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transfusion associated lung injury

      Explanation:

      A massive blood transfusion is defined as the replacement of a patient’s total blood volume in <24 h
      The abnormalities which result include effects upon coagulation status, serum biochemistry, acid-base balance and temperature homeostasis.
      One of the complications is Transfusion-related acute lung injury
      (TRALI) which is the most common cause of major morbidity and death after transfusion. It presents as an acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) either during or within 6 h of transfusion.

      Clinical features
      Hypoxaemia, dyspnoea, cyanosis, fever, tachycardia and hypotension result from non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema. The radiographic appearance is of bilateral pulmonary infiltration, characteristic of pulmonary oedema. It is important to differentiate TRALI from other causes of ARDS such as circulatory overload or myocardial or valvular heart disease. Invasive monitoring in TRALI demonstrates normal intracardiac pressures

      Pathogenesis
      Two different mechanisms for the pathogenesis of TRALI have been identified: immune (antibody-mediated) and non-immune. Immune TRALI results from the presence of leucocyte antibodies in the plasma of donor blood directed against human leucocyte antigens (HLA) and human neutrophil alloantigens (HNA) in the recipient. Antibodies present in the recipient only rarely cause TRALI. In up to 40% of patients, leucocyte antibodies cannot be detected in either donor or recipient. In these cases, it is possible that reactive lipid products released from the membranes of the donor blood cells act as the trigger. This is known as non-immune TRALI.
      The target cell in both forms of TRALI is the neutrophil granulocyte. On activation of their acute phase cycle, these cells migrate to the lungs where they become trapped within the pulmonary microvasculature. Oxygen-free radicals and other proteolytic enzymes are then released which destroy the endothelial cells of the lung capillaries. A pulmonary capillary leak syndrome develops with the exudation of fluid and protein into the alveoli resulting in pulmonary oedema. The majority of reactions are severe, and often life-threatening; 70% require mechanical ventilation and 6–9% are fatal. A definitive diagnosis requires antibody detection. The mortality in non-immune TRALI is lower, and the syndrome is encountered predominantly in critically ill patients.
      Other Complications of blood transfusion
      Early:
      – Haemolytic reactions
      Immediate
      Delayed
      – Non-haemolytic febrile reactions
      – Allergic reactions to proteins, IgA
      – Reactions secondary to bacterial contamination
      – Circulatory overload
      – Air embolism
      – Thrombophlebitis
      – Hyperkalaemia
      – Citrate toxicity
      – Hypothermia
      – Clotting abnormalities (after massive transfusion)
      Late:
      – Transmission of infection
      – Viral (hepatitis A, B, C, HIV, CMV)
      – Bacterial (Treponeum pallidum, Salmonella)
      – Parasites (malaria, toxoplasma)
      – Graft-vs-host disease
      – Iron overload (after chronic transfusions)
      – Immune sensitization (Rhesus D antigen)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An explorative laparotomy is done on a 23 year old following a gunshot...

    Incorrect

    • An explorative laparotomy is done on a 23 year old following a gunshot abdominal injury through the right iliac fossa. It is found that the ileocolic artery is severed and the bullet had perforated the caecum. From which branch does the ileocolic artery originate?

      Your Answer: Coeliac artery

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Ileocolic artery branches off from the superior mesenteric artery. It then divides to give a superior and inferior branch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      380
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A young female in the 15th week of pregnancy presented to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A young female in the 15th week of pregnancy presented to the emergency department with the passage of grape-like masses per vagina. Dilatation and curettage was done and microscopy revealed large avascular villi with trophoblastic proliferation. Which one of the following investigations is best recommended for her follow-up?

      Your Answer: Serum β-hCG

      Explanation:

      Trophoblast is the layer of cells surrounding the blastocyst and that later develops into the chorion and amnion. Gestational trophoblastic disease is a tumour arising from this trophoblast. It can occur during or after either an intrauterine or ectopic pregnancy. If it occurs in a pregnant woman, it usually leads to spontaneous abortion, eclampsia or fetal death. It can be either malignant or benign.
      In suspected cases, investigations include measurement of serum beta subunit of human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG) and pelvic ultrasound. Confirmatory test is a biopsy. Post-removal, the disease is classified clinically to assess further treatment. To assess the presence of metastases, further work-up includes computed tomography of the brain, chest, abdomen and pelvis. Chemotherapy is usually needed for persistent disease. If at least three consecutive, weekly serum β-hCG measurements are normal, treatment is considered successful. Follow-up is also done by measuring β-hCG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his left foot. It was found that the belly of extensor digitorum muscle was lacerated and the lateral tarsal artery was severed. The lateral tarsal artery is a branch of the:

      Your Answer: Popliteal artery

      Correct Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery

      Explanation:

      The lateral tarsal artery arises from the dorsalis pedis, as the vessel crosses the navicular bone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Where is the foramen ovale located? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the foramen ovale located?

      Your Answer: Sphenoid

      Explanation:

      The foramen ovale is an oval shaped opening in the middle cranial fossa located at the posterior base of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, lateral to the lingula. It transmits the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN Vc), accessory meningeal artery, emissary veins between the cavernous sinuses and pterygoid plexus, otic ganglion, and occasionally the nervus spinosus and lesser petrosal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A cell is classified on the basis of its regenerative ability. Which of...

    Correct

    • A cell is classified on the basis of its regenerative ability. Which of the following cells represent a permanent cell?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte

      Explanation:

      An erythrocyte is the last cell in the progeny of RBC cell division and is not capable of further division and regeneration. Hepatocytes, osteocytes and epithelium of kidney tubules are all stable cells. Colonic mucosa and pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells are all labile cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - When at rest, which of the following will be higher in a marathon...

    Incorrect

    • When at rest, which of the following will be higher in a marathon runner compared to an untrained individual?

      Your Answer: Oxygen consumption

      Correct Answer: Cardiac stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac muscle hypertrophy is seen in trained athletes as compared to the normal population. This hypertrophy results in higher stroke volume at rest and increased cardiac reserve (maximum cardiac output during exercise). However, the cardiac output at rest is almost the same in both trained and untrained people. This is because in trained athletes, the heart rate is slower, even up to 40-50 beats/min. There is minimal affect of athletic training on oxygen consumption and respiratory rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      64.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old woman is in a comatose state following a traumatic head injury,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is in a comatose state following a traumatic head injury, and is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics and IV fluids containing saline and 5% dextrose. A serum biochemistry analysis is performed five days later which shows a low serum potassium level. This is most likely to be due to:

      Your Answer: Nothing per oral regimen

      Explanation:

      In this patient the cause for hypokalaemia is insufficient consumption of potassium as she is nil-per mouth with no intravenous supplementation. Parenteral nutrition has been used for comatose patients, although enteral feeding is usually preferable, and less prone to complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of these substances is secreted by pericytes in the juxtaglomerular cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these substances is secreted by pericytes in the juxtaglomerular cells?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandins

      Correct Answer: Renin

      Explanation:

      The juxtaglomerular cells synthesise, store and secrete the enzyme renin in the kidney. They are specialised smooth muscle cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole that delivers blood to the glomerulus and thus play a critical role in the renin– angiotensin system and so in renal autoregulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which is the correct superficial to deep order of structures that would be...

    Correct

    • Which is the correct superficial to deep order of structures that would be affected following a knife wound to the lateral aspect of the knee?

      Your Answer: skin, fibular collateral ligament, popliteus muscle tendon, lateral meniscus

      Explanation:

      Skin, fibular collateral ligament, popliteus muscle tendon and lateral meniscus is the correct order of structures covering the lateral aspect of the knee joint from a superficial to deep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 39 year old woman is admitted with acute cholecystitis which fails to...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old woman is admitted with acute cholecystitis which fails to settle. During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the gallbladder has evidence of an empyema and Calots triangle is inflamed. The surgeon suspects that a Mirizzi syndrome has occurred. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Perform a sub total cholecystectomy

      Correct Answer: Undertake an operative cholecystostomy

      Explanation:

      Mirizzi’s syndrome is a rare complication in which a gallstone becomes impacted in the cystic duct or neck of the gallbladder causing compression of the common hepatic duct, resulting in obstruction and jaundice. The obstructive jaundice can be caused by direct extrinsic compression by the stone or from fibrosis caused by chronic cholecystitis (inflammation).

      Type I – No fistula present

      Type IA – Presence of the cystic duct
      Type IB – Obliteration of the cystic duct

      Types II–IV – Fistula present

      Type II – Defect smaller than 33% of the CHD diameter
      Type III – Defect 33–66% of the CHD diameter
      Type IV – Defect larger than 66% of the CHD diameter

      Simple cholecystectomy is suitable for type I patients. This patient has type I because no fistula is present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 55 year old man develops increasing lower abdominal pain, fever and atrial...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old man develops increasing lower abdominal pain, fever and atrial fibrillation on the 5th day following a high anterior resection for cancer of the rectosigmoid junction. These symptoms developed over the last 12 hours. Which of the following investigations would be the most useful in this case?

      Your Answer: Abdominal CT scan

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation occurring after a colonic resection most likely represents an anastomotic leak. The best modality to visualize this would be an abdominal CT scan. Any bowel anastomosis can leak, sometimes as a result of technical failings and at other times, its patient factors such as background disease that contribute. As a general rule, rectal resections carry the highest risk of anastomotic leak. Indeed, low anterior resections are routinely defunctioned with loop ileostomy to mitigate the clinically effects of a leak. Left sided colonic resections carry a higher risk of anastomotic leak than right sided resections. The reason for this is that an ileocolic anastomosis (or indeed any small bowel anastomosis) has a very low risk of leak (provided the small bowel is otherwise healthy). Where a leak is suspected (new AF and raised inflammatory markers 5 days post resection), the correct course of action is to arrange cross sectional imaging with a CT scan. If a leak is confirmed and the patient is septic, then they should go back to theatre, the anastomosis taken down and the bowel ends exteriorized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      876.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A textbook of cardiac surgery explains that while doing a left pneumonectomy, a...

    Correct

    • A textbook of cardiac surgery explains that while doing a left pneumonectomy, a surgeon must be careful to avoid injury to a vital structure that leaves an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung. Which structure is it referring to?

      Your Answer: Aortic arch

      Explanation:

      Structures that leave an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung include: the oesophagus, subclavian artery, brachiocephalic vein, first rib, thymus, the heart, the diaphragm, descending aorta and arch of the aorta. The other structures form an impression on the mediastinal aspect of the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is...

    Correct

    • A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is called?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      Pernicious anaemia is a type of autoimmune disease in which antibodies form against the parietal cells or intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of vitamin B12. Blood testing typically shows a macrocytic, normochromic anaemia and low levels of serum vitamin B12. A Schilling test can then be used to distinguish between pernicious anaemia, vitamin B12 malabsorption and vitamin B12 deficiency. Symptoms include shortness of breath, pallor and diarrhoea etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (7/11) 64%
Basic Sciences (15/23) 65%
Generic Surgical Topics (2/3) 67%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Pathology (5/7) 71%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (2/2) 100%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (4/4) 100%
The Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Physiology (3/5) 60%
Post-operative Management And Critical Care (2/2) 100%
Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery (0/1) 0%
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