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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old university student exhibits involuntary head twitching and flicking of his hands. He also says that he suffers from embarrassing grunting which can affect him at almost any time. When he is in lectures at the university he manages to control it, but often when he comes home and relaxes the movements and noises get the better of him. His girlfriend who attends the consultation with him tells you that he seems very easily distracted and often is really very annoying, repeating things which she says to him and mimicking her. On further questioning, it transpires that this has actually been a problem since childhood. On examination his BP is 115/70 mmHg, pulse is 74 beats/min and regular. His heart sounds are normal, respiratory, abdominal and neurological examinations are entirely normal.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 129 g/l 135–175 g/l
White Cell Count (WCC) 8.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 193 × 109 /l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) 23 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Gilles de la Tourette syndrome
Explanation:Distinguishing Movement Disorders: Gilles de la Tourette Syndrome, Congenital Cerebellar Ataxia, Haemochromatosis, Huntington’s Disease, and Wilson’s Disease
Gilles de la Tourette syndrome is characterized by motor and vocal tics that are preceded by an unwanted premonitory urge. These tics may be suppressible, but with associated tension and mental exhaustion. The diagnosis is based on clinical presentation and history, with an association with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, behavioural problems, and self-mutilation. The pathophysiology is unknown, but treatments include neuroleptics, atypical antipsychotics, and benzodiazepines.
Congenital cerebellar ataxia typically presents with a broad-based gait and dysmetria, which is not seen in this case. Haemochromatosis has a controversial link to movement disorders. Huntington’s disease primarily presents with chorea, irregular dancing-type movements that are not repetitive or rhythmic and lack the premonitory urge and suppressibility seen in Tourette’s. Wilson’s disease has central nervous system manifestations, particularly parkinsonism and tremor, which are not present in this case. It is important to distinguish between these movement disorders for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 72-year-old man reports experiencing intermittent flashes and a curtain-like loss of lateral vision in his right eye upon waking up this morning, which has since worsened. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Retinal vein occlusion
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Retinal Detachment
Retinal detachment is a serious eye emergency that occurs when the retina’s sensory and pigment layers separate. This condition can be caused by various factors such as congenital malformations, metabolic disorders, trauma, vascular disease, high myopia, vitreous disease, and degeneration. It is important to note that retinal detachment is a time-critical condition that requires immediate medical attention.
Symptoms of retinal detachment include floaters, a grey curtain or veil moving across the field of vision, and sudden decrease of vision. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent permanent vision loss. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms associated with retinal detachment to ensure prompt medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female comes to the clinic with sudden onset of left foot drop. Upon examination, it is found that she has weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and eversion. There is also a loss of sensation over the dorsum of her foot. All reflexes are present and plantars flexor. Which nerve is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Tibial nerve
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:Peroneal Neuropathy
Peroneal neuropathy is a condition that typically manifests as sudden foot drop. When a patient is examined, the weakness in the foot and ankle is limited to dorsiflexion of the ankle and toes, as well as eversion of the ankle. However, the ankle reflex (which is mediated by the tibial nerve) and the knee reflex (which is mediated by the femoral nerve) remain intact. In terms of sensory involvement, the lower two-thirds of the lateral leg and the dorsum of the foot may be affected.
It is important to note that peroneal neuropathy is distinct from other nerve issues that may affect the lower leg and foot. For example, sciatic nerve problems may result in impaired knee flexion, while tibial nerve lesions may lead to weakness in foot flexion and pain on the plantar surface. By the specific symptoms and signs of peroneal neuropathy, healthcare providers can make an accurate diagnosis and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents with slurred speech. Upon examination, he displays bilateral partial ptosis and frontal balding. Additionally, he experiences difficulty releasing his grip after shaking hands. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Correct Answer: Myotonia dystrophica
Explanation:Myotonic Dystrophy: A Progressive Multi-System Disorder
Myotonic dystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is caused by a mutation in the DMPK gene on chromosome 19, which leads to a CTG repeat. The length of this repeat determines the age of onset and severity of symptoms. Myotonic dystrophy can affect skeletal muscles, the heart, gastrointestinal and uterine smooth muscles, the eyes, and the endocrine and central nervous systems.
Symptoms of myotonic dystrophy include ptosis, frontal balding, cataracts, cardiomyopathy, impaired intellect, testicular atrophy, diabetes mellitus, and dysarthria. The age of onset can range from birth to old age, with some patients presenting with symptoms in late adulthood. There is no cure for the weakness that is the main cause of disability, but medications such as phenytoin, quinine, or procainamide may be helpful for myotonia.
It is important to differentiate myotonic dystrophy from other conditions that present with similar symptoms. Myotonia congenita, for example, presents in childhood with myotonia but does not have the other features associated with myotonic dystrophy. Duchenne muscular dystrophy also presents in childhood and has a much shorter life expectancy. Eaton-Lambert syndrome and myasthenia gravis are other conditions that can cause weakness but do not have the characteristic features of myotonic dystrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The on-call consultant is testing the junior members of the team on how to distinguish between the various types of dementia based on symptoms during the medical post-take ward round. What is a typical clinical characteristic of Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: Apathetic mood
Correct Answer: Agnosia
Explanation:Common Symptoms of Different Types of Dementia
Dementia is a group of disorders that affect cognitive abilities, including memory, thinking, and communication. While Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, there are other types that have distinct symptoms. Here are some common symptoms of different types of dementia:
Agnosia: The inability to perceive and utilize information correctly despite retaining the necessary, correct sensory inputs. It is a common feature of Alzheimer’s disease and leads to patients being unable to recognize friends and family or to use everyday objects, e.g. coins or keys.
Pseudobulbar palsy: This is where people are unable to control their facial movements. This does not typically occur in Alzheimer’s disease and is seen in conditions such as progressive supranuclear palsy, Parkinson’s disease, and multiple sclerosis.
Emotional lability: This is a common feature of fronto-temporal dementia (otherwise known as Pick’s dementia).
Apathetic mood: This is typically a feature of Lewy body disease, but it can also present in other forms of dementia.
Marche à petits pas: It is a short, stepping (often rapid) gait, characteristic of diffuse cerebrovascular disease. It is common to patients with vascular dementia, as is pseudobulbar palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A woman presents to Accident and Emergency with a decreased level of consciousness. Her conscious state is formally assessed. She withdraws to a painful stimulus and is mumbling incoherent words randomly, irrespective of people attempting to speak to her in conversation, and her eyes open only in response to painful stimuli.
What is the breakdown of this patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?Your Answer: Motor response 3/6, verbal response 4/5, eye opening response 2/4
Correct Answer: Motor response 4/6, verbal response 3/5, eye opening response 2/4
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale: Interpreting a Patient’s Level of Consciousness
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness. It consists of three scores: best motor response, best verbal response, and eye opening response. Each score is given a value out of a maximum score, and the total score is used to determine the patient’s level of consciousness.
In this case, the patient’s motor response is a score of 4 out of 6, indicating a withdrawal response to pain. The verbal response is a score of 3 out of 5, indicating mumbling words or nonsense. The eye opening response is a score of 2 out of 4, indicating opening to pain. Therefore, the patient’s total GCS score is 9, indicating a comatose state.
It is important to understand the GCS and how to interpret the scores in order to properly assess a patient’s level of consciousness and provide appropriate medical care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A man in his early 50s presents with a painless lump in the right posterior triangle of his neck. He undergoes an excision biopsy under general anaesthetic. After the procedure, he experiences difficulty shrugging his right shoulder.
Which nerve is most likely to have been affected during the surgery?Your Answer: Accessory
Explanation:Nerves of the Neck: Functions and Effects of Damage
The neck is home to several important nerves that control various muscles and sensory functions. Understanding the functions of these nerves and the effects of damage can help diagnose and treat neurological conditions.
Accessory Nerve: This nerve supplies motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to shrug the shoulder due to loss of innervation to the trapezius.
Cervical Plexus: Arising deep to the sternocleidomastoid, the cervical plexus innervates the skin to the back of the head, neck, and collarbones, as well as some anterior neck muscles such as the omohyoid. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.
Hypoglossal Nerve: The hypoglossal nerve innervates all intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.
Vagus Nerve: The vagus nerve is the longest autonomic nerve in the body and interfaces with the parasympathetic control of the heart, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract.
Long Thoracic Nerve of Bell: This nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle. Damage to this nerve leads to winging of the scapula but no issues with shoulder movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that began 12 hours ago. She describes it as ‘an explosion’ and ‘the worst headache of her life’. She denies any vomiting or recent trauma and has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there are no cranial nerve abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. She has no significant medical or family history. The pain has subsided with codeine, and she wants to be discharged.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:Management of Suspected Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Importance of Lumbar Puncture
When a patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis through appropriate investigations. While a CT scan of the head is often the first-line investigation, it may not always detect an SAH. In such cases, a lumbar puncture can be a valuable tool to confirm the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.
Xanthochromia analysis, which detects the presence of oxyhaemoglobin and bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid, can help differentiate between traumatic and non-traumatic causes of blood in the fluid. To ensure the accuracy of the test, the lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, and the third sample should be sent for xanthochromia analysis.
In cases where an SAH is suspected, it is crucial not to discharge the patient without further investigation. Overnight observation may be an option, but it is not ideal as it delays diagnosis and treatment. Similarly, prescribing analgesia may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue.
The best course of action in suspected SAH is to perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate management. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further damage and improve outcomes for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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You are requested to evaluate a 15-year-old Caucasian girl who has been feeling unwell for a few days. She has been experiencing intermittent fevers and chills and complains of extreme fatigue. Suddenly, half an hour before her admission to the hospital, she lost all vision in her left eye.
During the examination, the patient appears pale and unwell. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.5°C, pulse 120/minute, regular, blood pressure 100/55 mmHg, and respiratory rate 22/minute. A pansystolic murmur is audible at the apex and lower left sternal border. Both lungs are clear.
The right pupil reacts normally to light, but there is no reaction from the left pupil, which remains fixed and dilated. The patient has complete loss of vision in the left eye, and the left fundus appears paler than the right, without papilloedema. The only additional finding on examination was a paronychia on her right thumb, and light pressure on the nail bed was very uncomfortable.
Investigations reveal the following results: Hb 109 g/L (115-165), WBC 14.1 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7), Lymphocytes 4.8 ×109/L (1.5-4), Monocytes 0.29 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.01 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), and Platelets 550 ×109/L (150-400).
What is the most crucial investigation to determine the cause of her illness?Your Answer: Blood cultures
Explanation:Complications of Chronic Paronychia
Chronic paronychia can lead to serious complications such as osteomyelitis and endocarditis. The most common causative organism for these complications is Staphylococcus aureus. Endocarditis can cause emboli, which are fragments of vegetation that can block or damage blood vessels in any part of the body. This can result in severe consequences such as blindness, stroke, or paralysis.
To properly assess and manage a patient with chronic paronychia and its complications, several investigations may be necessary. However, the most crucial immediate investigations are blood cultures and echocardiography. These tests can help identify the causative organism and determine the extent of damage to the heart valves. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are the pediatric doctor on call. The nurses ask you to come and review a patient, as she is acting ‘odd’. Her eyes are open spontaneously, she is withdrawing to pain and she is making incomprehensible sounds.
What is this patient’s Glasgow Coma Score (GCS)?Your Answer: 7
Correct Answer: 11
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a total possible score of 15.
A patient with a GCS score of 11 is showing M5 (localising response to pain), E4 (incomprehensible speech), and V2 (eye opening in response to pain). This indicates that the patient is obeying commands, oriented, and has spontaneous eye opening.
It is important to note that the GCS score is just one aspect of a patient’s overall assessment and should be used in conjunction with other clinical findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman attends the antenatal clinic, six weeks pregnant with an unplanned pregnancy. She has a history of grand mal epilepsy for two years and is currently taking carbamazepine. She has not had any seizures for the past six months and wishes to continue with the pregnancy if it is safe for her and the baby. She is concerned about the effects of her anticonvulsant therapy on the fetus and seeks advice on how to proceed. What is the most suitable management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Switch therapy to sodium valproate
Correct Answer: Continue with carbamazepine
Explanation:Managing Epilepsy in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, it is important to manage epilepsy carefully to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus. Uncontrolled seizures pose a greater risk than any potential teratogenic effect of the therapy. However, total plasma concentrations of anticonvulsants tend to fall during pregnancy, so the dose may need to be increased. It is important to explain the potential teratogenic effects of carbamazepine, particularly neural tube defects, and provide the patient with folate supplements to reduce this risk. Screening with alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and second trimester ultrasound are also required. Vitamin K should be given to the mother prior to delivery. Switching therapies is not recommended as it could precipitate seizures in an otherwise stable patient. It is important to note that both phenytoin and valproate are also associated with teratogenic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient with diabetes presents to the Emergency department with complaints of dizziness and vomiting. Upon examination, the patient is alert and oriented, with an irregularly irregular pulse of 80 and a blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg. Nystagmus is observed on left lateral gaze, and the patient's speech is slurred. Intention tremor and past pointing are noted during examination of the limbs, and the patient is ataxic when mobilized. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Subacute combined degeneration of the cord
Correct Answer: Cerebellar CVA
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Vertigo and Cerebellar Signs
This patient presents with a history of vertigo and clinical signs of nystagmus, as well as slurred speech, intention tremor, past pointing, and ataxia. These symptoms suggest an injury to the cerebellum. The patient also has risk factors for cerebrovascular disease, including atrial fibrillation and hypertension.
Labyrinthitis, which is associated with nystagmus, would not produce cerebellar signs. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, on the other hand, would present with confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Subacute combined degeneration of the cord is associated with posterior column signs, loss of vibration sensation, and a positive Romberg’s test. Brainstem signs would be expected with a brainstem CVA and impaired conscious level.
In summary, this patient’s symptoms suggest an injury to the cerebellum, possibly due to cerebrovascular disease. Other potential diagnoses, such as labyrinthitis, Wernicke’s encephalopathy, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, and brainstem CVA, can be ruled out based on the absence of certain symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old man complains of severe headaches behind his right eye that last for 1-2 hours at a time. These headaches can occur daily for up to 6 weeks, but then he can go for months without experiencing one. He also experiences eye redness and runny nose alongside his headaches. Despite trying paracetamol and tramadol prescribed by another doctor, he has not found any relief. The pain is so intense that he cannot sleep and if he gets a headache during the day, he is unable to work or socialize. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster headache is a type of headache that mainly affects young men. It is characterized by severe pain behind one eye that can last for up to two hours and occurs repeatedly for a certain period before disappearing for up to a year. Treatment options include inhaled oxygen or sumatriptan, as simple painkillers are usually ineffective.
Tension-type headache, on the other hand, is a headache that feels like a tight band around the head and is not accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, or functional impairment. It can be treated with simple painkillers like paracetamol.
Migraine is a recurring headache that may be preceded by an aura and is often accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, and functional impairment. Treatment options include simple painkillers and triptans for more severe attacks.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a medical emergency that presents as a sudden, severe headache often described as the worst of someone’s life. It requires urgent evaluation with CT brain and possible lumbar puncture to assess the cerebrospinal fluid. A ruptured berry aneurysm is a common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage.
Meningitis, on the other hand, is associated with fever and systemic symptoms and does not present episodically over a chronic period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side of her mouth and inability to raise the left corner of her mouth when she smiles. During the examination, the doctor observes dryness and scaling on her left cornea. Which nerve is likely affected in this case?
Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve
Correct Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:The Facial Nerve: Anatomy and Function
The facial nerve is a crucial nerve responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. It originates from the pons as two separate motor and sensory roots before joining to form the facial nerve. Along its path, it gives off branches that provide parasympathetic fibers to glands, motor fibers to muscles, and sensory fibers to the tongue. The nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and branches into various muscles of the face, controlling facial expression. A lesion to the facial nerve can result in loss of motor control of facial muscles. It is important to differentiate the facial nerve from other nerves, such as the trigeminal nerve, maxillary nerve, occipital nerve, and lacrimal nerve, which have different functions and innervations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes to the Neurology Clinic with complaints of painful unilateral visual disturbance, ataxia, and sensory deficit. She is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) after undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and is started on steroid treatment, followed by disease-modifying therapy. Her disease is stable after six months, and she can manage her daily activities without significant problems. She used to drive a car but has not done so since her diagnosis. She is now curious about her driving situation.
What are the most appropriate steps to take regarding her driving circumstances?Your Answer: She must inform the DVLA and cannot drive for one year since her most recent relapse
Correct Answer: She must inform the DVLA and may continue to drive
Explanation:Driving with Multiple Sclerosis: Informing the DVLA
Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is a chronic neurological disorder that may affect vehicle control due to impaired coordination and muscle strength. It is essential to inform the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) upon diagnosis. The official guidance states that patients with MS may continue to drive as long as safe vehicle control is maintained. However, it is necessary to update the DVLA if circumstances change. There is no arbitrary timeframe for inability to drive, and it is assessed individually based on the state of the patient’s chronic disease. It is not appropriate to base this on relapses as patients may relapse at different time periods and tend not to return to baseline function in relapsing-remitting MS. Failure to inform the DVLA can result in legal consequences. Therefore, it is crucial to inform the DVLA and follow their guidelines to ensure safe driving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Correct
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As a Foundation Year 2 in general practice, you see a 35-year-old diabetic woman who complains of numbness and tingling in some of her fingers in her right hand. During examination, you observe that she has reduced sensation in her thumb, index and middle fingers in this hand. She also has some weakness in these fingers when she tries to flex them and make a fist, and there is some thenar muscle wasting. Her pulse is 80 bpm with a normal volume, and otherwise her skin, joints and bones appear totally normal.
What is the most likely condition that she is suffering from?Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Hand and Wrist Conditions: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Other Possibilities
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition where the median nerve is compressed, leading to symptoms such as tingling, numbness, altered sensation, and pain in the thumb, index finger, and half of the middle finger. This condition can be caused by various risk factors, including obesity, overuse of hand and wrist, wrist trauma, and pregnancy. Diagnosis can be made through tests such as Tinel’s and Phalen’s tests, and treatment options range from conservative measures to surgical intervention.
Other possible hand and wrist conditions include radial nerve palsy, peripheral neuropathy, cubital tunnel syndrome, and rheumatoid arthritis. Radial nerve palsy presents with wrist drop and an inability to extend the wrist, while peripheral neuropathy typically affects both upper and lower limbs in a glove and stocking distribution of anesthesia. Cubital tunnel syndrome is caused by entrapment of the ulnar nerve and affects the ring and fifth finger, while rheumatoid arthritis tends to be symmetrical and affects the small joints of the hand. Understanding these conditions and their unique features can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in the right eye. He intermittently loses vision in the right eye, which he describes as a curtain vertically across his visual field. Each episode lasts about two or three minutes. He denies eye pain, eye discharge or headaches.
His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.
On examination, his pupils are of normal size and reactive to light. There is no scalp tenderness. Blood test results are pending, and his electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes.
A provisional diagnosis of amaurosis fugax (AG) is being considered.
Given this diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?Your Answer: Prednisolone
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Transient Vision Loss: Aspirin, Prednisolone, Warfarin, High-Flow Oxygen, and Propranolol
Transient vision loss can be a symptom of various conditions, including giant-cell arthritis (temporal arthritis) and transient retinal ischaemia. The appropriate treatment depends on the underlying cause.
For transient retinal ischaemia, which is typically caused by atherosclerosis of the ipsilateral carotid artery, antiplatelet therapy with aspirin is recommended. Patients should also be evaluated for cardiovascular risk factors and considered for ultrasound of the carotid arteries.
Prednisolone is used to treat giant-cell arthritis, which is characterised by sudden mononuclear loss of vision, jaw claudication, and scalp tenderness. However, if the patient does not have scalp tenderness or jaw claudication, oral steroids would not be indicated.
Warfarin may be considered in patients with underlying atrial fibrillation and a high risk of embolic stroke. However, it should typically be bridged with a heparin derivative to avoid pro-thrombotic effects in the first 48-72 hours of use.
High-flow oxygen is used to treat conditions like cluster headaches, which present with autonomic manifestations. If the patient does not have any autonomic features, high-flow oxygen would not be indicated.
Propranolol can be used in the prophylactic management of migraines, which can present with transient visual loss. However, given the patient’s atherosclerotic risk factors and description of visual loss, transient retinal ischaemia is a more likely diagnosis.
In summary, the appropriate treatment for transient vision loss depends on the underlying cause and should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a 10-year history of diabetes wakes up with weakness in his right leg. Upon examination, there is weakness in ankle eversion and inversion and loss of dorsiflexion in the big toe. Knee reflexes are normal, and ankle jerks are present with reinforcement. He has also experienced a loss of sensation in his first toe. Where is the lesion located?
Your Answer: Right common peroneal nerve
Correct Answer: Right L5 root
Explanation:Nerve Lesions and Their Effects on Motor and Sensory Function in the Lower Limb
The human body is a complex system of nerves and muscles that work together to allow movement and sensation. When a nerve is damaged or compressed, it can lead to a variety of symptoms depending on the location and severity of the lesion. In the lower limb, there are several nerves that can be affected, each with its own unique pattern of motor and sensory deficits.
Right L5 Root Lesion
A lesion at the L5 nerve root will cause weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, eversion, and inversion, as well as loss of sensation over the medial border of the right foot. This specific pattern of motor and sensory pathology is only possible with an L5 nerve root lesion.
Right Common Peroneal Nerve Palsy
Damage to the common peroneal nerve will result in weakness of ankle dorsiflexors, foot evertor (but not invertor) and extensor hallucis longus, and sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot, the medial border of the foot, and the anterolateral side of the lower leg. The ankle reflex will be preserved.
Right Femoral Nerve Lesion
A lesion at the femoral nerve, which incorporates roots L2, L3, and L4, will cause weakness of the hip flexors and knee extensors, as well as loss of the knee reflex.
Right Sciatic Nerve Lesion
The sciatic nerve, the largest nerve in the human body, is made from roots L4 to S2. Damage to this nerve will result in weakness in all muscles below the knee, loss of the ankle reflex, and sensory loss over the foot and the posterolateral aspect of the lower leg.
Right Lateral Cutaneous Nerve of the Thigh Lesion
The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh has no motor supply and causes sensory loss over the lateral aspect of the thigh.
In conclusion, understanding the effects of nerve lesions on motor and sensory function in the lower limb is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What are the possible reasons for having a small pupil?
Your Answer: Holmes-Adie pupil
Correct Answer: Pontine haemorrhage
Explanation:Causes of Small and Dilated Pupils
Small pupils can be caused by various factors such as Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, drugs, and poisons like opiates and organophosphates. Horner’s syndrome is a condition that affects the nerves in the face and eyes, resulting in a small pupil. Aging can also cause the pupils to become smaller due to changes in the muscles that control the size of the pupils. Pontine hemorrhage, a type of stroke, can also lead to small pupils. Argyll Robertson pupil is a rare condition where the pupils do not respond to light but do constrict when focusing on a near object. Lastly, drugs and poisons like opiates and organophosphates can cause small pupils.
On the other hand, dilated pupils can also be caused by various factors such as Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil, third nerve palsy, drugs, and poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol. Holmes-Adie pupil is a condition where one pupil is larger than the other and reacts slowly to light. Third nerve palsy is a condition where the nerve that controls the movement of the eye is damaged, resulting in a dilated pupil. Drugs and poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol can also cause dilated pupils. It is important to identify the cause of small or dilated pupils as it can be a sign of an underlying medical condition or poisoning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 26-year-old female presents to the hospital with a sudden and severe occipital headache while decorating at home. She experienced vomiting and a brief loss of consciousness. Upon examination, her Glasgow coma scale (GCS) score is 15, and she has a normal physical exam except for an abrasion on her right temple. She is afebrile, has a blood pressure of 146/84 mmHg, and a pulse rate of 70 beats/minute. What investigation would be the most beneficial?
Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) brain scan
Explanation:Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
The sudden onset of a severe headache in a young woman, accompanied by vomiting and loss of consciousness, is indicative of subarachnoid haemorrhage. The most appropriate diagnostic test is a CT scan of the brain to detect any subarachnoid blood. However, if the CT scan is normal, a lumbar puncture should be performed as it can detect approximately 10% of cases of subarachnoid haemorrhage that may have been missed by the CT scan. It is important to diagnose subarachnoid haemorrhage promptly as it can lead to serious complications such as brain damage or death. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying the symptoms and conducting the appropriate diagnostic tests to ensure timely treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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