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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old apprentice is referred by his general practitioner with a query of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old apprentice is referred by his general practitioner with a query of bacterial meningitis. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain was normal. The patient complains of ongoing headache, photophobia and fever. A lumbar puncture (LP) is to be performed.
      Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to performing an LP?

      Your Answer: It should only take place following neuroimaging

      Correct Answer: A concurrent plasma glucose sample should be taken

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Lumbar Puncture in Patients with Suspected Meningitis

      Lumbar puncture (LP) is a diagnostic procedure that involves the insertion of a needle into the spinal canal to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. LP is an essential tool in the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis, but it should be performed with caution and only in appropriate patients. Here are some guidelines for LP in patients with suspected meningitis:

      Concurrent plasma glucose sample should be taken to calculate the CSF: plasma glucose ratio, which is a key distinguishing feature of bacterial meningitis.

      Normal CSF opening pressure ranges from 7-18 mmH2O.

      Verbal consent for the procedure is sufficient, but written consent should be obtained from the patient if possible.

      LP is typically performed in the left lateral position, but it may be performed in the sitting position or with imaging guidance if necessary.

      Neuroimaging is required before an LP only in patients with a clinical suspicion of raised intracranial pressure, especially in immunocompromised patients.

      Possible complications of LP include post-dural puncture headache, transient paraesthesiae, spinal haematoma or abscess, and tonsillar herniation. These should be discussed with the patient before the procedure.

      LP should not be performed in patients with an acutely raised CSF pressure, as it may cause brainstem herniation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The ward nurses express concern about a 46-year-old man who was admitted with...

    Incorrect

    • The ward nurses express concern about a 46-year-old man who was admitted with jaundice yesterday. They discovered him in the linen cupboard, disoriented and searching for his luggage so he could check-out before midday. Upon your arrival, he is still confused and unsteady, with a tachycardia of 120 bpm and nystagmus. However, he poses no immediate danger to himself or others. Which medication would be suitable for this patient?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol intramuscularly (IM)

      Correct Answer: Thiamine IV and chlordiazepoxide orally (PO)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Plan for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcohol Withdrawal

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a disorder caused by thiamine deficiency commonly seen in alcohol withdrawal. The triad of ophthalmoplegia, confusion, and ataxia characterizes it. If left untreated, it can lead to Korsakoff syndrome with lasting memory impairment. The following treatment plan is recommended:

      Treatment Plan for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcohol Withdrawal

      1. Thiamine IV: Parenteral thiamine (Pabrinex®) is required and should be given in a setting where resuscitation facilities are available due to the risk of anaphylaxis. Thiamine is also given prophylactically in alcohol withdrawal.

      2. Chlordiazepoxide PO: Given orally as required (PRN) to control the symptoms of delirium tremens. The dosage should be adjusted according to symptom severity.

      3. Haloperidol IM: Antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol or IM benzodiazepines are not required in this instance where the patient is not at risk to himself or others.

      4. N-acetylcysteine IV: N-Acetylcysteine is used commonly for the treatment of paracetamol overdose. There is no evidence that this patient has a liver impairment as a result of paracetamol overdose.

      5. Propranolol PO: Propranolol is used for the treatment of portal hypertension and although likely, there is no evidence this patient has portal hypertension.

      6. Thiamine IM and midazolam IM: Thiamine is not given IM. There is no indication for IM benzodiazepines as this patient is co-operating with treatment. A chlordiazepoxide withdrawal regime would be better suited to this patient’s needs. This can be given orally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair loss. He has a medical history of high blood pressure and asthma and takes salbutamol, amlodipine, and simvastatin. He appears to be in good health, and his neurological exam is unremarkable. The results of his auto-antibody screen are negative, but his creatine kinase (CK) level is 1,000 U/l, which is higher than the normal range of 22-198 U/l. What is the most likely cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Correct Answer: Statin therapy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Differential Diagnosis of Elevated CK Levels

      Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels can indicate a variety of underlying conditions. When considering an elevated CK, it is important to take a detailed medication history as statin therapy, which is a common medication, can cause CK levels to rise in up to 5% of patients. Other common causes of mildly elevated CK include hypothyroidism, steroid use, and alcohol excess.

      Polymyositis is a potential differential diagnosis for a patient with elevated CK and fatigue, but it typically presents with objective proximal muscle weakness. The CK levels are often considerably higher than in the scenario described. Dermatomyositis, which features dermatological features alongside myositis, may present with papules on the hands, periorbital edema, flagellate erythema, or nailfold hemorrhages, none of which are present in this history.

      Extensive exercise can cause elevated CK levels, but it does not usually raise levels to the extent seen in this scenario. Rhabdomyolysis, which is a common cause of elevated CK, often occurs in elderly patients who have experienced a fall and long lie. However, there is no such history in this case, and CK levels in these patients are usually significantly higher.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of elevated CK levels requires a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, medication use, and presenting symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.4
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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old accountant presents to the GP with concerns about progressive difficulty in...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old accountant presents to the GP with concerns about progressive difficulty in walking. He first noticed the onset of symptoms around eight months ago and has been finding it increasingly difficult to walk, although he has no problems in standing still. He has also noticed that he often loses his balance and feels rather unsteady of late. He has been researching his symptoms online and is worried that he may have Parkinson's disease.
      With regard to Parkinson's disease, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) occurs as a result of degeneration of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord and upper motor neurones in the motor cortex

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) and Motor Neurone Disease (MND)

      Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a type of motor neurone disease (MND) that affects the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord and upper motor neurones in the motor cortex. MND is a progressive disorder that leads to only motor deficits and affects middle-aged individuals, with a slight predominance in males. Neuronal loss occurs at all levels of the motor system, from the cortex to the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord. The prognosis for MND is poor, with a mean survival of 3-5 years from disease onset. Management is mainly symptomatic and requires a multidisciplinary approach, with early involvement of palliative care. The only licensed pharmacological agent in the UK is riluzole, which can increase survival by 3 months. Physical signs include both upper and lower motor neurone signs, with patients often developing prominent fasciculations. Sensation remains entirely intact, as this disease only affects motor neurones.

      Understanding Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) and Motor Neurone Disease (MND)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man develops a wrist drop after suffering a spiral fracture of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man develops a wrist drop after suffering a spiral fracture of the humerus while playing football. As a result, he is unable to extend his wrist and his hand hangs flaccidly. Which nerve is the most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Ulnar

      Correct Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originate from the spinal cord in the neck and supply the upper limb. Damage to these nerves can occur due to trauma or compression at various points along their course. The radial nerve, which carries fibres from C5 to C8 and a sensory component from T1, can be injured in the axilla, upper arm, elbow or wrist. A lesion at the spiral groove of the humerus can result in a wrist drop. The musculocutaneous nerve, which arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus, can be affected by damage to the shoulder and brachial plexus or compression by the biceps aponeurosis and tendon. The axillary nerve, which supplies the deltoid, teres minor and triceps brachii, can be injured in dislocations of the shoulder joint, compression of the axilla with a crutch or fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus. The median nerve, which innervates all of the flexors in the forearm except the flexor carpi ulnaris and that part of the flexor digitorum profundus that supplies the medial two digits, can be compressed in the carpal tunnel. The ulnar nerve, which supplies the little finger and the adjacent half of the ring finger, can be trapped in the cubital tunnel on the medial side of the elbow. Pinching of the ulnar nerve can cause paraesthesiae in the fourth and fifth digits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 46-year-old alcoholic is brought in after a fall. He has a deep...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old alcoholic is brought in after a fall. He has a deep cut on the side of his head and a witness tells the paramedics what happened. He opens his eyes when prompted by the nurses. He attempts to answer questions, but his speech is slurred and unintelligible. The patient pulls away from a trapezius pinch.
      What is the appropriate Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient?

      Your Answer: E2V3M4

      Correct Answer: E3V2M4

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a standardized tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness following a head injury. It measures the best eye, verbal, and motor responses and assigns a total score. A fully conscious patient will score 15/15, while the lowest possible score is 3/15 (a score of 0 is not possible).

      The GCS is calculated as follows: for eyes, a score of 4 is given if they open spontaneously, 3 if they open to speech, 2 if they open to pain, and 1 if they do not open. For verbal response, a score of 5 is given if the patient is oriented, 4 if they are confused, 3 if they use inappropriate words, 2 if they make inappropriate sounds, and 1 if there is no verbal response. For motor response, a score of 6 is given if the patient obeys commands, 5 if they localize pain, 4 if they withdraw from pain, 3 if they exhibit abnormal flexion, 2 if they exhibit abnormal extension, and 1 if there is no response.

      If the GCS score is 8 or below, the patient will require airway protection as they will be unable to protect their own airway. This usually means intubation. It is important to use the GCS to objectively measure a patient’s conscious state and provide a common language between clinicians when discussing a patient with a head injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old man is brought to the Neurology clinic by his wife because...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is brought to the Neurology clinic by his wife because he has had 4 months of progressively worsening dysarthria, gait instability, intention tremor and memory loss. Electroencephalography (EEG) is performed and is significant for triphasic spikes, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is obtained, which shows an elevated 14-3-3 protein. The patient’s clinical course continues to deteriorate, and he dies 7 months after his initial presentation. A researcher obtains permission to procure a brain biopsy specimen to confirm the diagnosis and contribute to a repository of similar diseases.
      What secondary structure would the researcher expect to find in the abnormal brain tissue?

      Your Answer: Proteinaceous α sheets

      Correct Answer: Proteinaceous β sheets

      Explanation:

      Secondary Structures in Proteins and Nucleic Acids

      Proteins and nucleic acids are essential biomolecules that perform various functions in living organisms. These molecules have unique structural features that enable them to carry out their functions. One such feature is the secondary structure, which refers to the local folding patterns of the molecule.

      Proteinaceous β sheets are a type of secondary structure that is associated with prion disorders such as Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease. Prions are infectious protein molecules that can convert normal cellular prion protein into an abnormal form that exists as β sheets.

      Nucleic acid hairpin loops are another type of secondary structure that has functional properties in DNA and RNA molecules. These structures are formed when a single strand of nucleic acid folds back on itself to form a loop.

      Proteinaceous α helices are a common non-pathological secondary structure of proteins. These structures are formed when the polypeptide chain twists into a helical shape.

      Nucleic acid pseudoknots are secondary structures that have functional properties in DNA and RNA molecules. These structures are formed when two regions of a single strand of nucleic acid fold back on each other and form a knot-like structure.

      Proteinaceous α sheets are theoretical structures that could represent an intermediate between α helices and β sheets. These structures have not been observed in nature but are predicted based on computational models.

      In summary, secondary structures play an important role in the function and stability of proteins and nucleic acids. Understanding these structures is essential for understanding the molecular mechanisms of biological processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department, complaining of severe headache, neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department, complaining of severe headache, neck stiffness and photophobia. There is no history of trauma and there has been no recent foreign travel. On examination, he has fever and a non-blanching rash on his chest. Meningococcal septicaemia is suspected and treatment is commenced. A lumbar puncture was performed.
      Select the result most consistent with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.

      Your Answer: CSF pressure normal, protein elevated, glucose raised and the predominant cells are lymphocytes

      Correct Answer: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure raised, protein elevated, glucose low and the predominant cells are polymorphs

      Explanation:

      Interpreting CSF Results: Understanding Meningitis

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can be caused by bacterial, viral, or tuberculous infections. The diagnosis of meningitis is often made by analyzing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) obtained through a lumbar puncture. The results of the CSF analysis can provide important clues about the underlying cause of the infection.

      CSF pressure raised, protein elevated, glucose low and the predominant cells are polymorphs: This result is indicative of bacterial meningitis, specifically meningococcal septicaemia. Immediate antibiotic treatment is necessary to prevent serious complications.

      CSF pressure raised, protein elevated, glucose raised and the predominant cells are lymphocytes: This result can be consistent with either viral or tuberculous meningitis. Further testing, such as PCR, may be necessary to determine the specific cause.

      CSF pressure low, protein normal, glucose raised and the predominant cells are polymorphs: This result is less indicative of infection, as the normal protein level and raised glucose level make bacterial meningitis unlikely. However, further investigation may be necessary to determine the underlying cause.

      CSF pressure normal, protein low, glucose normal and the predominant cells are polymorphs: This result suggests that infection is unlikely, as the low CSF pressure and protein level are not consistent with meningitis.

      CSF pressure normal, protein elevated, glucose raised and the predominant cells are lymphocytes: This result is consistent with viral meningitis, and further testing may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

      Understanding the results of a CSF analysis is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of meningitis. Prompt and appropriate treatment can prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden-onset painful right eye...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden-onset painful right eye and visual loss. Upon examination, the doctor observes visual loss to counting fingers on the right, right eye proptosis, conjunctival injection, and acute tenderness on palpation. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 12 mm/hour. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Optic neuritis

      Correct Answer: Carotid cavernous fistula

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Acute Eye Conditions: Symptoms and Management

      Carotid Cavernous Fistula: This condition presents with sudden painful visual loss, proptosis, conjunctival injection, and a firm, tender, and pulsatile eyeball. It is caused by an abnormal communication between the carotid artery and venous system within the cavernous sinus. Endovascular surgery is the recommended management to obliterate the fistula.

      Giant Cell arthritis: This is a medical emergency that is uncommon in individuals under 50 years old. Symptoms include acute visual loss, tenderness over the temporal artery, jaw claudication, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of >50 mm/hour. Diagnosis is confirmed through a temporal artery biopsy.

      Optic Neuritis: This condition presents as painful visual loss but is not associated with proptosis or changes to the conjunctiva. Optic disc pallor is a common symptom.

      Keratoconus: This is a degenerative disorder that causes distortion of vision, which may be painful, due to structural changes within the cornea. It does not present acutely.

      Acute Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis: Symptoms include retro-orbital pain, ophthalmoplegia (often complete, with involvement of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), and loss of sensation over the ophthalmic division on the trigeminal nerve ipsilateral. Horner’s syndrome may also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old man without significant history presents with complaints of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man without significant history presents with complaints of pain in his left forearm and hand that is relieved by changing the position of his arm. During examination, there is a loss of sensation on the medial aspect of his hand, and a cervical rib is suspected. To confirm involvement of the C8 and T1 roots of the brachial plexus rather than a palsy of the ulnar nerve, which motor test should be used?

      Your Answer: Adduction of the fingers

      Correct Answer: Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger

      Explanation:

      Assessing Nerve Lesions: Differentiating Between C8/T1 and Ulnar Nerve Lesions

      When assessing for nerve lesions, it is important to differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion. One way to do this is by testing specific actions controlled by muscles innervated by these nerves.

      Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger is controlled by the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which is innervated by both the ulnar nerve and the anterior interosseous nerve (a branch of the median nerve) via C8/T1 nerve roots. Weakness in this action would make an ulnar nerve injury unlikely.

      Abduction and adduction of the fingers are controlled by the dorsal and palmar interosseous muscles, respectively. These muscles are innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots, making testing these actions unable to differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.

      Adduction of the thumb is controlled by the adductor pollicis muscle, which is also innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots. Testing this action would also not differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.

      Similarly, flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the little finger is controlled by the medial aspect of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which is innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots. Testing this action would also not differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.

      In summary, assessing for weakness in flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger can help differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion. Testing other actions controlled by muscles innervated by these nerves would not provide this differentiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.1
      Seconds

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Neurology (1/10) 10%
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