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Question 1
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. She tells you she is going to attend a carbohydrate counting course. She asks you what that involves.
Select from this list the single correct statement about carbohydrate counting.Your Answer: It is suitable for those who inject insulin with each meal
Explanation:Carbohydrate Counting for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus Management
Carbohydrate counting is a recommended method for managing blood glucose levels in adults with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. It involves counting the grams of carbohydrates in a meal and matching it with an individual’s insulin-to-carbohydrate ratio to determine the necessary insulin dose. This method is particularly useful for those who inject insulin with each meal or use an insulin pump. While foods with a low glycaemic index can help manage glucose levels in Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, there is less evidence for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Carbohydrate counting doesn’t mean total freedom to eat whatever one wishes, as food excesses are unhealthy for anyone. However, most ready meals indicate the amount of carbohydrate on the food label, making carbohydrate counting easier. It is important for adult patients with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus to receive advice on issues beyond blood glucose control, such as weight control and cardiovascular risk management, and to increase the amount of fiber in their diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 6-year-old child comes to the clinic with his father, he has severe eczema affecting his hands, flexural surfaces of his arms and legs and his neck.
He is very upset by it and his father wants something to be done.
What is the recommended course of action for this child?Your Answer: Localised dressings can be used on top of emollients during initial treatment of the eczema flare
Explanation:Treatment Recommendations for Childhood Eczema
Topical tacrolimus and pimecrolimus should only be used in children with eczema who have not responded to other treatments. antihistamines are not typically recommended for childhood eczema unless there is a specific issue with itching. However, emollients should be applied generously and can even be covered with a local bandage during the initial stages of treatment. It is important to follow these guidelines to effectively manage childhood eczema and provide relief for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl presents with her mother with complaints of nonspecific abdominal pain. Her family are refugees and she was born in a refugee camp in Greece. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen shows an enlarged, irregular cystic kidney on the left side. A renal biopsy has shown dysplasia.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Multicystic dysplastic kidney
Explanation:Renal Abnormalities: Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney, Hypospadias, Infantile Polycystic Kidney Disease, Potter Syndrome, and Renal Fusion
Renal abnormalities can present in various forms, each with its own unique characteristics. One such abnormality is multicystic dysplastic kidney, which is identified by the presence of multiple non-communicating cysts of varying sizes in the absence of a normal pelvicalyceal system. Unilateral disease is usually asymptomatic and can remain undetected into adulthood. Hypospadias, on the other hand, is a condition where the urethral opening is not at the usual location on the head of the penis, but below it. It is diagnosed on clinical examination.
Infantile polycystic kidney disease is always bilateral and is characterised by both renal and hepatobiliary disease, which can be severe. Potter syndrome, which usually has a very poor prognosis, is diagnosed at birth and occurs when there is antenatal oligohydramnios secondary to renal disease, usually bilateral renal agenesis. Lastly, renal fusion, also known as horseshoe kidney, is formed by fusion across the midline of two distinct functioning kidneys, one on each side of the midline. Ultrasound scanning can identify various findings, such as a curved configuration of the lower poles, elongation of the lower poles, and poorly defined lower poles, which suggest the presence of horseshoe kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents for a diabetes check-up at his GP's office. He has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and his HbA1c remains high at 56 mmol/mol despite attempts to modify his lifestyle. The GP decides to initiate drug therapy.
Which of the following medications would be inappropriate for this patient?Your Answer: Insulin
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should not take pioglitazone due to its potential to cause fluid retention.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman, who is typically healthy, presents with a pruritic rash. She is currently pregnant with twins at 32/40 gestation and this is her first pregnancy. The rash initially appeared on her abdomen and has predominantly affected her stretch marks. Upon examination, she displays urticarial papules with some plaques concentrated on the abdomen, while the umbilical area remains unaffected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Obstetric cholestasis
Correct Answer: Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy
Explanation:The cause of itch during pregnancy can be identified by observing the timing of symptoms and the appearance of the rash. Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy is a common condition that usually occurs in the third trimester and is more likely to affect first-time pregnant women with excessive weight gain or multiple pregnancies. The rash is characterized by itchy urticarial papules that merge into plaques and typically starts on the abdomen, particularly on the striae, but not on the umbilicus region. The rash may remain localized, spread to the buttocks and thighs, or become widespread and generalized. It may later progress to non-urticated erythema, eczematous lesions, and vesicles, but not bullae.
Skin Disorders Associated with Pregnancy
During pregnancy, women may experience various skin disorders. The most common skin disorder found in pregnancy is atopic eruption, which presents as an itchy red rash. However, no specific treatment is needed for this condition. Another skin disorder is polymorphic eruption, which is a pruritic condition associated with the last trimester. Lesions often first appear in abdominal striae, and management depends on severity. Emollients, mild potency topical steroids, and oral steroids may be used. Pemphigoid gestationis is another skin disorder that presents as pruritic blistering lesions. It often develops in the peri-umbilical region, later spreading to the trunk, back, buttocks, and arms. This disorder usually presents in the second or third trimester and is rarely seen in the first pregnancy. Oral corticosteroids are usually required for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 78-year-old man presents to you with complaints of vision problems in his right eye. He has been experiencing crooked edges on his door and occasional blurring of his vision. He has noticed that he tends to turn slightly while driving, but his peripheral vision remains unaffected. He denies any pain in his eye. Upon examination, his visual acuity is normal and his fundi appear unremarkable. However, when asked to look at a lined piece of paper, he reports seeing breaks in the lines. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:Understanding Eye Conditions: A Guide for General Practitioners
Ophthalmology is a crucial aspect of a general practitioner’s work, yet it is often under-taught. It is essential to be aware of diagnoses and to categorize routine and urgent eye conditions. This guide aims to provide a brief overview of some common eye conditions.
Age-related macular degeneration is a condition that can often be asymptomatic, and visual loss is usually mild. Patients may experience visual distortions, blurring of vision, and difficulty reading. There may also be a difference in size and color between both eyes.
Retinal vein occlusion causes sudden, painless unilateral visual loss. Primary closed-angle glaucoma and uveitis usually present with severe and progressive eye pain, along with blurred vision. Amaurosis fugax refers to transient retinal ischemia and symptoms include rapid onset of blindness developing over seconds, as if a curtain was drawn across the eye, and lasts seconds or minutes.
It is important for general practitioners to be familiar with these conditions and to refer patients to ophthalmologists when necessary. By understanding these eye conditions, general practitioners can provide better care for their patients and ensure that they receive appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 7
Correct
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A 33-year-old mother is worried about experiencing bilateral nipple pain for the past two weeks. She exclusively breastfeeds her 3-month-old daughter and has never had any issues before. The pain is most intense after feeds and can persist for up to 30 minutes. She reports severe pain and itching. During her visit to the clinic, she also requests that you examine her daughter's diaper rash. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer: Miconazole 2% cream for the mother and miconazole oral gel for her infant
Explanation:Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 8
Correct
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A 75-year-old male presents with sudden loss of vision in his left eye, associated with a relative afferent pupillary defect.
He has poorly controlled systemic hypertension and raised cholesterol.
What is the most likely cause of his condition?Your Answer: Retinal vascular occlusion
Explanation:Tips for Answering Tricky Questions in the AKT Exam
When faced with a tricky question in the AKT exam, it can be easy to feel overwhelmed and unsure of how to proceed. However, there are strategies you can use to help narrow down your options and improve your chances of selecting the correct answer.
One approach is to look for key information in the question stem, such as the presence of certain risk factors or the sudden onset of symptoms. By considering which answer option is most likely given this information, you can eliminate some of the less plausible choices.
It’s important to remember that you won’t know the answer to every question in the exam, and that’s okay. By using these strategies and taking a methodical approach, you can increase your hit rate and feel more confident in your overall performance.
To see an example of this approach in action, check out the Endgames scenario on sudden unilateral painless loss of vision in the BMJ article linked above. With practice and preparation, you can tackle even the trickiest questions on the AKT exam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 9
Correct
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A father brings his 10-year-old daughter to the GP surgery with heel pain. It started two-weeks ago on both heels. The pain is localised to the heel and is worse following exercise and gets better on resting. There is no reported swelling, stiffness or redness. There are no other joint complaints. She is well in herself with no temperature symptoms, night sweats or weight loss. There is no history of trauma. She is an active child and plays for the soccer team at school.
On examination, her gait and range of movements of her ankle joints are normal. Her temperature is 37.2ºC. Apart from mild swelling over both heels, there is no redness on the heel or other swellings of the foot joints. There is no tenderness on palpation of the Achilles tendon and the plantar aspect of the foot. Pain is elicited on squeezing the sides of both heels.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this child?Your Answer: Calcaneal apophysitis
Explanation:Sever’s disease, also known as calcaneal apophysitis, should be considered as a possible cause of heel pain in children and adolescents. It is characterized by swelling and irritation of the growth plate in the heel, and is often seen in active kids who are going through a growth spurt. Tenderness and swelling in the affected area are common symptoms.
Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the connective tissue supporting the arch of the foot. It typically presents as unilateral pain and tenderness in the plantar aspect of the foot, which was not observed in this case. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms.
Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that usually affects the edges of long bones, such as the femur. It can cause bone pain and interfere with normal activities, but is often accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever, weight loss, and fatigue. Since the child did not exhibit these symptoms, osteosarcoma is an unlikely diagnosis.
Achilles tendinitis is a condition that often develops after an injury, and is characterized by pain and swelling in the Achilles or ankle joints. However, since there was no history of trauma in this case, Achilles tendinitis is also an unlikely cause of the child’s symptoms.
Understanding Calcaneal Apophysitis (Sever Disease)
Calcaneal apophysitis, commonly known as Sever disease, is a condition that causes heel pain in active children. It is an overuse injury that occurs when the growth plate in the heel bone becomes inflamed due to repetitive stress. This condition is most common in children between the ages of 8 and 14 who participate in sports that involve running and jumping.
The pain associated with Sever disease is typically felt in the back or bottom of the heel and can be severe enough to limit a child’s activity level. Rest, ice, and stretching exercises are often recommended as initial treatment options. In some cases, orthotics or heel lifts may be prescribed to help alleviate symptoms.
It is important for parents and coaches to be aware of the signs and symptoms of Sever disease, as early intervention can prevent the condition from worsening and potentially causing long-term damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Correct
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A mother brings a 7-week-old girl to the practice for a routine 6–8-week physical examination.
Which is the SINGLE option that would normally be carried out at that examination?Your Answer: Auscultation of the heart
Explanation:Screening and Diagnostic Tests for Newborns
Newborns undergo several tests to ensure their health and development. These tests include auscultation of the heart, examination for developmental dysplasia of the hip, congenital cataracts, and undescended testicles. However, some heart murmurs may not be detected until the ductus arteriosus closes early in life. A hearing test, specifically the automated otoacoustic emission test, is often performed before discharge from the hospital or during the first 4-5 weeks of life. The cover test for squint is not usually done during the newborn stage as it requires the child to fixate on an object held away from the eyes. Blood-spot screening for conditions such as congenital hypothyroidism, phenylketonuria, cystic fibrosis, and sickle cell disease is ideally carried out at five days. A urine test is a diagnostic test rather than a screening test at this age and is usually done if a urinary infection is suspected.
Screening and Diagnostic Tests for Newborns
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old accountant has approached you seeking assistance in quitting smoking. They have inquired about the effectiveness of various treatments. What is the correct statement regarding smoking cessation?
Your Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy increases odds of cessation by 30%
Correct Answer: Counselling alone is of little value
Explanation:Aids for Smoking Cessation
Smoking is linked to depression, and antidepressants are believed to help with smoking cessation. Bupropion is an antidepressant that doubles the odds of quitting, but its mode of action is unknown. Varenicline increases the odds of quitting by a factor of 3, while nicotine replacement therapy nearly doubles the odds. Cytisine, a low-cost aid used in Eastern Europe, may be effective but requires further evaluation. Genetic differences may affect response to NRT. Counselling is widely accepted as an aid, but its effectiveness varies. Overall, there are several aids available for those looking to quit smoking, and it may be helpful to try a combination of methods for the best chance of success.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A 45-year-old lady comes to see you regarding her copper intrauterine device (Cu-IUD). The device contains >300 mm² of copper. She had it inserted 2 years ago and would like to know how long it can be used for before it needs removing.
What sentence below is correct regarding removing the Cu-IUD and this patient?Your Answer: The Cu-IUD can remain in situ until 1 year after the last menstrual period (LMP) if it occurs when the woman is 50 or older
Explanation:The copper IUD can be used until menopause if inserted at age 40 or over, according to the FSRH. It can remain in place for 1 year after the last menstrual period if the woman is over 50, or 2 years if she is under 50. It should not be left in place indefinitely due to the risk of infection.
Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 13
Correct
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A 20-year-old female presents to the GP with a complaint of ongoing fatigue for the past 5 months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
- Hb: 118 g/L (Female: 115 - 160)
- Platelets: 240 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC: 6.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Ferritin: 190 ng/mL (20 - 230)
- Vitamin B12: 95 ng/L (200 - 900)
- Folate: 4.8 nmol/L (> 3.0)
What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: Hydroxycobalamin IM
Explanation:Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired teacher has been diagnosed with a renal cell carcinoma.
He has been steadily increasing his analgesia in recent weeks and is currently taking the maximum dose of co-codamol 30/500. You are considering switching to morphine.
What is the equivalent 24-hour oral morphine dose to maintain the same level of analgesia as his current co-codamol regimen?Your Answer: 12 mg
Correct Answer: 10 mg
Explanation:Understanding Equivalent Morphine Dose for Codeine Patients
When prescribing pain medication, it is important to consider the equivalent morphine dose for patients taking codeine. This can be calculated by dividing the dose of codeine by 10. For example, a patient taking 60 mg of codeine four times a day would have a total daily dose of 240 mg, which is equivalent to 24 mg of morphine.
Failing to consider the equivalent morphine dose can result in inadequate pain relief for the patient. It is important to note that some patients may metabolize codeine at different rates, but this should not be a major concern in most cases. The majority of patients are normal metabolizers, converting 10% of codeine to morphine.
Overall, understanding the equivalent morphine dose for codeine patients is a crucial aspect of pain management and should be taken into consideration when prescribing medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Samantha, a single mother of two children in her early thirties, comes to see you for advice. She is 8 months pregnant and her partner has left her. She is extremely upset, especially by her partner's parting words: I'm not sending you any money for the brat when it's born. You can't prove it's mine anyway!
She is keen to use paternity testing as soon as the child is born, and tells you that she has kept the hair from her partner's hairbrush, so that she can use it as a DNA sample without his knowledge. She wants to know how she should go about getting a paternity test in this situation. Which one of the following do you tell her?Your Answer: That she would be breaking the law if she tried to test her ex-partner without his consent
Correct Answer: That she will need samples from herself and the baby, as well as the alleged father's sample
Explanation:The Ethics and Legality of Paternity Testing Without Consent
Performing a paternity test without someone’s knowledge or consent is not only unethical, but it is also illegal. Even if you disapprove of someone’s actions, it is important to respect their rights and privacy. In the case of Mary’s ex-partner, it would be wrong to perform a paternity test without his consent, even if you have only heard Mary’s side of the story.
In fact, possessing DNA samples with the intention to test them without consent is an offence under Section 45 of the Human Tissue Act 2004. This includes hair samples, as the relevant tissue is the hair bulb containing the DNA, not just cut hair. The offence has two parts: possessing human tissue and intending to perform DNA testing on it without consent.
It is important to remember that everyone has the right to privacy and bodily autonomy, and violating these rights can have serious legal consequences. It is always best to seek legal advice and obtain consent before performing any kind of genetic testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 16
Correct
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Johnny is an 8-year-old boy who presents with a mild fever, rash on the hands and feet, and oral ulcers. You inform his parents that he is likely suffering from hand, foot & mouth disease. They inquire about how long he should stay home from school?
Your Answer: No restriction
Explanation:Children with hand, foot and mouth disease do not need to be excluded from childcare or school.
Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children
Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.
The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.
Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 17
Correct
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A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up and reveals that he consumes over 60 units of alcohol per week. The GP conducts an assessment to ascertain if the patient has alcohol dependence syndrome.
If the diagnosis is accurate, what is the most probable indication?
Choose ONE answer.Your Answer: Withdrawal symptoms
Explanation:Understanding Alcohol Dependence Syndrome: Symptoms and Behaviors
Alcohol dependence syndrome is a serious condition that can have a significant impact on an individual’s life. Withdrawal symptoms are a common occurrence when someone tries to stop drinking, including feeling sick, trembling, sweating, and craving for alcohol. In some cases, convulsions and delirium tremens may occur. It is not uncommon for an individual to find it difficult to stop drinking due to these symptoms.
Alcohol dependence syndrome can also have a negative impact on an individual’s family and career. The individual may find it difficult to function in both roles due to exhaustion and decreased sleep quality. Additionally, tolerance to alcohol tends to increase rather than decrease, requiring larger quantities to achieve the same effect.
Reinstatement after a period of abstinence, commonly referred to as falling off the wagon, is a significant and common problem in addictive behavior. However, preferential drinking of spirits over beer is not necessarily an indication of alcohol dependence syndrome. It is important to understand the symptoms and behaviors associated with alcohol dependence syndrome to seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of excessive sweating. Thyroid function tests reveal normal serum TSH concentration, but elevated concentrations of both free thyroxine and free triiodothyronine. What is the most probable explanation for these findings?
Your Answer: Thyroid hormone resistance
Correct Answer: A TSH-secreting pituitary tumour
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hyperthyroidism with Normal TSH Levels
Hyperthyroidism with normal TSH levels can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is a TSH-secreting pituitary tumour, which is a rare condition that can lead to excessive secretion of TSH and growth hormone. Another possible cause is self-administration of thyroxine, but this can be ruled out if TSH secretion is still suppressed. Graves’ disease, a common cause of hyperthyroidism, is less likely as it typically results in unmeasurable TSH concentrations. Heterophilic antibodies in the patient’s serum can cause bizarre results, but this is unlikely to be the cause in a patient with classic symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. Finally, thyroid hormone resistance (Refetoff syndrome) is a rare syndrome where thyroid hormone levels are elevated but TSH levels are not suppressed. However, this is unlikely if the patient is symptomatic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 19
Correct
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You assess a 65-year-old patient who has type two diabetes and has no other current health issues or significant medical history. The patient is currently taking metformin 1g bd. Their HbA1c was 56 mmol/mol six months ago and has increased to 59 mmol/mol in their most recent test from last week. What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?
Your Answer: Add additional oral agent to metformin
Explanation:If a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is taking the maximum dose of metformin and has an HbA1c level of 58 mmol/mol or higher, it is recommended to add a second drug to their treatment regimen. The patient should be closely monitored and have their HbA1c level checked again in 3-6 months to ensure stability on the new therapy. It is important to intensify treatment at this stage, but referral to secondary care is not necessary and primary care should manage the patient’s management. Insulin therapy is not recommended yet, and a further oral agent should be added first. If the second agent fails to reduce HbA1c, triple therapy may be considered. Lifestyle advice and management should also be provided at each review.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Correct
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What is the correct statement regarding ADHD in teenagers and adults?
Your Answer: Dyslexia may co-exist
Explanation:Understanding Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a condition characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that is more severe than what is typically seen in individuals at a comparable level of development. While it is usually diagnosed in children aged 3-7 years, it can also be recognized later in life, sometimes only in adulthood. To qualify for a diagnosis of ADHD, symptoms must be present before the age of 12, although recalling past symptoms can be challenging, making diagnosis more difficult.
ADHD is more common in children with learning disabilities and is part of a spectrum of disorders. Around 70% of individuals with ADHD also have other conditions, such as dyslexia, language disorders, autistic spectrum disorder, dyspraxia, Tourette syndrome, or tic disorder. Oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder is present in most children with ADHD. Associated problems include self-harm, a predisposition to accidents, substance misuse, delinquency, anxiety states, mood disorder, and academic underachievement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A young woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes to you with an erythematous rash, mild fever and enlarged glands in her neck. You suggest taking a blood test to check if she is immune to rubella since there is no record of her being immunised. She asks about the potential risk to her baby if she does have rubella. What is the percentage of infants that may develop congenital rubella syndrome and potential birth defects if a woman contracts rubella at ten weeks gestation?
Your Answer: Up to 50%
Correct Answer: Up to 90%
Explanation:Maternal Rubella Infection in Pregnancy
Maternal rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to fetal loss or congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). CRS is characterized by various abnormalities such as cataracts, deafness, cardiac defects, microcephaly, retardation of intrauterine growth, and inflammatory lesions in the brain, liver, lungs, and bone marrow.
If the infection occurs within the first eight to ten weeks of pregnancy, up to 90% of surviving infants may experience damage, often with multiple defects. However, the risk of damage decreases to about 10-20% if the infection occurs between 11 and 16 weeks of gestation. Infections after 16 weeks of pregnancy are rare and typically only result in deafness, with no other fetal damage reported up to 20 weeks of pregnancy.
Overall, maternal rubella infection during pregnancy can have severe consequences for the developing fetus, highlighting the importance of vaccination and prevention measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Correct
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A 70-year old man complains of neck pain, tingling in his fingertips, and gradual weakness in his legs. After undergoing an MRI scan of his spine, he is diagnosed with degenerative cervical myelopathy caused by a C4/5 disc prolapse. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer: Cervical decompressive surgery
Explanation:Specialist spinal services (neurosurgery or orthopaedic spinal surgery) should urgently assess all patients with degenerative cervical myelopathy due to the importance of early treatment. The timing of surgery is crucial as any existing spinal cord damage can be permanent. Early treatment, within 6 months of diagnosis, offers the best chance of a full recovery. However, most patients are presenting too late, with an average of over 5 appointments before diagnosis, representing more than 2 years in one study.
Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment that has been shown to prevent disease progression. Close observation is an option for mild stable disease, but anything progressive or severe requires surgery to prevent further deterioration. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services as manipulation can cause more spinal cord damage.
To ensure good outcomes for patients, prompt diagnosis and onward referral are crucial. National initiatives are underway to raise awareness of the condition and improve referral times. None of the other listed options in this question control the patient’s primary pathology.
Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 23
Correct
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A 60-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his son. The son complains that his father's personality has changed completely over the past year. Even at his best, he is forgetful and ‘switched off’. At worst, he is drowsy and unresponsive. He is particularly concerned that his father has been claiming to 'see things that aren't really there'. Over the past few weeks, he has also been tripping a lot on the carpet and is no longer safe on the stairs going to his bedroom unaccompanied. The GP gave the patient a small dose of a neuroleptic which 'made things a million times worse'.
On examination, he has an inexpressive face, with a mild resting tremor and some axial rigidity. There is no other focal neurology. On mini-mental state examination, he scores 20/30.
What is the most likely primary brain pathology?
Your Answer: Lewy bodies
Explanation:Understanding Lewy Body Dementia: A Comparison with Other Neurological Conditions
Lewy body dementia is a neurological condition characterized by extrapyramidal signs, visual hallucinations, and a variable symptom profile. Patients with this condition are also highly sensitive to the anticholinergic side-effects of neuroleptics. The presence of eosinophilic inclusions bodies called Lewy bodies in the limbic areas of the brain is a hallmark of this condition.
It is important to differentiate Lewy body dementia from other neurological conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Normal brain is an unlikely diagnosis given the neurological symptoms seen in patients with Lewy body dementia. Multiple infarcts in the grey matter, on the other hand, typically have a stepwise course with an acute onset and patchy cognitive impairment. Neurofibrillary tangles are characteristic of Alzheimer’s disease, which presents with early impairment of memory that evolves into more general deficits in concentration and attention. Finally, Pick bodies are associated with fronto-temporal dementias and tend to involve disinhibition as an early feature.
In summary, understanding the unique features of Lewy body dementia and its differences from other neurological conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department with suicidal thoughts following the end of his relationship two weeks ago. He expresses fear of being alone as his partner had always made important decisions for him, as he feels incapable of making the right choices. He has attempted to find a new partner through online dating but has been unsuccessful despite going on several dates. He discloses that he has previously been diagnosed with a personality disorder. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Correct Answer: Dependent personality disorder
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient in the question is dependent personality disorder. This personality disorder is characterized by a need for excessive reassurance from others, a tendency to seek out relationships, and a reliance on others to make major life decisions. Patients with this disorder often struggle to take care of themselves and become anxious when left to do so. They cope best when in a relationship and will urgently seek out new relationships if one fails. They tend to passively comply with the wishes of others.
Borderline personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and intense but unstable relationships with others. While patients with borderline personality disorder may fear abandonment, they do not typically seek out excessive reassurance and are able to make life decisions.
Paranoid personality disorder is another incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder are often suspicious of others, reluctant to confide in friends and family, and may be unforgiving.
Finally, narcissistic personality disorder is also an incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder have an inflated sense of self-importance, lack empathy, and often feel entitled.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 25
Correct
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A 56-year-old man collapses in the hospital during a nurse-led hypertension clinic. He is unresponsive and has no pulse in his carotid artery. What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?
Your Answer: 30:02:00
Explanation:The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest. Patients are divided into those with ‘shockable’ rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia) and ‘non-shockable’ rhythms (asystole/pulseless-electrical activity). Key points include the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation (30:2), continuing chest compressions while a defibrillator is charged, and delivering drugs via IV access or the intraosseous route. Adrenaline and amiodarone are recommended for non-shockable rhythms and VF/pulseless VT, respectively. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Following successful resuscitation, oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98%. The ‘Hs’ and ‘Ts’ outline reversible causes of cardiac arrest, including hypoxia, hypovolaemia, and thrombosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Samantha brings her 18-month-old daughter to the clinic for her routine immunisations. The healthcare provider informs her that her daughter will require four different vaccines, including a pneumococcal booster. Samantha inquires about when her daughter received the pneumococcal vaccine previously in the schedule.
Your Answer: 6 months
Correct Answer: 12 weeks
Explanation:The pneumococcal vaccine is now administered at 3 months and 12-13 months, instead of the previous schedule of 8 weeks. The 8 week vaccines now include DTaP/IPV/Hib/HepB, Men B, and rotavirus, while the 12 week vaccines include DTaP/IPV/Hib/HepB, pneumococcal vaccine, and rotavirus. There are no vaccines given at 6 weeks.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.
The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 27
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman with polymyalgia rheumatica was started on prednisolone 15 mg daily and had a great therapeutic response. The steroid dose has now been reduced to 10 mg daily, and the plan is to continue tapering the prednisolone dose by 1 mg per month, aiming to discontinue prednisolone in one year's time. Routine bloods are normal except for mild anaemia and a significant elevation in erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
What is the best approach to osteoporosis prophylaxis for her?Your Answer: Alendronic acid and calcium carbonate and vitamin D
Explanation:Bone Protective Therapy for Patients on Long-Term Corticosteroids
Patients on long-term corticosteroids are at an increased risk of osteoporotic fractures, even at low doses of 5 mg daily. The loss of bone mineral density is most significant in the first few months of therapy, but fracture risk decreases rapidly after stopping. Patients over 65 years of age or with a prior fragility fracture are considered high risk and should begin bone protective therapy at the start of corticosteroid treatment.
Bisphosphonate monotherapy is not sufficient for long-term steroid patients, and combination therapy with calcium and vitamin D is necessary. Alendronic acid is a commonly prescribed bisphosphonate for bone protection. Calcium carbonate is also important in preventing osteoporotic fractures when combined with alendronic acid and vitamin D.
A dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is not necessary before starting bone protection treatment for long-term corticosteroid patients. However, a DEXA scan is recommended for patients over 50 years of age with a history of fragility fracture or those under 40 years of age with a major risk factor for fragility fracture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 28
Correct
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You have a 7-year-old Asian child in your clinic. He has slightly bowed legs and complains of muscle pains. You suspect a Vitamin D deficiency. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: 25-hydroxyvitamin D
Explanation:Understanding Vitamin D Deficiency
Vitamin D deficiency is a common health concern that can lead to various health problems. To investigate suspected Vitamin D deficiency, doctors often use the 25-hydroxyvitamin D blood test. However, it’s important to note that a high alkaline phosphatase level may indicate rickets, but it can still be normal despite significant Vitamin D deficiency. Additionally, Vitamin D deficiency can impair the absorption of dietary calcium and phosphorus, but these levels may still appear normal despite the deficiency.
When the parathyroid calcium sensing receptors detect low levels of calcium, the body produces parathyroid hormone. While this hormone can be used to diagnose Vitamin D deficiency, it’s an expensive test that is not usually necessary. Overall, understanding the signs and symptoms of Vitamin D deficiency and getting regular check-ups can help prevent and treat this common health issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD) attends his annual check-up with his General Practitioner. He reports feeling well.
During the examination, his haemoglobin (Hb) level is measured at 107 g/l (normal range: 125–165 g/l), and his mean cell volume (MCV) is 86 fl (normal range: 80–100 fl). Iron studies come back normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Commence ferrous fumarate
Correct Answer: Refer the patient to nephrology for erythropoietin consideration
Explanation:Management of Renal Anaemia in CKD Patients
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and anaemia may require referral to nephrology for erythropoietin treatment if their hemoglobin (Hb) levels are below 110 g/l or if they experience symptoms such as tiredness, shortness of breath, lethargy, and palpitations. Other causes of anaemia should be ruled out before considering erythropoiesis-stimulating agents to maintain Hb levels between 100-120 g/l in adults. Endoscopy may be necessary in cases of iron-deficiency anaemia, but not in normocytic anaemia with normal iron studies. Iron-replacement therapy is not required in this case. Referral to nephrology is necessary for patients with CKD and renal anaemia, diagnosed when Hb levels drop below 110 g/l. Waiting for Hb levels to drop below 10.0 g/dl before referral is not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has just been diagnosed with Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 and has developed a rash that is consistent with erythema multiforme.
What is the most probable finding in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Target lesions with a central blister
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics
Erythema multiforme is a self-limiting skin condition that is characterized by sharply demarcated, round, red or pink macules that evolve into papular plaques. The lesions typically develop a central blister or crust and a surrounding paler pink ring that is raised due to oedema, creating the classic target appearance. However, atypical targets may also occur, with just two zones and/or an indistinct border. Mucous membranes may also be involved.
The most common cause of erythema multiforme is Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1, followed by Mycoplasma, although many other viruses have been reported to cause the eruption. Drugs are an infrequent cause, and conditions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are now considered distinct from erythema multiforme.
Unlike monomorphic eruptions, the lesions in erythema multiforme are polymorphous, meaning they take on many forms. The rash may also involve the palms and soles, although this is not always the case. While there may be a mild itch associated with the condition, intense itching is more commonly seen in Chickenpox in children.
Lesions in erythema multiforme typically start on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet and spread along the limbs towards the trunk. The condition usually resolves without complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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