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  • Question 1 - A 80 yr. old male patient with ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and dyslipidaemia...

    Incorrect

    • A 80 yr. old male patient with ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and dyslipidaemia presented with productive cough, fever with chills and loss of appetite for 4 days. On examination he was unwell and febrile with a temperature of 38.3. His blood pressure was 130/80mmHg and pulse rate was 140 bpm. Respiratory rate was 18 breaths per minute. On auscultation there were crepitations over the left lower zone of his chest. His abdomen was soft and non-tender. ECG showed an irregular narrow complex tachycardia. Which of the following is the most appropriate acute management to treat his tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is acute atrial fibrillation (AF) precipitated by acute pneumonia. History of fever, cough and the auscultation findings support it. So the most appropriate management is treating the pneumonia with antibiotics. Treating the underlying cause will reduce the heart rate. Other responses are helpful in the management of chronic AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      69.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 42 yr. old female presented with pain in her calves during walking...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 yr. old female presented with pain in her calves during walking which settled after resting. On examination there were orange colour deposits in the her palmar creases. Her fasting lipid profile showed a total cholesterol of 9.2 mmol/l (<5) and triglycerides of 7.0 mmol/l (<2). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Correct Answer: Type III hyperlipidaemia

      Explanation:

      Palmar xanthomas are found in type III hyperlipoproteinemia. Her total cholesterol level and triglyceride level support the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      64.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An elderly woman is admitted to the hospital with a community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)....

    Incorrect

    • An elderly woman is admitted to the hospital with a community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). Her medical notes state that she developed a skin rash after taking penicillin a few years ago. She has a CURB score of 4 and adverse prognostic features. Which of the following would be an appropriate empirical antibiotic choice?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin and clarithromycin

      Correct Answer: Cefotaxime and erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is one of the most common infectious diseases and is an important cause of mortality and morbidity worldwide. Typical bacterial pathogens that cause CAP include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis.
      The CURB-65 is used as a means of deciding the action that is needed to be taken for that patient.
      Score 3-5: Requires hospitalization with consideration as to whether they need to be in the intensive care unit

      Recent studies have suggested that the use of a beta-lactam alone may be noninferior to a beta-lactam/macrolide combination or fluoroquinolone therapy in hospitalized patients.

      Therapy in ICU patients includes the following:
      – Beta-lactam (ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, or ampicillin/sulbactam) plus either a macrolide or respiratory fluoroquinolone
      – For patients with penicillin allergy, a respiratory fluoroquinolone and aztreonam

      Therefore the appropriate treatment would be Cefotaxime and erythromycin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?

      Your Answer: Increased renal secretion

      Correct Answer: Reduced renal reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Throughout pregnancy the tubular reabsorption of glucose is less effective than in the non-pregnant state, this leads to glycosuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      66.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old realtor presented with progressive weakness of both legs over the last...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old realtor presented with progressive weakness of both legs over the last 3 years. He complained of being unable to see well at night and having an impaired sense of smell. On examination he had a shortened fourth toe bilaterally with pes cavus. Neurological examination revealed a loss of pinprick sensation to bilateral knees, and weakness of both legs that was more prominent distally. Which of the following would be the best blood test to order to make a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Correct Answer: Phytanic acid

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis is Refsum’s disease. This is an autosomal recessive disorder that causes a sensorimotor peripheral neuropathy. It is caused by defective alpha oxidation of phytanic acid leading to its accumulation in tissues. Cardiac conduction abnormalities and cardiomyopathies may also occur.
      Epiphyseal dysplasia causes a characteristic shortening of the fourth toe. Serum phytanic acid levels are elevated. Treatment is by dietary restriction of foods containing phytanic acid (dairy products, fish, beef and lamb).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      76.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following features is characteristic of acute intermittent porphyria? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features is characteristic of acute intermittent porphyria?

      Your Answer: Increased urinary porphobilinogen between acute attacks

      Explanation:

      Urinary porphobilinogen is increased between attacks of acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) and even more so, between acute attacks.

      AIP is a rare autosomal dominant condition caused by a defect in porphobilinogen deaminase, an enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of haem. This results in the toxic accumulation of delta-aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen.

      Abdominal and neuropsychiatric symptoms are characteristic of AIP especially in people between the ages of 20–40 years. The disease is more common in females than in males (5:1). Major signs and symptoms of AIP include abdominal pain, vomiting, motor neuropathy, hypertension, tachycardia, and depression.

      Diagnosis:
      1. Urine turns deep red on standing (classical picture of AIP)
      2. Raised urinary porphobilinogen (elevated between attacks and to a greater extent, between acute attacks)
      3. Raised serum levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen
      4. Assay of red blood cells for porphobilinogen deaminase

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 22-year-old woman presents with anxiety and weight loss with increased appetite. Thyrotoxicosis...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman presents with anxiety and weight loss with increased appetite. Thyrotoxicosis is suspected and various investigations are performed. Which of the following findings is most consistent with Graves’ disease?

      Your Answer: High titre of thyroid peroxidase autoantibodies

      Explanation:

      Free T4 levels or the free T4 index is usually elevated, as is the free T3 level or free T3 index
      – Assays for thyrotropin-receptor antibodies (particularly TSIs) almost always are positive.
      – Detection of TSIs is diagnostic for Graves disease.
      – Other markers of thyroid autoimmunity, such as antithyroglobulin antibodies or antithyroid peroxidase antibodies, are usually present.
      – Other autoantibodies that may be present include thyrotropin receptor-blocking antibodies and anti–sodium-iodide symporter antibody.
      The presence of these antibodies supports the diagnosis of autoimmune thyroid disease.
      – The radioactive iodine uptake is increased and the uptake is diffusely distributed over the entire gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: She should not take the combined pill if she has heavy periods

      Correct Answer: She will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill

      Explanation:

      The true statement among the given options is that she will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill.

      Other than enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin, antibiotics do not reduce the efficacy of the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      It was previously advised that barrier methods of contraception should be used if taking an antibiotic while using the contraceptive pill, due to concerns that antibiotics might reduce the absorption of the pill. This is now known to be untrue. However, if the absorptive ability of the gut is compromised for another reason, such as severe diarrhoea or vomiting, or bowel disease, this may affect the efficacy of the pill.

      The exception to the antibiotic rule is that hepatic enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin and rifaximin do reduce the efficacy of the pill. Other enzyme-inducing drugs, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine or St John’s Wort can also reduce the effectiveness of the pill.

      Other options:
      The combined pill is often prescribed for women with heavy periods as it can make them lighter and less painful.
      There is no evidence that women on the combined pill put on any significant weight, although they may experience bloating at certain times in the course.
      Women on the pill require monitoring of their blood pressure.
      There are multiple different types of combined pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      87.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45 yr. old male was discharged recently after treatment of bleeding peptic...

    Correct

    • A 45 yr. old male was discharged recently after treatment of bleeding peptic ulcers. 3 days after discharge he was readmitted complaining of acute severe chest pain for the past 1 hour. His ECG showed an acute ST elevation myocardial infarction. His FBC, blood urea, serum electrolytes and serum creatinine were within normal ranges. Faecal occult blood was negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Primary angioplasty

      Explanation:

      The patient has a recent history of bleeding peptic ulcer disease, which is an absolute contraindication for thrombolysis. So he should be offered primary angioplasty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      117.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 48-year-old ex-footballer with a long history of alcohol abuse, presents with epigastric...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old ex-footballer with a long history of alcohol abuse, presents with epigastric pain. Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of peptic ulceration rather than chronic pancreatitis?

      Your Answer: Relieved by food

      Explanation:

      Relief of symptoms with food suggests duodenal ulceration, for which the pain gets worse on an empty stomach. In chronic pancreatitis, you would expect worsening of symptoms with food.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain and left sided knee and ankle pain that has persisted for about two weeks. He recently returned from a trip to Thailand that last for two weeks. The patient admits to having unprotected sex while on holiday. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness of tendons around joints but no inflammation of the joints. A vesiculopustular skin rash is also observed. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Explanation:

      Patients with disseminated gonococcal arthritis may present with dermatitis-arthritis syndrome (60%) of with localized septic arthritis. (40%). Arthritis-dermatitis syndrome includes the classic triad of dermatitis, tenosynovitis, and migratory polyarthritis. Gout usually involves a singe joint and does not cause vesicopustular skin rash. Reactive arthritis has ocular symptoms (conjunctivitis), urethritis, and arthritis. Fungal arthritis occurs rarely and it may occur after a surgical infection or fungal spread hematogenously. it presents with tender, red, hot and swollen joint with loss of range of motion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      76
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 36-year-old man is being investigated for recurrent gastric and duodenal ulceration diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man is being investigated for recurrent gastric and duodenal ulceration diagnosed at endoscopy. He has suffered from bouts of abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea although his weight is stable. Some of his investigations results are: Basal acid secretion 20 mEq/h (1–5), Fasting gastrin 200 pg/ml (<100), Secretin test: Basal gastrin 200pg/ml, Post-secretin 500pg/ml. Which of the following are responsible for the elevated gastrin levels?

      Your Answer: Gastrinoma

      Explanation:

      This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. The secretin test is a test that can differentiate gastrinoma from other causes of high gastrin levels. Gastrin will rise after secretin injection if the patient has a gastrinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      125.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following stimulates the secretion of gastrin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following stimulates the secretion of gastrin?

      Your Answer: Fasting

      Correct Answer: Amino acids

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is released from G cells in the antrum of the stomach after a meal. It stimulates parietal cells to release HCl. Gastrin is stimulated by a number of things: antrum distention, vagal stimulation, peptides (especially amino acids) in the stomach, hypercalcemia. Gastrin release is inhibited by acid, SST, GIP, VIP, secretin, glucagon, and calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      177.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 20-year-old student nurse was admitted after her third collapse in recent months....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old student nurse was admitted after her third collapse in recent months. She was noted to have a blood sugar of 0.9 mmol/l on finger-prick testing and responded well to intravenous glucose therapy. Venous blood taken at the same showed a markedly raised insulin level, but her C-peptide levels were normal. What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Occult administration of sulphonylureas

      Correct Answer: Self-administration of a short-acting insulin

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperinsulinemia and hypoglycaemia, but her C-peptide levels are normal. This is strongly suggestive of the fact that she is self-administering insulin.
      In Insulinoma, common diagnostic criteria include:
      – blood glucose level < 50 mg/dl with hypoglycaemic symptoms,
      – relief of symptoms after eating
      – absence of sulfonylurea on plasma assays.
      The classic diagnostic criteria include the demonstration of the following during a supervised fast:
      Increased plasma insulin level
      Increased C peptide level
      Increased proinsulin level
      However, the patient has normal C-peptide levels.
      In type-1 diabetes mellitus, insulin and C-peptide levels are low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      128.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely unwell. He is shocked,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely unwell. He is shocked, drowsy and confused. He is known to be type-2 diabetic maintained on metformin. Blood tests reveal a metabolic acidosis with an anion gap of 24 mmol/l. Ketones are not significantly elevated and random blood glucose was 8.7 mmol/l. What is the mainstay of treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: 4.1% sodium bicarbonate iv and rehydration

      Correct Answer: Rehydration

      Explanation:

      Lactic acidosis is occasionally responsible for metabolic acidosis in diabetics. It may occur in the presence of normal blood levels of the ketone bodies, and such cases are often described as having “non-ketotic diabetic acidosis.
      It is most commonly associated with tissue hypoperfusion and states of acute circulatory failure.
      Appropriate measures include treatment of shock, restoration of circulating fluid volume, improved cardiac function, identification of sepsis source, early antimicrobial intervention, and resection of any potential ischemic regions. Reassessment of lactate levels for clearance assists ongoing medical management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32 year old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of the following symptoms would point towards an inflammatory joint disease such as rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Presence of firm non-tender nodules in the fingers and on the elbows

      Correct Answer: Marked stiffness for more than an hour in the mornings

      Explanation:

      In rheumatoid arthritis (RA), clinical symptoms of joint stiffness, pain, and functional disability are commonly most severe in the early morning. These symptoms closely follow the circadian rhythm of the pro-inflammatory cytokine, interleukin (IL)-6. In RA, the increase in nocturnal anti-inflammatory cortisol secretion is insufficient to suppress ongoing inflammation, resulting in the morning symptoms characteristic of RA. Established diagnostic criteria for RA include prolonged morning stiffness that could last up to an hour. Loss of joint mobility, pain, malaise and swelling of finger joints are features that are not specific to rheumatoid arthritis, and are found in many other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A patient shows reduced central vision upon visual acuity test. He is advised...

    Incorrect

    • A patient shows reduced central vision upon visual acuity test. He is advised to undergo a fundoscopy, which turns out to be normal. Which drug could be responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Corticosteroids are well known for their ocular complications such as glaucoma and cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM). His father...

    Correct

    • A 28 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM). His father has passed away recently at the age of 48 and found to have HOCM during post mortem examination. On examination of this patient his BP was 142/84 mmHg and pulse rate was 68 bpm which was regular. There was a mid systolic murmur and a double apex beat. Echocardiography showed a septal wall thickness of 3.3 cm. What is the factor most closely linked to his 20 year risk of sudden cardiac death?

      Your Answer: Septal wall thickness of 3.3 cm

      Explanation:

      There are five prognostic factors which indicate poor prognosis in HOCM:
      -family history of HOCM-related sudden cardiac death
      -unexplained recent syncope
      -large left ventricular wall thickness (MLVWT ≥ 30 mm)
      -multiple bursts of nsVT on ambulatory electrocardiography
      -hypotensive or attenuated blood pressure response to exercise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      73
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 31-year-old homosexual male is complaining of recent weight loss and blurred vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old homosexual male is complaining of recent weight loss and blurred vision. A fundoscope was performed showing retinal haemorrhage. What is the single most appropriate option?

      Your Answer: Pneumocystis jiroveci

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      CMV is the best answer . Weight loss is mostly caused by HIV, which commonly presents with retinal haemorrhage and retinopathy when associated with CMV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up. She has hypertension, controlled by a combination of Ramipril and indapamide and was diagnosed with 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency since birth when she was found to have clitoromegaly. Which of the following is most likely to be elevated?

      Your Answer: Oestradiol

      Correct Answer: 11-Deoxycortisol

      Explanation:

      11-beta hydroxylase is stimulated by ACTH and responsible for conversion of 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol and deoxycorticosterone to corticosterone.

      In 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, the previously mentioned conversions are partially blocked, leading to:
      – Increased levels of ACTH
      – Accumulation of 11-deoxycortisol (which has limited biological activity) and deoxycorticosterone (which has mineralocorticoid activity)
      – Overproduction of adrenal androgens (DHEA, androstenedione, and testosterone)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      76.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 52 year old shopkeeper presents with pain in her hands. Examination reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 52 year old shopkeeper presents with pain in her hands. Examination reveals plaques on the extensor surfaces of her upper limbs and a telescoping deformity of both index fingers. Nails show pitting and horizontal ridging. The patient is most likely suffering from which of the following?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Correct Answer: Arthritis mutilans

      Explanation:

      Arthritis mutilans is a rare (occurs in only 5% of the patients) and extremely severe form psoriatic arthritis characterized by resorption of bones and the consequent collapse of soft tissue. When this affects the hands, it can cause a phenomenon sometimes referred to as ‘telescoping fingers.’ The associated nail changes are also characteristic of arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      61.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 22 year old nulliparous female presents with shortness of breath. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old nulliparous female presents with shortness of breath. She has a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis. Complete blood count and clotting screen reveals the following results: Hb: 12.4 g/dl Plt: 137 WBC: 7.5*109/l PT: 14 secs APTT: 46 secs Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Antithrombin III deficiency

      Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      The combination of APTT and low platelets with recurrent DVTs make antiphospholipid syndrome the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      87.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A young man complains that he feels paralysed and is unable to move...

    Incorrect

    • A young man complains that he feels paralysed and is unable to move when he wakes up and less often when he is falling asleep. He complains of having hallucinations and sees other strangers in the room. His anxiety has also increased with these episodes. What is his likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Sleep paralysis

      Explanation:

      Sleep paralysis is a temporary inability to move or speak that occurs when you’re waking up or falling asleep. Paralysis is often accompanied by hallucinations

      REM is a stage of sleep when the brain is very active and dreams often occur. The body is unable to move, apart from the eyes and muscles used in breathing, possibly to stop the person from acting out the dreams and hurting himself.

      It’s not clear why REM sleep can sometimes occur while one is awake, but it has been associated with:
      -not getting enough sleep (sleep deprivation or insomnia)
      -irregular sleeping patterns – for example, because of shift work or jet lag
      -narcolepsy – a long-term condition that causes a person to suddenly fall asleep at inappropriate times
      -a family history of sleep paralysis
      -sleeping on one’s back

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction. His coagulation profile shows: Plts: 173 x 10^9/L, PT: 12.9 secs, APTT: 84 secs. Which clotting factor is he most likely deficient in?

      Your Answer: Factor VIII

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely a case of haemophilia A which is the genetic deficiency of clotting factor VIII in blood.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is more common than haemophilia B and accounts for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.

      Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old female, on warfarin for mitral valve replacement and atrial fibrillation (AF),...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female, on warfarin for mitral valve replacement and atrial fibrillation (AF), is due for extensive abdominal surgery. What is the most appropriate step in regards to her anticoagulation therapy?

      Your Answer: Stop warfarin five days pre-operatively, bridge with LMWH and give vitamin K if INR is still above 3.0 on the evening of operation

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Patients with a VTE within the previous three months, patients with AF and previous stroke or TIA or multiple other risk factors, and patients with a mitral valve replacement should be considered for bridging therapy.

      The most appropriate bridging therapy in this case would be low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), with the last dose given not less than 24 hours prior to the procedure. Warfarin should be discontinued 5 days prior to the procedure. If the INR is still above 3 on the day prior to the procedure, vitamin K should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood tests show a significantly raised FSH level and her symptoms are attributed to menopause. Following discussions with the patient, she elects to have hormone replacement treatment. What is the most significant risk of prescribing an oestrogen-only preparation rather than a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      The use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) based on unopposed oestrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer, and uterine hyperplasia or cancer.
      Evidence from randomized controlled studies showed a definite association between HRT and uterine hyperplasia and cancer. HRT based on unopposed oestrogen is associated with this observed risk, which is unlike the increased risk of breast cancer linked with combined rather than unopposed HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left forearm. She has revealed that she was regular heroin user and has stopped for the past few days. Clinical signs are pointing towards opioid withdrawal. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Ask her how much heroin she uses per day and give her a dose of methadone syrup equivalent to this

      Correct Answer: Give her 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait 60 min to determine its effect

      Explanation:

      The next step in managing this patient is to give 10 mg and continue administering in 10 mg increments each hour until symptoms are under control.

      Methadone alleviates opioid withdrawal symptoms and reduces cravings. Methadone is useful for detoxification from longer-acting opioids such as morphine or methadone itself.
      Methadone should be used with caution if the patient has:
      Respiratory deficiency
      Acute alcohol dependence
      Head injury
      Treatment with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
      Ulcerating colitis or Crohn’s disease
      Severe hepatic impairment
      The dose must be reviewed on a daily basis and adjusted based upon how well the symptoms are controlled and the presence of side effects. The greater the dose of opioids used by the patient, the greater the dose of methadone required to control withdrawal symptoms.

      To avoid the risk of overdose in the first days of treatment The recommended dosing of methadone is 30mg in two doses of 15mg morning and evening.

      It is important to note that a methadone dose equivalent to what the patient reports they are taking should never be given.
      It is rare to need more than 40 mg per 24 hours: beware of overdosing which can lead to respiratory arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following features of the jugular venous waveform indicates the closure...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features of the jugular venous waveform indicates the closure of the tricuspid valve?

      Your Answer: v wave

      Correct Answer: c wave

      Explanation:

      The a wave indicates atrial contraction. The c wave indicates ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole. The v wave indicates venous filling. The x descent indicates the atrium relaxation and the movement of tricuspid valve downward. The y descent indicates the filling of the ventricle after the opening of the tricuspid valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - In idiopathic hypercalciuria, what management should be initiated if there is renal stone...

    Incorrect

    • In idiopathic hypercalciuria, what management should be initiated if there is renal stone disease or bone demineralization?

      Your Answer: Increased fluid intake

      Correct Answer: Dietary modification and thiazide diuretics

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic hypercalciuria presents with excess calcium in the urine without an apparent cause. Dietary modification is the first step in addressing this condition, however, because hypercalciuria increases the risk of developing renal stones and bone demineralisation, thiazide diuretics should be prescribed to increase calcium reabsorption when these symptoms are also present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for the past four hours. He is a known alcoholic who has abstained from drinking for the past three days. On examination, he is sweating, agitated and disorientated. His temperature is 37.7°C, pulse 112 bpm regular and blood pressure is 150/76 mmHg. Blood investigations performed in the emergency department reveal: FBC: Normal U&E: Normal Plasma glucose: 4.6 mmol/l (3.6-6) Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate treatment for this man?

      Your Answer: Oral diazepam

      Correct Answer: Oral lorazepam

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal, which should be treated as a medical emergency. 
      Delirium tremens is a hyperadrenergic state and is often associated with tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnoea, tremor, and mydriasis.
      Treatment:
      – The most common and validated treatment for alcohol withdrawal is benzodiazepine: first-line treatment includes oral lorazepam.
      – If the symptoms persist, or the medication is refused, parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol or olanzapine should be given.
      – Central-acting, alpha-2 agonists such as clonidine and dexmedetomidine should not be used alone for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.
      – It is also recommended to avoid using alcohol, antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, beta-adrenergic receptor blockers, and baclofen for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal as there are not enough studies to support the safety of these.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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