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  • Question 1 - You are examining a 3-month-old infant and observe a patch of blotchy skin...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining a 3-month-old infant and observe a patch of blotchy skin on the back of the neck. The irregular, smooth pink patch measures around 3 cm in diameter and is not palpable. The parents mention that it becomes more noticeable when the baby cries. What is the probable diagnosis for this skin lesion?

      Your Answer: Erythema toxicum neonatorum

      Correct Answer: Salmon patch

      Explanation:

      Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns

      Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Following NICE guidance, which one of the following patients should undergo screening for...

    Correct

    • Following NICE guidance, which one of the following patients should undergo screening for hereditary thrombophilia?

      Your Answer: A 54-year-old woman with an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis. Her sister was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism three years ago

      Explanation:

      The probability of an underlying hereditary thrombophilia is high in the 54-year-old woman who has an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis and a first-degree relative with the same condition.

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 4-year-old girl from a Turkish family is brought to the local paediatric...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl from a Turkish family is brought to the local paediatric unit by her GP due to recurrent fatigue and paleness. The parents report no other symptoms such as fever, pain, or poor appetite. She had received treatment with a course of amoxicillin for a throat infection three weeks ago. Upon admission, her blood tests reveal:

      Hb 5.5 g/dl
      WBC 11.2 *109/l
      Platelets 320 *109/l
      Reticulocytes 4%

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency may experience haemolysis as a result of taking ciprofloxacin.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - If you were looking at evidence about which age group is most susceptible...

    Incorrect

    • If you were looking at evidence about which age group is most susceptible to psychiatric disturbance in patients taking Tamiflu, in what type of study would you be most likely to find it?

      Your Answer: Animal mechanistic study

      Correct Answer: Nested case-control study

      Explanation:

      Investigating Rare Case Reports of Psychiatric Disturbance and Drug Safety

      By definition, rare case reports cannot be adequately addressed in a standard clinical development program that typically involves studies in up to 5,000 patients. Therefore, conducting another randomized controlled trial (RCT) is unlikely to provide significant data. Managed healthcare databases may not offer sufficient detailed information to establish causality, and a cohort study may not have a large enough number of index events to draw conclusions about drug safety. In this scenario, a nested case-control study is the most appropriate approach to investigate any potential link between psychiatric disturbance and the drug. This type of study compares a collection of cases with control patients to identify any differences and draw conclusions about drug safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old man with type 1 diabetes of ten years' duration and background...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with type 1 diabetes of ten years' duration and background diabetic retinopathy has a persistently elevated blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg and proteinuria of 0.6 g/day. Blood urea, electrolytes and creatinine are well within normal limits. Besides insulin, he is on no other medications.

      Which of the following is the most likely agent to improve the prognosis in this man?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin inhibitors

      Correct Answer: ACE inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Managing Diabetic Nephropathy and Hypertension

      This individual is suffering from diabetic nephropathy, as indicated by the presence of retinopathy, and hypertension. To prevent the progression of renal failure in the long term, it is crucial to maintain good glycaemic and lipid profiles while controlling blood pressure to less than 130/75 mmHg. The weight of trial evidence suggests that angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are the best option for type 1 diabetics. The most important and clinically relevant strategy for this individual to improve their prognosis is to prevent the progression of renal disease and reduce blood pressure with an ACEi. By doing so, we can effectively manage their condition and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are speaking with a 57-year-old man who is worried about his blood...

    Incorrect

    • You are speaking with a 57-year-old man who is worried about his blood pressure control. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home daily for the past week and consistently reads over 140/90 mmHg, with the highest reading being 154/86 mmHg. He has no chest symptoms and is otherwise healthy. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking perindopril. He previously took amlodipine, but it was discontinued due to significant ankle edema. His recent blood test results are as follows:

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 5.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 80 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer: Calcium channel blocker

      Correct Answer: Thiazide-like diuretic

      Explanation:

      To improve control of poorly managed hypertension in a patient already taking an ACE inhibitor, the recommended step 2 treatment is to add either a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, the preferred choice is a thiazide-like diuretic as the patient has a history of intolerance to calcium channel blockers. Aldosterone antagonist and beta-blocker are not appropriate choices for step 2 management. It is important to note that combining an ACE inhibitor with an angiotensin receptor blocker is not recommended due to the risk of acute kidney injury.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 20-year-old otherwise healthy young man presents with a problem with recurrent boils.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old otherwise healthy young man presents with a problem with recurrent boils.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Methicillin-resistant staphylococci (MRSA)

      Correct Answer: Nasal carriage of staphylococci

      Explanation:

      Understanding Boils: Causes, Risk Factors, and Treatment Options

      Boils, also known as furuncles, are a common skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. They typically occur in adolescents and young adults, particularly in males. Recurrent infections may be caused by persistent nasal carriage of the bacteria. While the link between diabetes and multiple boils is unclear, individuals with diabetes may experience more extensive boils. Other risk factors include obesity, immunosuppression, skin diseases, poor hygiene, and exposure to chemicals or oils.

      To prevent recurrent infections, swabs should be taken from various sites to identify the source of the bacteria. If Panton-Valentine leukocidin Staphylococcus aureus (PVL-SA) or methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is suspected, specialist advice should be sought. Nasal carriage of staphylococci can be treated with a chlorhexidine and neomycin cream, although re-colonization is common. Antiseptics can also be used to reduce bacteria on the skin.

      Overall, maintaining good hygiene practices, such as daily washing and bathing in antiseptic solutions, can help prevent and treat boils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old woman has been prescribed sumatriptan 50 mg for acute migraine attacks...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman has been prescribed sumatriptan 50 mg for acute migraine attacks because over-the-counter remedies were not effective. She has not found them to be effective in spite of taking two doses in attack. Only partial relief was obtained after each dose.
      What is the most appropriate drug to prescribe next?

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan 100 mg

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraine: Steps and Medications to Consider

      Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects millions of people worldwide. When managing migraine, the first step is to use simple analgesia with or without antiemetics. This may include aspirin, ibuprofen, or other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Paracetamol may not be strong enough, while codeine and dihydrocodeine should be avoided due to their potential for medication-overuse headache and addiction.

      If the initial treatment is not effective, the next step is to offer rectal analgesia and antiemetics. Diclofenac suppositories and domperidone suppositories may be suitable for patients experiencing vomiting.

      The third step is to use specific anti-migraine drugs or ergotamine. Triptans are the first choice for specific anti-migraine drugs. If the first choice fails to relieve the acute migraine pain adequately, the doctor may consider increasing the dose of the same triptan, using a different formulation for more rapid response, or changing to a different triptan. Ergotamine is best avoided due to its limited absorption and side-effects. If it is used, it is better taken rectally.

      It is important to note that opioids and ergotamine should be avoided in the management of acute migraine, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.

      In conclusion, managing migraine involves a stepwise approach that considers the patient’s symptoms and response to treatment. It is essential to consult the Guidelines for All Healthcare Professionals in the Diagnosis and Management of Migraine, Tension-Type, Cluster and Medication-Overuse Headache by the British Association for the Study of Headache (BASH) for a more detailed account of migraine management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      67.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading for...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading for the past two weeks. She has never worn glasses and is not taking any medications. On examination, her pupils are of normal size but react sluggishly to light. Both optic discs appear sharp with no signs of haemorrhages or exudates. The patient's visual acuity is significantly impaired and remains so even with the use of a pinhole card. During left lateral gaze, five-beat nystagmus and double vision are observed. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Drug toxicity

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis

      This young woman exhibits symptoms that suggest retrobulbar neuritis and cerebellar features, including nystagmus. The most likely diagnosis is Multiple sclerosis. To confirm this diagnosis, visual evoked responses, MRI scans revealing demyelinating plaques, and oligoclonal bands on CSF examination can be conducted.

      Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system. It can cause a wide range of symptoms, including vision problems, muscle weakness, and difficulty with coordination and balance. Early diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and slow the progression of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You saw a 75-year-old nursing home resident 10 days ago and treated her...

    Incorrect

    • You saw a 75-year-old nursing home resident 10 days ago and treated her for a severe lower respiratory tract infection. She made it clear that she doesn't want to attend the hospital under any condition or have resuscitation attempted. Her health has been progressively declining over the past few years and she had a poor baseline of health when you saw her. Her family called the practice this morning to let you know that she passed away in her sleep a few hours ago.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Discuss the case with social services

      Correct Answer: Complete a medical certificate of cause of death within 5 days of the death

      Explanation:

      In straightforward cases of death, a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD) can be completed by the doctor who attended the last illness. Deaths must be registered within 5 days, and if the certifying doctor has not seen the patient within 28 days preceding death, the death must be referred to the coroner. During the Coronavirus pandemic, temporary changes were made to the legislation around completion of MCCD and cremation. Video consultations are acceptable methods of ‘seeing’ a person in the last 28 days of their life but not after death. Doctors are advised to include certain information on all Cremation Forms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
      87
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 20-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of recurrent episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of recurrent episodes of flashing lights in one eye, nausea, and headache. She experiences these symptoms two to three times a month, and the pain is so severe that she has to lie down for hours. Paracetamol and ibuprofen do not provide relief. Upon examination, her neurological features and blood pressure are normal. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer for an urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan

      Correct Answer: Commence treatment with sumatriptan

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Treatment Options for Headaches: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals

      When it comes to treating headaches, it’s important to accurately diagnose the underlying cause in order to provide the most effective treatment. Here are some common scenarios and the appropriate course of action:

      1. Commence treatment with sumatriptan: This is the recommended course of action for patients experiencing migraines, particularly if first-line treatments like paracetamol or NSAIDs have been ineffective. Prophylactic agents like propranolol may also be necessary for frequent migraines.

      2. Commence treatment with high-dose steroids: This is the appropriate treatment for patients with giant-cell arteritis, which typically presents with a temporal headache, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. GCA is rare in patients under 60.

      3. Commence treatment with sodium valproate: This medication is not recommended for migraine prophylaxis, and should be avoided in women of childbearing age due to its teratogenicity. First-line agents for migraine prophylaxis include propranolol, topiramate, and amitriptyline.

      4. Refer for a computed tomography (CT) head and lumbar puncture scan: This is indicated for patients suspected of having a subarachnoid hemorrhage, which typically presents with a sudden-onset, occipital, thunderclap headache.

      5. Refer for an urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan: This is necessary when there is progressive, subacute loss of central neurological function, which could indicate an underlying tumor. This is not indicated in patients with typical migraine symptoms.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate and effective treatment for patients with headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      165.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which one of the following statements regarding B-type natriuretic peptide is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding B-type natriuretic peptide is incorrect?

      Your Answer: The positive predictive value of BNP is greater than the negative predictive value

      Explanation:

      The negative predictive value of BNP for ventricular dysfunction is good, but its positive predictive value is poor.

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.

      BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - When managing hypertension in a diabetic patient, which of the following combinations of...

    Incorrect

    • When managing hypertension in a diabetic patient, which of the following combinations of Antihypertensive medications should be avoided, if possible?

      Your Answer: Doxazosin + beta-blocker

      Correct Answer: Beta-blocker + thiazide

      Explanation:

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      81.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 6-year-old girl is referred to the enuresis clinic by her pediatrician. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is referred to the enuresis clinic by her pediatrician. Her mother initially contacted the pediatrician concerned with ongoing bedwetting and it turns out that the girl has never had a 'dry night'.

      The pediatrician has provided general advice on diet, fluid intake, and toileting behavior, though the mother says the bedwetting has not resolved. Despite the use of a reward system, the girl still wets the bed at night and the mother is getting worried.

      She speaks to the enuresis clinic and is sent home with an intervention.

      What intervention is likely to be recommended?

      Your Answer: A better prize for the reward system

      Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      If general advice has not been effective in treating nocturnal enuresis in a child, an enuresis alarm is typically the first-line option recommended by NICE guidelines. However, it may be worth exploring alternative reward systems to ensure the child is motivated to make the necessary effort. It is assumed that the mother can appropriately motivate their child, so this may not be a route taken by the clinic. If the enuresis alarm doesn’t work, pharmacological interventions such as desmopressin, oxybutynin, and unlicensed tolterodine may be considered.

      Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children

      Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.

      The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhoea, unexplained weight loss, and low levels...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhoea, unexplained weight loss, and low levels of iron in his blood. You suspect coeliac disease and want to investigate further.
      Choose from the options below the immunoglobulin that may be deficient in individuals with coeliac disease.

      Your Answer: IgD

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease and Selective IgA Deficiency

      Coeliac disease is more common in individuals with selective IgA deficiency, which affects 0.4% of the general population and 2.6% of coeliac disease patients. Diagnosis of coeliac disease relies on detecting IgA antibodies to transglutaminase or anti-endomysial antibody. However, it is crucial to check total serum IgA levels before ruling out the diagnosis based on serology. For those with confirmed IgA deficiency, IgG tTGA and/or IgG EMA are the appropriate serological tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      72.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old G4P3 woman presents with a lump in the breast, having stopped...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old G4P3 woman presents with a lump in the breast, having stopped breastfeeding her youngest child one week ago. She has a history of mastitis during breastfeeding her older children. On examination, a non-tender lump is found in the left breast at the three o'clock position, 4 cm away from the nipple. The skin overlying the lump appears unaffected. Her vital signs are as follows:

      Heart rate: 88, respiratory rate: 12, blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg, Oxygen saturation: 98%, Temperature: 37.4 Cº.

      What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the most appropriate next step in investigation?

      Your Answer: Breast abscess, ultrasound imaging

      Correct Answer: Galactocele, no further investigation necessary

      Explanation:

      Galactocele and breast abscess can be distinguished based on clinical history and examination findings, without the need for further investigation. Recent discontinuation of breastfeeding is a common risk factor for both conditions. However, galactoceles are typically painless and non-tender on examination, with no signs of infection, while breast abscesses are usually associated with local or systemic signs of infection. Although the patient’s history of mastitis raises suspicion for a breast abscess, the absence of tenderness, erythema, and fever strongly suggests a galactocele in this case.

      Understanding Galactocele

      Galactocele is a condition that commonly affects women who have recently stopped breastfeeding. It occurs when a lactiferous duct becomes blocked, leading to the accumulation of milk and the formation of a cystic lesion in the breast. Unlike an abscess, galactocele is usually painless and doesn’t cause any local or systemic signs of infection.

      In simpler terms, galactocele is a type of breast cyst that develops when milk gets trapped in a duct. It is not a serious condition and can be easily diagnosed by a doctor. Women who experience galactocele may notice a lump in their breast, but it is usually painless and doesn’t require any treatment. However, if the lump becomes painful or infected, medical attention may be necessary. Overall, galactocele is a common and harmless condition that can be managed with proper care and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of headaches. She reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of headaches. She reports experiencing throbbing headaches on one side of her head every few weeks, which would subside after resting in a dark room. The patient resorted to taking paracetamol, ibuprofen, and codeine regularly to alleviate the pain. However, she now experiences a constant headache that affects her entire head and doesn't improve with rest in a dark room. The patient's neurological examination shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Stop all analgesia immediately

      Correct Answer: Wean down dose of codeine and stop paracetamol/ibuprofen immediately

      Explanation:

      The correct approach for treating medication overuse headache depends on the type of analgesia being used. Simple analgesia and triptans should be stopped abruptly, while opioid analgesia requires gradual withdrawal. In the case of this patient, who developed medication overuse headache after using daily analgesia for migraine-like symptoms, the paracetamol and ibuprofen can be stopped immediately, but the codeine must be gradually reduced to avoid withdrawal symptoms.

      Stopping all analgesia immediately is not recommended, as codeine withdrawal can cause discomfort. Tapering off current analgesia while introducing propranolol or topiramate is also not appropriate at this stage, as medication overuse headache must be treated first by stopping the current analgesia. Once the analgesia has been withdrawn, migraine prophylaxis can be considered, with propranolol being the preferred option for this patient due to the risk of teratogenicity associated with topiramate in females of childbearing age.

      Understanding Medication Overuse Headache

      Medication overuse headache is a common cause of chronic daily headache that affects up to 1 in 50 people. It is characterized by headaches that occur for 15 days or more per month and are worsened by regular use of symptomatic medication. Patients who use opioids and triptans are at the highest risk of developing this condition. Additionally, there may be psychiatric comorbidity associated with medication overuse headache.

      According to the 2008 SIGN guidelines, the management of medication overuse headache involves abruptly withdrawing simple analgesics and triptans, which may initially worsen headaches. On the other hand, opioid analgesics should be gradually withdrawn. However, withdrawal symptoms such as vomiting, hypotension, tachycardia, restlessness, sleep disturbances, and anxiety may occur when medication is stopped. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before discontinuing any medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What prophylaxis options are suitable for an adult at-risk population, including pregnant women,...

    Incorrect

    • What prophylaxis options are suitable for an adult at-risk population, including pregnant women, during an influenza A outbreak?

      Your Answer: Zidovudine

      Correct Answer: Lamivudine

      Explanation:

      Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) for Prophylactic Treatment during Flu Epidemics

      During flu epidemics, oseltamivir (Tamiflu) may be used as a prophylactic treatment for at-risk patients, including pregnant women. However, long-term use of oseltamivir can lead to resistance. The current protocol recommends no antiviral treatment for previously healthy individuals, unless the physician deems the patient at serious risk of developing complications from the flu. In such cases, oseltamivir may be prescribed orally.

      For at-risk populations, including pregnant women (excluding the severely immunosuppressed), oseltamivir is recommended as a prophylactic treatment. Treatment should begin as soon as possible, ideally within 48 hours of onset. Evidence suggests that even if treatment is started up to 5 days after onset, it may reduce the risk of mortality. However, starting treatment more than 48 hours after onset is considered an off-label use of oseltamivir, and clinical judgement should be exercised.

      For the full protocol, please refer to the HM UK Government’s guidelines on influenza treatment and prophylaxis using antiviral agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man presents with a three month history of pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a three month history of pain in the perineum, lower urinary tract symptoms, and sexual dysfunction.

      MSU is negative and PR is normal other than a tender prostate.

      Which one of the following is true with regard to chronic prostatitis?

      Your Answer: NSAIDs are not used in the management of this condition

      Correct Answer: It is considered a chronic pelvic pain syndrome in 90% of men

      Explanation:

      Chronic Prostatitis: A Complex Diagnosis

      The diagnosis and underlying cause of chronic prostatitis can be challenging to determine. While some experts debate whether it is a chronic pain syndrome, only 10% of cases are caused by infection, and antibiotics are often ineffective in treating the condition. As a result, the term chronic pelvic pain syndrome has been adopted to better reflect the complex nature of this condition. Despite ongoing research, the diagnosis and management of chronic prostatitis remain a challenge for healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 20 - A 58-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a follow-up on her Antihypertensive...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a follow-up on her Antihypertensive medication. She is currently prescribed bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily and atenolol 50 mg daily for her hypertension, and atorvastatin for her dyslipidaemia. She also has a history of gout. What is a commonly known side effect of bendroflumethiazide?

      Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Thiazides: Risks and Adverse Effects

      Thiazides are a type of medication commonly used to treat high blood pressure and edema. However, they are associated with several adverse effects. One of the most common is metabolic alkalosis, which occurs when the body’s pH becomes too alkaline. Thiazides can also cause hypokalaemia, a condition where there is a low level of potassium in the blood, and hypercalcaemia, where there is too much calcium in the blood.

      Another potential risk of thiazides is an increase in insulin resistance, which can lead to type 2 diabetes. Meta-analyses have shown that combining thiazides with beta-blockers may further increase this risk. Additionally, thiazides are known to precipitate gout, a painful form of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints.

      Hypertriglyceridaemia, a condition where there are high levels of triglycerides in the blood, is also associated with hyperuricaemia, which is an excess of uric acid in the blood. Thiazides can exacerbate this condition, leading to an increased risk of gout. It is important to be aware of these potential risks and to discuss them with a healthcare provider before starting thiazide therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      48.4
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  • Question 21 - A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with glandular fever. What advice should be...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with glandular fever. What advice should be given regarding participation in sports?

      Your Answer: Avoid contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever if clinical evidence of splenomegaly

      Correct Answer: Avoid contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever

      Explanation:

      Screening for splenomegaly cannot be effectively done through clinical examination alone. Additionally, individuals with glandular fever should refrain from participating in contact sports for a period of 4 weeks.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner reporting ongoing distress following the...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner reporting ongoing distress following the sudden death of his wife 12 months ago following a cardiac arrest. He took three months off work to ‘deal with’ his wife’s death and then returned to his full-time role. He lives alone and reports that he has been unable to ‘bounce back’. He thinks of his wife’s death often and it distresses and distracts him. He has been sleeping poorly, has missed several shifts and was finally dismissed from his job. He feels isolated and a sense of responsibility that he did not ‘look after his wife’.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Complicated grief

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Grief and Trauma Reactions

      Grief and trauma can manifest in various ways, and it is essential to differentiate between different types of reactions to provide appropriate support and treatment. Complicated grief is a type of grief that persists in its intensity, hindering a person’s ability to engage in normal activities and causing feelings of shame or guilt. This type of grief can last for an extended period, and the person may struggle to accept the death, leading to isolation and loneliness. On the other hand, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) can result from a distressing event, causing intrusive symptoms such as vivid and distressing memories or flashbacks. Normal grief reactions follow the Kubler Ross model, with stages of denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. However, if the intense feelings of grief persist, it may indicate complicated grief. Major depressive disorder (MDD) shares some symptoms with complicated grief, but the context of the loss is crucial in distinguishing between the two. Acute stress reaction is a transient disorder that develops in response to exceptional physical and mental stress, subsiding within hours or days, and is not indicated in this case. Understanding these different types of grief and trauma reactions can help in providing appropriate support and treatment to those who need it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      43.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 36-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a recurrent itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a recurrent itchy rash on his hands and feet. He travels frequently to the Middle East for business purposes and has engaged in unprotected sexual activity during one of his trips. Upon examination, the palms and soles show an itchy vesicular rash with erythema and excoriation. What is the probable cause of this rash, considering the patient's exposure?

      Your Answer: Sunlight

      Correct Answer: Humidity

      Explanation:

      Pompholyx eczema can be triggered by high humidity levels, such as sweating, and hot temperatures. This is evidenced by the recurrent vesicles that appear on the palms and soles, accompanied by erythema. The patient’s frequent travels to the Middle East, which is known for its high humidity levels, may have contributed to the development of this condition.

      Chlamydia is not a factor in the development of pompholyx eczema. While chlamydia can cause keratoderma blennorrhagica, which affects the soles of the feet and palms, it has a different appearance and is not typically itchy or erythematous.

      Cold temperatures are not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although they may cause Raynaud’s phenomenon.

      Sunlight exposure is not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although it may cause other skin conditions such as lupus and polymorphic light eruption.

      Understanding Pompholyx Eczema

      Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by humidity and high temperatures, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.

      To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation of the skin by avoiding triggers such as excessive sweating and using gentle, fragrance-free products. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      44.3
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  • Question 24 - A 16-year-old woman comes in seeking post-coital contraception after engaging in unprotected sexual...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old woman comes in seeking post-coital contraception after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse four days ago.

      Which one of these statements is true regarding post-coital contraception?

      Your Answer: Males cannot buy levonorgestrel from a community pharmacy

      Correct Answer: An IUD cannot be fitted more than five days from sexual intercourse

      Explanation:

      Timing and Options for Emergency Contraception

      When it comes to emergency contraception, timing is crucial. If ovulation can be estimated, an IUD can be inserted up to five days after the expected date of ovulation. On the other hand, levonorgestrel can be taken beyond the recommended 72-hour window, but its effectiveness may be reduced. It can also be repeated within the same menstrual cycle. In cases where condoms are the only form of contraception, additional levonorgestrel may be prescribed. However, it’s important to note that pharmacists will not sell levonorgestrel to males. By understanding the timing and options for emergency contraception, individuals can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      16.3
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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old woman is taking haloperidol and reports experiencing a sensation of restlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is taking haloperidol and reports experiencing a sensation of restlessness and an incapacity to remain seated since commencing her medication.
      What is the appropriate term for this adverse effect of the drug?

      Your Answer: Parkinsonism

      Correct Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      Akathisia is a condition characterized by a feeling of restlessness and an uncontrollable urge to move, which can lead to difficulty staying still. Symptoms may include foot stamping, leg crossing and uncrossing, and pacing. It is important to distinguish akathisia from psychotic agitation, as increasing the antipsychotic dose can worsen symptoms. Akathisia can occur within the first two weeks of taking a neuroleptic drug or even after several months of treatment. It has been linked to suicidal behavior and aggression towards others.

      Dystonic reaction is a reversible extrapyramidal effect that can occur immediately or after a few hours or days of taking a neuroleptic drug. It causes sustained muscle contractions that lead to abnormal postures or repetitive movements, which may resemble a tremor. Oculogyric crisis is a type of dystonic reaction characterized by prolonged involuntary upward deviation of the eyes.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic medications. It is characterized by fever, muscular rigidity, altered level of consciousness, and autonomic instability. It usually occurs shortly after starting neuroleptic treatment or after a dose increase.

      Drug-induced Parkinsonism (DIP) is a condition that can be mistaken for Parkinson’s disease. It is the second most common cause of Parkinsonism in the elderly. Symptoms may persist even after stopping the medication. DIP can be caused by typical and atypical antipsychotics, gastrointestinal prokinetics, calcium channel blockers, and antiepileptic drugs.

      Tardive dyskinesia is a condition characterized by involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. It occurs in patients who have been treated with long-term neuroleptic drugs. Symptoms may persist even after stopping the medication, but they usually disappear within three years in about 60% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      54.4
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  • Question 26 - A 72-year-old lady comes to her GP for a yearly check-up of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old lady comes to her GP for a yearly check-up of her heart failure treatment.

      She has a blood pressure reading of 165/90 mmHg. At present, she is taking furosemide and aspirin, and she feels short of breath when walking uphill.

      What would be the best medication to include in her treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      First Line Treatments for Heart Failure

      ACE inhibitors and beta blockers are the primary medications used in the treatment of heart failure. The SOLVD and CONSENSUS trials have shown that ACE inhibitors are a cornerstone in the management of heart failure. It has been proven that higher doses of ACE inhibitors provide greater benefits. These medications are generally well-tolerated, particularly in mild cases. If ACE inhibitors are not well-tolerated, an ARB can be used as an alternative. Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists are also recommended as a first-line treatment for heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      9.3
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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old construction worker complains of wrist pain for the past two weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old construction worker complains of wrist pain for the past two weeks. He has no significant medical history and recently moved from Nigeria. During examination, he experiences tenderness at the base of his right thumb and radial styloid process. The pain is recreated when the wrist is deviated ulnarly. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis of the carpometacarpal joint

      Correct Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis

      Explanation:

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is characterized by pain and tenderness on the radial side of the wrist, specifically over the radial styloid process.

      De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which pain is elicited by ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction of the thumb, is also indicative of the condition.

      Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical intervention may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can experience relief from the pain and discomfort associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 9-month-old girl has gradually become more short of breath following an upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old girl has gradually become more short of breath following an upper respiratory tract infection and her mother is very worried about her. What is the single finding on examination that is a high-risk sign rather than an intermediate sign?

      Your Answer: Capillary refill time > 3 seconds

      Correct Answer: Respiratory rate 60/min

      Explanation:

      Assessing and Managing Respiratory Tract Infections in Children: NICE Traffic-Light System

      When a child presents with respiratory tract infection and chest signs, it is important to assess the underlying condition and level of risk. The NICE traffic-light system is a useful tool for identifying the likelihood of serious illness in a feverish child. High-risk (red) signs such as grunting, moderate or severe chest indrawing, and observed pallor of the skin require immediate hospital admission. Other signs, such as intermediate (amber) risk features, may require a safety net or referral to specialist paediatric care for further assessment. Effective assessment and management can help ensure the best possible outcomes for children with respiratory tract infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0.1
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  • Question 29 - A 26-year-old man lives alone. His neighbours have been increasingly concerned about rubbish...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man lives alone. His neighbours have been increasingly concerned about rubbish piling up inside his flat and sometimes he isn't seen for days. His family tell you that over the last year he has become very odd and isolated. On examination, he is withdrawn and quiet and you find it difficult to understand his answers as he frequently wanders off the point, as if he is answering a different question. Although spontaneous movements are reduced, there are no neurological signs and he is not on any medication, prescribed or illicit. His mother and two older brothers have both had episodes of major depression.
      Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest a possible favourable outcome from this episode.

      Your Answer: Young age

      Correct Answer: Family history of depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Schizophrenia: Symptoms, Predictors of Outcome, and Prevalence

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder characterized by a range of symptoms, including positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, and negative symptoms such as asocial behavior, reduced spontaneous movements, and disorganized speech. In this case, the individual exhibits mainly negative symptomatology, indicating a poor prognosis.

      Several factors can predict the outcome of schizophrenia. Young age, insidious onset, poor premorbid social function, negative symptomatology, neurological signs, no recognized precipitating factor, and family history of schizophrenia are all associated with a poor outcome. On the other hand, older age, acute onset, recognizable precipitant, good premorbid social function, being married, prominent mood disorder, family history of mood disorder, and positive symptomatology are associated with a better outcome.

      The overall prevalence of schizophrenia is 1% in all populations, and only 10-20% of patients will make a full recovery from one episode. It is important to understand the symptoms, predictors of outcome, and prevalence of schizophrenia to provide appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      20.3
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  • Question 30 - A teenager with enlarged lymph nodes is a common situation faced by doctors....

    Incorrect

    • A teenager with enlarged lymph nodes is a common situation faced by doctors. Which of the following descriptions of palpable lymph nodes is most suggestive of the cause being a simple adolescent viral infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small, discrete, mobile, non-tender and bilateral nodes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lymphadenopathy in Children: Characteristics to Look Out For

      Lymphadenopathy is a common condition in children, often caused by viral infections. However, it is important to be aware of certain characteristics that may indicate more serious underlying pathology.

      Small, discrete, mobile, non-tender and bilateral nodes are typical of hyperplastic lymph nodes in response to viral infections. Generalised lymphadenopathy, on the other hand, should raise concern for significant pathology such as haematological malignancies or HIV.

      While lymph nodes up to 1.5 cm in the inguinal region and 2 cm in the cervical region are often normal in children, lymphadenopathy larger than this increases the risk of malignancy.

      Localised unilateral lymphadenopathy is usually caused by local infections and is associated with painful, tender lymph nodes. In contrast, lymphadenopathy associated with malignancy is typically firm or rubbery, discrete, non-tender, and fixed to the skin or underlying structures.

      By understanding these characteristics, healthcare professionals can better identify and manage lymphadenopathy in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (2/3) 67%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Health (1/3) 33%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (2/2) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Leadership And Management (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (0/2) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/2) 0%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed