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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. Her oxygen saturation is 90%. After receiving oxygen, she experiences ventricular fibrillation and has a GCS of 3. ALS is initiated. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and multiple pulmonary emboli. What additional medication should be considered for her management during ALS?

      Your Answer: Adenosine

      Correct Answer: Alteplase

      Explanation:

      During CPR, thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism (PE) is suspected. Alteplase is a suitable option for advanced life support (ALS) in such cases. This is particularly relevant for patients who present with symptoms suggestive of a PE and have a medical history of previous pulmonary emboli. Thrombolysis can be a life-saving intervention for these patients.

      Adenosine is not appropriate for this situation as it is a class 5 antiarrhythmic used mainly for supraventricular tachycardia. Apixaban is an anticoagulant that is useful for long-term treatment and prevention of pulmonary emboli, but it is not suitable for immediate use in a hemodynamically unstable patient requiring advanced life support. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that is used in peripheral arterial disease and acute coronary syndrome, but it has no role in the acute treatment of a life-threatening pulmonary embolism.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      97.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A characteristic clinical finding of opioid overdose is: ...

    Correct

    • A characteristic clinical finding of opioid overdose is:

      Your Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Opioid Overdose: The Opioid Overdose Triad

      Opioid overdose is a serious and potentially life-threatening condition that can result from the misuse or abuse of opioids. It is important to recognize the symptoms of opioid overdose in order to provide prompt and effective treatment. The opioid overdose triad is a set of three hallmark symptoms that are commonly seen in opioid overdose: decreased level of consciousness, pinpoint pupils, and respiratory depression.

      Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is a common side effect of opioid overdose. However, hypothermia is not typically seen in opioid overdose and is more commonly associated with barbiturate overdose. Tachypnoea, or rapid respiration, is not a symptom of opioid overdose; instead, respiratory depression, or slow and shallow breathing, is a key feature. Prolonged hypoxia from respiratory depression can lead to permanent damage to the central nervous system or even death, even if treatment with naloxone is given. It is important to note that alcohol can also cause respiratory depression and increase the risk of overdose when taken with opioids.

      Sweating and lacrimation, or excessive sweating and tearing, are frequently seen in early opioid withdrawal but are not symptoms of overdose. Pupillary constriction, or pinpoint pupils, is a hallmark feature of opioid overdose, while pupillary dilatation is not.

      Recognizing the symptoms of opioid overdose, including the opioid overdose triad, is crucial for prompt and effective treatment. If you suspect someone is experiencing an opioid overdose, call for emergency medical assistance immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal...

    Correct

    • You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. She had an IUD inserted as emergency contraception two weeks ago after having unprotected intercourse 6 days prior. The pain is described as severe dysmenorrhoea and is more pronounced in the right iliac fossa. She has been experiencing continuous bleeding for the past 6 days, whereas her normal menstrual cycle lasts 28 days with 4 days of bleeding. She has no issues with eating or drinking. On examination, her temperature is 36.5ºC, and her blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg. There is mild tenderness in the right iliac fossa with no guarding. Urine dip shows no abnormalities, and urine hCG is negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Side-effects of IUD

      Explanation:

      The woman’s symptoms are most likely caused by the intrauterine device (IUD), which is known to increase the intensity and discomfort of periods. Ectopic pregnancy and miscarriage are unlikely as the pregnancy test was negative. A urinary tract infection is also unlikely as the urine dip was normal. Although appendicitis should be considered, it does not explain the vaginal bleeding, and the woman’s normal appetite, lack of fever, and mild examination results do not support this diagnosis.

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      79.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm erythematous...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm erythematous skin lesion on her upper arm after experiencing a high fever of 39ºC, headache, and vomiting for the past 48 hours. A skin biopsy revealed a beta-haemolytic group A streptococcal infection in the upper dermis. What is the most appropriate term to describe this condition?

      Your Answer: Erysipelas

      Explanation:

      Erysipelas is mainly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, which belongs to the beta-haemolytic group A streptococci. The rash is a result of an endotoxin produced by the bacteria, rather than the bacteria itself. The absence of subcutaneous tissue involvement is a distinguishing feature of erysipelas.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, skin infections, ear, nose, and throat infections, genital infections, and gastrointestinal infections are some of the most common infections that require antibiotic treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidelines for the appropriate use of antibiotics for these infections.

      For respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis, community-acquired pneumonia, and hospital-acquired pneumonia, antibiotics such as amoxicillin, tetracycline, clarithromycin, co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, piperacillin with tazobactam, ceftazidime, or ciprofloxacin are recommended depending on the severity and type of infection.

      For urinary tract infections, lower urinary tract infections can be treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis requires broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis can be treated with quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, erysipelas, and animal or human bites require antibiotics such as topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, erythromycin, doxycycline, clarithromycin, or metronidazole depending on the severity and type of infection.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, otitis media, otitis externa, periapical or periodontal abscess, and acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis require antibiotics such as phenoxymethylpenicillin, amoxicillin, erythromycin, or flucloxacillin depending on the severity and type of infection.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, pelvic inflammatory disease, syphilis, and bacterial vaginosis require antibiotics such as intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline, azithromycin, ofloxacin, metronidazole, or benzathine benzylpenicillin depending on the severity and type of infection.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis require antibiotics such as oral vancomycin, oral fidaxomicin, clarithrom

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      110.3
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and lack...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and lack of energy. She has a 1-year history of heavy menstrual bleeding with excessive blood loss. She is clinically anaemic.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 102 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Haematocrit 28% 36–47%
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 70 fl 80–100 fl
      Mean cell haemoglobin (MCH) 25 pg 28–32 pg
      Mean corpuscular haemoglobin volume (MCHC) 300 g/l 320–350 g/d
      White cell count (WCC) 7.5 × 109/l 4.0–11.0× 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 400× 109/l 150–400× 109/l
      What is the most appropriate dietary advice for this patient?
      Select the SINGLE advice option from the list below.

      Your Answer: She should increase her intake of vitamin C-rich and iron-rich food

      Explanation:

      To address her iron-deficiency anaemia, the patient should consume more foods rich in vitamin C and iron. Vitamin C can increase iron absorption by up to 10 times and maintain iron in its ferrous form. However, she should avoid breakfast cereals and white breads as they are often fortified with iron. Tea should also be avoided during meals or when taking iron supplements as it contains tannin, which reduces iron absorption. While a vegetarian diet can still provide non-haem iron, it is important to consume a variety of iron-rich plant-based foods. A gluten-free diet is only necessary if coeliac disease is present, which is unlikely in this case as the patient’s iron-deficiency anaemia is likely due to menorrhagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      50
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man presents with gradually worsening exertional dyspnoea and a dry cough...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with gradually worsening exertional dyspnoea and a dry cough over the past year. He quit smoking 25 cigarettes/day about 25 years ago. Upon examination, his oxygen saturation is 96% on room air, respiratory rate is 16/min, and there are fine bibasal crackles. Finger clubbing is also present. The following investigations were conducted:
      - B-type natriuretic peptide: 90 pg/ml (< 100pg/ml)
      - ECG: sinus rhythm, 68/min
      - Spirometry:
      - FEV1: 1.6 L (51% of predicted)
      - FVC: 1.7 L (40% of predicted)
      - FEV1/FVC: 95%

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      A common scenario for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis involves a man between the ages of 50 and 70 who experiences worsening shortness of breath during physical activity. Other symptoms may include clubbing of the fingers and a restrictive pattern on spirometry testing. However, a normal B-type natriuretic peptide level suggests that heart failure is not the cause of these symptoms.

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.

      The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.

      Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.

      The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      121.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man visits his family doctor complaining of recurrent episodes of severe...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits his family doctor complaining of recurrent episodes of severe facial pain that have been occurring for the past 6 months. He reports experiencing sharp shooting pains in his right cheek and teeth, which worsen during the cold winter months and when he brushes his teeth. Despite visiting the dentist multiple times, no abnormality has been found. His neurological and ENT examination is normal.
      What is the most suitable primary care treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Comparing Medications for Trigeminal Neuralgia Treatment

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition characterized by severe facial pain that occurs in one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve. To treat this condition, anticonvulsant medications are often prescribed. Here, we compare five commonly used medications for trigeminal neuralgia treatment.

      Carbamazepine is the recommended first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). Topiramate is not typically used for trigeminal neuralgia, as it is primarily indicated for migraine prophylaxis. Amitriptyline is recommended for neuropathic pain, but not specifically for trigeminal neuralgia. Duloxetine is also indicated for neuropathic pain, but not for trigeminal neuralgia. Gabapentin is recommended for neuropathic pain, but not for trigeminal neuralgia, as carbamazepine is the preferred first-line treatment for this condition.

      In summary, carbamazepine is the recommended first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia, while the other medications mentioned may be more appropriate for other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old woman has been asked to come back for a follow-up cervical...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has been asked to come back for a follow-up cervical smear by her GP. She had her routine cervical smear done a year ago which revealed the presence of high-risk HPV but no abnormal cytology. Her follow-up cervical smear still shows positive for high-risk HPV with no cytological abnormalities.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 12 months

      Explanation:

      If the 1st repeat smear at 12 months is still positive for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the correct course of action is to repeat the smear 12 months later (i.e. at 24 months). Colposcopy is not indicated in this case, as it would only be necessary if this was her 3rd successive annual cervical smear that is still positive for hrHPV but with no cytological abnormalities. Repeating the cervical smear after 3 months is also not necessary, as this is only indicated if the first smear is inadequate. Similarly, repeating the cervical smear in 3 years is not appropriate, as hrHPV has been detected. Repeating the cervical smear after 6 months is also not necessary, as this is usually done as a test of cure following treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      114.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 12-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner with complaints of a sore throat,...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner with complaints of a sore throat, fever and cervical lymphadenopathy. The doctor prescribes amoxicillin. After four days of taking the antibiotics, the boy develops a highly itchy, maculopapular rash. His blood tests from four days ago reveal a lymphocytosis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glandular fever

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Glandular Fever: Understanding Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis, is a viral illness that can cause a range of symptoms, including fever, sore throat, fatigue, and swollen lymph nodes. One common symptom is the development of a maculopapular rash, which can be triggered by taking penicillin. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and rule out conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis, allergy to penicillin, herpes zoster, and streptococcal throat infection.

      To confirm a diagnosis of glandular fever, healthcare providers may perform a full blood count to check for lymphocytosis and atypical lymphocytes. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) serology may also be tested in certain cases. Treatment for glandular fever is primarily supportive, and patients are advised to avoid contact sports to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      By understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of glandular fever, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and manage this viral illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 12-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a history of headaches for...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a history of headaches for the past 6 months. He reports experiencing these headaches once every few weeks, with each episode lasting for a day. Prior to the onset of the headache, he sees zig-zag lines. The headaches are typically on the right side of his head, accompanied by nausea and occasional vomiting. He finds some relief by sleeping in a dark, quiet room. Apart from this, he is healthy.
      What is the initial approach to managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan nasal spray

      Correct Answer: Oral ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for paediatric migraines is ibuprofen. Sumatriptan nasal spray is only approved for use in children over the age of 12, and oral sumatriptan is not approved for those under 18. Codeine and oramorph are not recommended for treating migraines in children. Indomethacin is also not typically used for paediatric migraines.

      Understanding Headaches in Children

      Headaches are a common occurrence in children, with up to 50% of 7-year-olds and 80% of 15-year-olds experiencing at least one headache. Migraine without aura is the most common cause of primary headache in children, with a strong female preponderance after puberty. The International Headache Society has produced criteria for diagnosing pediatric migraine without aura, which includes headache attacks lasting 4-72 hours, with at least two of four specific features and accompanying symptoms such as nausea and vomiting.

      When it comes to acute management, ibuprofen is considered more effective than paracetamol for pediatric migraine. Triptans may be used in children over 12 years old, but follow-up is required, and only sumatriptan nasal spray is licensed for use in young people. However, oral triptans are not currently licensed for those under 18 years old, and side effects may include tingling, heat, and pressure sensations.

      Prophylaxis for pediatric migraine is limited, with no clear consensus guidelines. Pizotifen and propranolol are recommended as first-line preventatives, while valproate, topiramate, and amitriptyline are considered second-line preventatives. Tension-type headache is the second most common cause of headache in children, with diagnostic criteria including at least 10 previous headache episodes lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days, with specific pain characteristics and the absence of nausea or vomiting.

      In summary, headaches in children are common, and migraine without aura is the most common primary headache. Acute management includes ibuprofen and triptans, while prophylaxis is limited. Tension-type headache is also a common cause of headache in children. It is important to seek medical advice if headaches are frequent or severe, or if there are any concerning symptoms such as neurological deficits or changes in behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      46.6
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old construction worker visits his doctor complaining of hay fever symptoms. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old construction worker visits his doctor complaining of hay fever symptoms. He is experiencing frequent sneezing and a runny nose and is seeking medication to alleviate his discomfort. Considering his job, which antihistamine would be safe for him to use?

      Your Answer: Cinnarizine

      Correct Answer: Loratadine

      Explanation:

      Loratadine is an antihistamine that does not cause drowsiness. It works by targeting histamine H1 receptors to relieve allergy symptoms like sneezing and runny nose. As the patient is a heavy goods vehicle driver, it is advisable to recommend a non-sedating antihistamine like loratadine. Chlorphenamine, on the other hand, is a sedating antihistamine used in anaphylaxis treatment and is not suitable for the patient’s occupation. Cimetidine inhibits stomach acid production and does not help with allergy symptoms. Cinnarizine is a sedating antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting and may not be effective for the patient’s condition. Diphenhydramine is also a sedating antihistamine and not recommended for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of seasonal 'watering eyes' for the...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of seasonal 'watering eyes' for the past 2 years. His symptoms have worsened this year. He complains of bilateral itchy eyes and difficulty in doing school work due to excessive tearing. There is no history of nasal symptoms, asthma or eczema. On examination, there is conjunctival redness, bulging tarsal conjunctivae and mild eyelid swelling. What is the initial management approach for this patient?

      Your Answer: Topical antihistamines

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by this patient are indicative of allergic conjunctivitis. The initial treatment approach for this condition involves the use of topical antihistamines. In case of additional symptoms like rhinosinusitis, oral antihistamines may also be prescribed.

      Understanding Allergic Conjunctivitis

      Allergic conjunctivitis is a condition that can occur on its own, but is often associated with hay fever. It is characterized by bilateral symptoms such as conjunctival erythema and swelling, as well as itchiness and swelling of the eyelids. Those with a history of atopy may be more prone to developing allergic conjunctivitis, which can be seasonal (due to pollen) or perennial (due to exposure to dust mites, washing powder, or other allergens).

      When it comes to managing allergic conjunctivitis, first-line treatment typically involves the use of topical or systemic antihistamines. If these prove ineffective, second-line treatment options such as topical mast-cell stabilizers like Sodium cromoglicate and nedocromil may be recommended. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for allergic conjunctivitis, individuals can take steps to manage their condition and reduce discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      33.8
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  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of cough, fever and left-sided...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of cough, fever and left-sided pleuritic pain. On examination she has a temperature of 38.5 °C, a respiratory rate of 37/min, a blood pressure of 110/80 mm/Hg and a pulse rate of 110/min. Oxygen saturations are 95%. She has basal crepitations and dullness to percussion at the left lung base.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchopneumonia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Cough and Fever: Bronchopneumonia vs. Other Conditions

      Bronchopneumonia is a common condition that presents with a cough and fever, along with other symptoms such as sputum production, dyspnea, and pleuritic pain. Examination findings may include decreased breath sounds and focal chest signs. A chest radiograph can confirm the diagnosis. In primary care, a CRB-65 score is used to assess mortality risk and determine where to treat the patient: one point each for acute confusion, respiratory rate (RR) ≥30/min, systolic blood pressure (BP) <90 mmHg or diastolic BP <60 mmHg, age >65 years).
      CRB-65 score Mortality risk (%) – Where to treat
      0 <1 At home
      1-2 1-10 Hospital advised, particularly score of 2
      3-4 >10 Hospital advised, may require stay in intensive therapy unit (ITU).

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include pneumothorax, pulmonary embolism, malignant mesothelioma, and tuberculosis. However, these conditions have distinct features that differentiate them from bronchopneumonia. For example, pneumothorax involves partial or full collapse of a lung, while pulmonary embolism results from obstruction of one or more of the pulmonary arteries. Malignant mesothelioma is a cancer that affects the pleura and peritoneum, and tuberculosis usually presents with a persistent productive cough, weight loss, night sweats, fevers, lymphadenopathy, and general malaise.

      It is important to consider these differentials when evaluating a patient with cough and fever, and to use appropriate diagnostic tools to confirm the diagnosis and determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      217.7
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  • Question 14 - You receive a call for guidance. The parents of a 20-year-old man have...

    Correct

    • You receive a call for guidance. The parents of a 20-year-old man have just received a message from their son who is currently backpacking in Vietnam. He was bitten by a dog earlier in the day while staying in a rural community. Before embarking on his journey, he received a rabies vaccination as he planned to visit many rural areas. What advice should you give?

      Your Answer: He should urgently seek local medical attention for consideration of booster vaccination + antibiotic therapy

      Explanation:

      If left untreated, rabies is almost always fatal. Although it may be difficult to recall all the countries with a high incidence of rabies, it is evident that being bitten by a dog in a rural area poses a risk. It is imperative that he seeks immediate medical attention as a booster vaccination is necessary to reduce the likelihood of contracting rabies. Delaying treatment by flying home is not advisable.

      Understanding Rabies: A Deadly Viral Disease

      Rabies is a viral disease that causes acute encephalitis. It is caused by a bullet-shaped capsid RNA rhabdovirus, specifically a lyssavirus. The disease is primarily transmitted through dog bites, but it can also be transmitted through bites from bats, raccoons, and skunks. Once the virus enters the body, it travels up the nerve axons towards the central nervous system in a retrograde fashion.

      Rabies is a deadly disease that still kills around 25,000-50,000 people worldwide each year, with the majority of cases occurring in poor rural areas of Africa and Asia. Children are particularly at risk. The disease has several features, including a prodrome of headache, fever, and agitation, as well as hydrophobia, which causes water-provoking muscle spasms, and hypersalivation. Negri bodies, which are cytoplasmic inclusion bodies found in infected neurons, are also a characteristic feature of the disease.

      In developed countries like the UK, there is considered to be no risk of developing rabies following an animal bite. However, in at-risk countries, it is important to take immediate action following an animal bite. The wound should be washed, and if an individual is already immunized, then two further doses of vaccine should be given. If not previously immunized, then human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) should be given along with a full course of vaccination. If left untreated, the disease is nearly always fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      39.3
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  • Question 15 - Which medication is most effective in preventing Meniere's disease attacks? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication is most effective in preventing Meniere's disease attacks?

      Your Answer: Prochlorperazine

      Correct Answer: Betahistine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Meniere’s Disease

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is still unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The most prominent symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Other symptoms include a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease shows that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients are left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. To manage the condition, an ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis. Patients should inform the DVLA, and the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. During acute attacks, buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine may be administered, and admission to the hospital may be required. To prevent future attacks, betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises may be of benefit.

      In summary, Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and can cause recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. While the cause is unknown, there are management strategies available to help control symptoms and prevent future attacks. It is important for patients to seek medical attention and inform the DVLA to ensure their safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      9.3
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of fatigue and increased urination....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of fatigue and increased urination. The symptoms began two months ago and have been progressively worsening. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is classified as morbidly obese. Upon conducting a fasting glucose test, the results show 8.2 mmol/L. The doctor decides to measure the patient's C-peptide levels, which are found to be low. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Impaired fasting glucose

      Correct Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Patients with T1DM typically have low C-peptide levels.

      The patient in question is exhibiting classic symptoms of diabetes, including polyuria and tiredness, and their fasting glucose level is 8.2 mmol/L, which meets the diagnostic criteria for diabetes according to the World Health Organization. Given their age and risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend testing for C-peptide levels. C-peptide is a byproduct of proinsulin cleavage into insulin, and low levels indicate a lack of insulin production, which is characteristic of T1DM.

      Impaired fasting glucose is an incorrect answer because the patient’s fasting glucose level is above the diagnostic threshold for diabetes. Maturity-onset diabetes of the young is also incorrect because it is an autosomal-dominant condition that typically presents as T2DM in patients under 25, and C-peptide levels remain normal. Suggests diabetes mellitus but further testing is needed is also incorrect because the patient’s symptoms and fasting glucose level meet the diagnostic criteria for diabetes.

      Diagnosis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

      Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically diagnosed through symptoms and signs that are similar to those seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), although the diagnosis may take longer. Symptoms of DKA include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and an acetone-smelling breath. To confirm a diagnosis, urine should be dipped for glucose and ketones, and fasting glucose and random glucose levels should be measured. C-peptide levels are typically low in patients with T1DM, and diabetes-specific autoantibodies can be useful in distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD), islet cell antibodies (ICA), insulin autoantibodies (IAA), and insulinoma-associated-2 autoantibodies (IA-2A) are commonly used.

      The diagnostic criteria for T1DM include a fasting glucose level greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or a random glucose level greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l if the patient is symptomatic. If the patient is asymptomatic, the criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions. To distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes, age of onset, speed of onset, weight of the patient, and symptoms should be considered. NICE recommends further investigation for adults suspected of having T1DM if the clinical presentation includes atypical features. Conversely, for patients suspected of having type 2 diabetes, if they respond well to oral hypoglycaemic agents and are over the age of 40 years, further testing for T1DM may not be necessary.

      Example scenarios include a 15-year-old with weight loss and lethargy, a 38-year-old obese man with polyuria, a 52-year-old woman with polyuria and polydipsia, and a 59-year-old obese man with polyuria. The appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old female patient contacts her GP seeking guidance on folic acid supplements....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient contacts her GP seeking guidance on folic acid supplements. She and her partner are attempting to conceive, and she has never been pregnant before. She is in good health overall, with a history of asthma that she manages with a salbutamol inhaler as needed. Her BMI is 31 kg/m2, and she has no notable family medical history. What recommendations should she receive?

      Your Answer: 400mcg folic acid from now until the 12th week of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: 5mg folic acid from now until the 12th week of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with obesity (BMI >30 kg/m2) are recommended to take a high dose of 5mg folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. This is because obesity puts them at a higher risk of neural tube defects. The suggestion of taking 400 micrograms would be for women who are not at a higher risk. Therefore, the other answers provided are incorrect.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      136.7
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a gradual decrease in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a gradual decrease in the hearing from her right ear. On further questioning, she reports that occasionally she hears a buzzing sound in this ear, but denies any episodes of dizziness or vomiting. Otoscopy of her right ear only reveals a reddish tympanic membrane. Rinne’s test is negative on the right, Weber’s test lateralises to the right. Which of the following describes the best management option for this condition?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin 7-day course

      Correct Answer: Hearing aid

      Explanation:

      The best option for managing the patient’s unilateral conductive hearing loss, tinnitus, and pinkish tympanic membrane is either a hearing aid or stapedectomy. The tuning fork tests indicate left-sided conductive hearing loss, which is consistent with otosclerosis. This condition is characterized by the replacement of normal bone with vascular spongy bone, leading to progressive conductive hearing loss due to stapes fixation at the oval window. Amoxicillin, betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, ear syringing, and prochlorperazine are not effective treatments for otosclerosis. Amoxicillin is used to manage acute otitis media, betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises are used to prevent acute attacks in Ménière’s disease, ear syringing is used to remove impacted ear wax, and prochlorperazine is used to decrease dizziness in viral labyrinthitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      98.9
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  • Question 19 - As a physician on an elderly care ward, you are tasked with conducting...

    Incorrect

    • As a physician on an elderly care ward, you are tasked with conducting a cognitive assessment of Harold, an 82-year-old man who is suspected of having dementia. After administering the Addenbrooke's Cognitive Exam-3 (ACE-3), Harold scores 68 out of 100 with a global deficit in all domains tested. Based on this information, what condition do you suspect Harold may have?

      Your Answer: Vascular dementia

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer's dementia

      Explanation:

      The Addenbrookes Cognitive Exam (ACE-3) is a reliable tool for detecting dementia, with a score of 82 or less indicating a strong likelihood of dementia. The exam assesses five domains: Memory, Attention, Fluency, Language, and Visuospatial. Alzheimer’s dementia typically results in a global deficit across all domains, with later deficits in memory and attention due to damage in the medial temporal lobe. Frontotemporal dementia primarily affects fluency and language due to damage in the frontal lobe. Vascular dementia deficits vary depending on the location and severity of previous strokes, and there is no consistent pattern seen in ACE-3 examinations. Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a precursor to many forms of dementia, with an ACE-3 score of 82-88 indicating MCI. In this scenario, the patient’s score of 68 rules out MCI as a diagnosis.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. The risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease include increasing age, family history of the disease, and certain genetic mutations. Inherited forms of the disease are caused by mutations in the amyloid precursor protein, presenilin 1, and presenilin 2 genes. Additionally, the apoprotein E allele E4 and Caucasian ethnicity are also risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, cortical plaques and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles are present due to the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Furthermore, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are partly made from a protein called tau, which interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder is experiencing an acute...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder is experiencing an acute state of confusion. Which of the following medications is most likely to cause lithium toxicity in this patient?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Thiazides can cause lithium toxicity, while sodium bicarbonate and aminophylline can lower plasma levels of lithium.

      Understanding Lithium Toxicity

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.

      Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.

      In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old woman with suspected dementia is referred by her General Practitioner to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with suspected dementia is referred by her General Practitioner to the Memory Clinic. A dementia blood screen is performed and is normal.
      What is an indication for performing structural neuroimaging (CT or MRI head) in the workup for investigating patients with dementia?

      Your Answer: Patient is > 75-years old

      Correct Answer: Ruling out reversible causes of cognitive decline

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Neuroimaging in the Diagnosis of Dementia

      Neuroimaging plays a crucial role in the diagnosis of dementia and ruling out reversible causes of cognitive decline. Structural imaging should be offered to assist with subtype diagnosis and exclude other reversible conditions unless dementia is well established and the subtype is clear. In primary care, a blood screen is usually sent to exclude reversible causes, while in secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. Focal neurology and cardiovascular abnormalities are not indications for performing structural imaging of the brain. However, neuroimaging is required in the workup of dementia in all age groups, including patients over 75 years old and those under 65 years old with suspected early-onset dementia. The 2011 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in the investigation of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history of dysuria and lower abdominal pain. She has had two sexual partners over the last three months and uses the combined oral contraceptive pill as contraception. She has noticed some spotting and post-coital bleeding since her last period and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge for the last few days. There is no past medical history of note and no known allergies.
      On examination, she has lower abdominal tenderness but no guarding or palpable organomegaly. On examination, there is a thick yellow vaginal discharge and mildly tender palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Sexually Transmitted Diseases

      Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) can present with a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common STD is Chlamydia trachomatis, which can be asymptomatic or present with dysuria, abdominal pain, and vaginal discharge. Endocervical and high vaginal swabs should be taken, and a urinalysis and pregnancy test should be completed. The first-line treatment for C. trachomatis is doxycycline.

      Ceftriaxone is indicated for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections, which can present similarly to chlamydia with discharge and dysuria. However, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is C. trachomatis, making doxycycline the correct answer.

      Benzylpenicillin is used in patients with suspected syphilis infection secondary to the spirochaete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages with primary syphilis presenting as a painless chancre with local, non-tender lymphadenopathy prior to secondary disease with fever and a rash. This is not seen here, making syphilis a less likely diagnosis.

      Metronidazole is the recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis. However, it is not used in the treatment of C. trachomatis.

      Trimethoprim would be the recommended treatment if this patient was diagnosed with a urinary-tract infection (UTI). While the history of lower abdominal pain and dysuria are suggestive of a UTI, a foul-smelling vaginal discharge points towards an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      233.9
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  • Question 23 - An 80-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a history of vomiting...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a history of vomiting blood earlier in the day. What is the most significant factor indicating an upper gastrointestinal bleed?

      Your Answer: Urea = 15.4 mmol/l on a background of normal renal function

      Explanation:

      A temporary and disproportionate increase in blood urea can be caused by an upper gastrointestinal bleed, which can function as a source of protein.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The clinical features of this condition include haematemesis, melena, and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes.

      The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation is also necessary, including ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours.

      For non-variceal bleeding, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) should not be given before endoscopy to patients with suspected non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding. However, PPIs should be given to patients with non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding and stigmata of recent haemorrhage shown at endoscopy. If further bleeding occurs, options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery. For variceal bleeding, terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients at presentation, and band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      18.5
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  • Question 24 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his mother with complaints of right iliac fossa pain for the past two days. He has no previous medical history except for a cough and sore throat in the last week. He has had a high fever for the past two days and has lost his appetite but denies any other symptoms.
      On examination, his temperature is 38.9 °C, and his pulse is 130 beats per minute. Bilateral enlarged submandibular and cervical lymph nodes are palpable and slightly tender. Chest examination is clear, with transmitted sounds from the upper airways. Abdominal examination reveals marked tenderness in the right iliac fossa with no guarding.
      Urine dipstick reveals 2+ of ketones and 1+ of protein.
      Blood test results for his full blood count (FBC) are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 145 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14.3 × 109/ 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 425 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      What is the most likely clinical diagnosis for this 6-year-old boy?

      Your Answer: Appendicitis

      Correct Answer: Mesenteric adenitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Child with Right Iliac Fossa Pain and High Temperature

      When a child presents with right iliac fossa pain and high temperature, several possible diagnoses should be considered. One of them is mesenteric adenitis, which is characterized by abdominal pain resulting from mesenteric lymphadenopathy and often accompanied by enlarged neck nodes and a recent history of viral upper respiratory tract infection. Appendicitis is another possibility, but it tends to present with a low-grade fever and peritoneal irritation that causes involuntary muscle spasm in the abdominal wall. Meckel’s diverticulitis, which is clinically indistinguishable from appendicitis, is an intra-operative or radiological diagnosis and can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, obstruction, inflammation, or umbilical discharge. Retroperitoneal appendix abscess is an uncommon type of infection that presents with fever, back pain, and abdominal pain, but it can also cause other symptoms such as gastrointestinal bleeding, poor wound healing, chest pain, general discomfort, urinary frequency, and haematuria. Finally, urinary tract infection (UTI) is unlikely if there are no nitrites or leukocytes on urine dipstick, but it can cause non-specific symptoms such as vomiting/diarrhoea, mild abdominal pain, dysuria, frequency, and enuresis, especially in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      84.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after developing a severe cutaneous hypersensitivity reaction. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he was taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Still, his symptoms did not improve, and his rheumatologist prescribed him methotrexate a few days ago.
      On examination, Nikolsky’s sign is present and affects 45% of his body’s surface area.
      What is the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Erythema multiforme

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and their Causes

      Skin hypersensitivity reactions can range from mild to life-threatening. Here are some common types and their causes:

      Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is the most serious skin hypersensitivity reaction, with a high mortality rate. It is usually caused by drugs such as NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol and penicillins.

      Erythema Multiforme: This is a target-like lesion that commonly occurs on the palms and soles. It is usually caused by drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin, NSAIDs and sulfa drugs. Mycoplasma and herpes simplex infections can also cause erythema multiforme.

      Erythema Nodosum: This is an inflammatory condition of subcutaneous tissue. The most common causes are recent streptococcal infection, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis and inflammatory bowel disease.

      Fixed Drug Reaction: This is a localised allergic drug reaction that recurs at the same anatomic site of the skin with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by aspirin, NSAIDs, tetracycline and barbiturate.

      Morbilliform Rash: This is a mild hypersensitivity skin reaction that manifests as a generalised maculopapular eruption that blanches with pressure. The rash can be caused by penicillin, sulfa drugs, allopurinol and phenytoin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 7-week-old male infant was presented to the GP clinic by his anxious...

    Correct

    • A 7-week-old male infant was presented to the GP clinic by his anxious mother. She complains of a 2-week history of inadequate feeding and weight gain, accompanied by fast breathing, especially during feeding. The mother became extremely worried when she observed a bluish tint on her baby's skin this morning.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      TOF is the primary reason for cyanotic congenital heart disease, which usually manifests at 1-2 months of age. While transposition of the great arteries is also a significant cause of this condition, it typically presents within the first 24 hours of life. Ventricular septal defect and atrioventricular septal defect are not associated with cyanotic congenital heart disease.

      Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.

      Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.

      The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      34.4
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  • Question 27 - You are performing the yearly evaluation of a 42-year-old woman with type 1...

    Correct

    • You are performing the yearly evaluation of a 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Your objective is to screen for diabetic neuropathy that may affect her feet. What is the most suitable screening test to utilize?

      Your Answer: Test sensation using a 10 g monofilament

      Explanation:

      To evaluate diabetic neuropathy in the feet, it is recommended to utilize a monofilament weighing 10 grams.

      Diabetic foot disease is a significant complication of diabetes mellitus that requires regular screening. In 2015, NICE published guidelines on diabetic foot disease. The disease is caused by two main factors: neuropathy, which results in a loss of protective sensation, and peripheral arterial disease, which increases the risk of macro and microvascular ischaemia. Symptoms of diabetic foot disease include loss of sensation, absent foot pulses, reduced ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI), intermittent claudication, calluses, ulceration, Charcot’s arthropathy, cellulitis, osteomyelitis, and gangrene. All patients with diabetes should be screened for diabetic foot disease at least once a year. Screening for ischaemia involves palpating for both the dorsalis pedis pulse and posterial tibial artery pulse, while screening for neuropathy involves using a 10 g monofilament on various parts of the sole of the foot. NICE recommends that patients be risk-stratified into low, moderate, and high-risk categories based on factors such as deformity, previous ulceration or amputation, renal replacement therapy, neuropathy, and non-critical limb ischaemia. Patients who are moderate or high-risk should be regularly followed up by their local diabetic foot centre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      20.6
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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old woman complains of lumpy breasts. She notices the lumps are more...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman complains of lumpy breasts. She notices the lumps are more prominent before her period. There is no family history of breast cancer.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Correct Answer: Diffuse cystic mastopathy

      Explanation:

      Breast Masses: Differential Diagnosis and Clinical Features

      Breast masses are a common concern for women, and it is important to differentiate between benign and malignant causes. Here, we discuss the clinical features and differential diagnosis of various breast masses.

      Diffuse cystic mastopathy is a benign condition that affects a significant proportion of women. It is characterized by the formation of cysts in the breast lobules due to hormonal changes in the menstrual cycle. The lumps are smooth, mobile, and tend to peak in size before each period. Diagnosis is primarily based on clinical examination, but a biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.

      Fat necrosis is another benign condition that can occur due to direct trauma or surgery. It is characterized by the formation of firm, round, and painless masses in the breast. The skin around the lump may be red or bruised, and a biopsy may be needed to differentiate it from breast cancer.

      Breast abscesses are characterized by local inflammation, pain, and fever. They may be associated with previous breast infections and may require drainage. However, there is no evidence of an infectious process in this patient.

      Breast cancer is a concern in any patient with a breast mass, but early breast cancer is often asymptomatic. Physical findings that may indicate the possible presence of breast cancer include changes in breast size or shape, skin dimpling or changes, nipple abnormalities, and axillary lumps. However, none of these symptoms are present in this patient.

      Fibroadenoma is the most common cause of breast mass in women under 35 years of age. It is characterized by a singular, firm, rubbery, smooth, and mobile mass. However, this patient reports multiple lumps, making a diagnosis of fibroadenoma less likely.

      In conclusion, the cyclic nature of this patient’s breast masses makes diffuse cystic mastopathy the most likely diagnosis. However, a biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old woman visits her general practice for a routine check-up. She has...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her general practice for a routine check-up. She has a history of hypertension and occasional headaches. During screening tests, her serum creatinine level is found to be elevated at 190 μmol/l (reference range 53–106 μmol/l) and her haemoglobin level is low at 110 g/l (reference range 120–155 g/l). An X-ray of her chest shows a mass in her lung, and there is a monoclonal band on serum protein electrophoresis.
      What is the most likely cause of her impaired renal function?

      Your Answer: Amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Common Renal Disorders: Amyloidosis, Metformin Toxicity, Diabetic Nephropathy, Membranous Glomerulonephritis, and Urinary Tract Infection

      Renal disorders can present with a variety of symptoms and can be caused by various factors. Here are five common renal disorders and their characteristics:

      1. Amyloidosis: This disorder is caused by the deposition of abnormal amyloid fibrils that alter the normal function of tissues. Nearly 90% of the deposits consist of amyloid fibrils that are formed by the aggregation of misfolded proteins. In light chain amyloidosis (AL), the precursor protein is a clonal immunoglobulin light chain or light chain fragment. Treatment usually mirrors the management of multiple myeloma.

      2. Metformin Toxicity: Metformin is a widely used antidiabetic agent that holds the risk of developing a potentially lethal acidosis. Its accumulation is feasible in renal failure and acute overdosage. Toxic accumulation of the drug requires time after the development of renal failure, due to high clearance of metformin.

      3. Diabetic Nephropathy: This clinical syndrome is characterised by persistent albuminuria, progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate, and elevated arterial blood pressure. Despite it being the most common cause of incident chronic renal failure, one should be wary about diagnosing diabetic nephropathy in the absence of proliferative retinopathy and proteinuria.

      4. Membranous Glomerulonephritis: This is one of the more common forms of nephrotic syndrome in adults. Some patients may present with asymptomatic proteinuria, but the major presenting complaint is oedema. Proteinuria is usually >3.5 g/24 h.

      5. Urinary Tract Infection (UTI): Causes of UTIs in men include prostatitis, epididymitis, orchitis, pyelonephritis, cystitis, urethritis, and urinary catheters. Dysuria is the most frequent complaint in men, and the combination of dysuria, urinary frequency, and urinary urgency is about 75% predictive for UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      127.2
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  • Question 30 - A 38-year-old man presents with pruritic, violaceous papules in a polygonal pattern on...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents with pruritic, violaceous papules in a polygonal pattern on the flexor surface of his forearms. Several of these papules have merged to form plaques. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is a rash that appears as purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. It is often accompanied by Wickham’s striae on the surface and can also affect the mouth. In contrast, lichen sclerosus is characterized by white, itchy spots that commonly appear on the vulva of older women.

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      44.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (2/2) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (1/4) 25%
Infectious Diseases (2/3) 67%
Haematology/Oncology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (2/2) 100%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Paediatrics (2/4) 50%
ENT (0/3) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed