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Question 1
Correct
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A 58-year-old man with a long history of depression presents with a deliberate overdose of verapamil tablets, which he is prescribed for a heart condition.What is verapamil's mechanism of action?
Your Answer: L-type calcium channel blockade
Explanation:Overdosing on calcium-channel blockers should always be taken seriously and regarded as potentially fatal. Verapamil and diltiazem are the two most lethal calcium channel blockers in overdose. These work by binding the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, preventing calcium from entering the cell. In cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells, these channels play an important role.The standard ABC approach should be used to resuscitate all patients as needed. If life-threatening toxicity is expected, intubation and ventilation should be considered early on. If hypotension and shock are developing, early invasive blood pressure monitoring is recommended.The primary goal of specific treatments is to support the cardiovascular system. These are some of them:1. Fluid resuscitation: Give up to 20 mL of crystalloid per kilogramme of body weight.2. Calcium supplementationThis can be a good way to raise blood pressure and heart rate temporarily.via central venous access: 10% calcium gluconate 60 mL IV (0.6-1.0 mL/kg in children) or 10% calcium chloride 20 mL IV (0.2 mL/kg in children)Boluses can be given up to three times in a row.To keep serum calcium >2.0 mEq/L, consider a calcium infusion.3. Atropine: 0.6 mg every 2 minutes up to 1.8 mg is an option, but it is often ineffective.4. HIET (high-dose insulin-euglycemic therapy):The role of HIET in the step-by-step management of cardiovascular toxicity has changed.5. Vasoactive infusions:This was once thought to be a last-ditch measure, but it is now widely recommended that it be used sooner rather than later.Insulin with a short half-life 50 mL of 50 percent glucose IV bolus plus 1 U/kg bolus (unless marked hyperglycaemia present)Short-acting insulin/dextrose infusions should be continued.Glucose should be checked every 20 minutes for the first hour, then hourly after that.Regularly check potassium levels and replace if they fall below 2.5 mmol/L.Titrate catecholamines to effect (inotropy and chronotropy); options include dopamine, adrenaline, and/or noradrenaline infusions.6. Sodium bicarbonate: Use 50-100 mEq sodium bicarbonate (0.5-1.0 mEq/kg in children) in cases where a severe metabolic acidosis develops.7. Cardiac pacing: It can be difficult to achieve electrical capture, and it may not improve overall perfusion.Bypass AV blockade with ventricular pacing, which is usually done at a rate of less than 60 beats per minute.8. Intralipid transportCalcium channel blockers are lipid-soluble agents, so they should be used in refractory cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Thyroid cancer has spread to the regional lymph nodes of a patient as seen in a staging CT scan. The lymph from the thyroid gland will drain directly to which of the following nodes?
Your Answer: Jugulodigastric lymph nodes
Correct Answer: Deep lateral cervical lymph nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic drainage of the thyroid gland involves the lower deep cervical, prelaryngeal, pretracheal, and paratracheal nodes. The paratracheal and lower deep cervical nodes, specifically, receive lymphatic drainage from the isthmus and the inferior lateral lobes. The superior portions of the thyroid gland drain into the superior pretracheal and cervical nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 3
Correct
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The hypothalamus produces antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, which is a peptide hormone. It is important for maintaining water and electrolyte balance, as well helping control arterial pressure.To have an effect on blood arteries, ADH binds to which of the following receptors?Â
Your Answer: V 1 receptor
Explanation:ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, is a hormone that regulates water and electrolyte balance. It is released in response to a variety of events, the most important of which are higher plasma osmolality or lower blood pressure. ADH increases plasma volume and blood pressure via acting on the kidneys and peripheral vasculature.It causes vasoconstriction by binding to peripheral V1 Receptors on vascular smooth muscle via the IP3 signal transduction and Rho-kinase pathways. The systemic vascular resistance and arterial pressure rise as a result. High levels of ADH appear to be required for this to have a major impact on arterial pressure, such as in hypovolaemic shock.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
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Question 4
Correct
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In patients requiring oxygen, who are at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, oxygen saturations should be maintained at:
Your Answer: 88 - 92%
Explanation:A lower target of 88 – 92% oxygen saturation is indicated for patients at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure e.g. patients with COPD. Until blood gases can be measured, initial oxygen should be given using a controlled concentration of 28% or less, titrated towards the SpO2 of 88 – 92%. The aim is to provide the patient with enough oxygen to achieve an acceptable arterial oxygen tension without worsening carbon dioxide retention and respiratory acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Correct
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Question 6
Correct
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A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain, vomiting and constipation. A CT scan is done which is suggestive of Meckel's diverticulum. Where does the blood supply of the Meckel's diverticulum originate?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:Meckel’s diverticulum has certain classic characteristics.1. It lies on the antimesenteric border of the middle-to-distal ileum2. It is approximately 2 feet proximal to the ileocaecal junction3. It appears as a blind-ended tubular outpouching of bowel4. It is about 2 inches long, 5. It occurs in about 2% of the population, 6. It may contain two types of ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic). 7. The diverticulum is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.8. Proximal to the major duodenal papilla the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery (branch of the coeliac trunk)9. Distal to the major duodenal papilla it is supplied by the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery (branch of superior mesenteric artery).10. The arterial supply to the jejunoileum is from the superior mesenteric artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old male patient, presenting with polyuria and polydipsia symptoms had normal blood test results. Upon interview, he had mentioned being in a car accident in which he had a head injury. His polyuria and polydipsia symptoms are most likely associated with which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Correct Answer: Cranial diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Polydipsia is the feeling of extreme thirstiness. It is often linked to polyuria, which is a urinary condition that causes a person to urinate excessively. The cycle of these two processes makes the body feel a constant need to replace the fluids lost in urination. In healthy adults, a 3 liter urinary output per day is considered normal. A person with polyuria can urinate up to 15 liters of urine per day. Both of these conditions are classic signs of diabetes. The other options are also types of diabetes, except for psychogenic polydipsia (PPD), which is the excessive volitional water intake seen in patients with severe mental illness or developmental disability. However, given the patient’s previous head injury, the most likely diagnosis is cranial diabetes insipidus. By definition, cranial diabetes insipidus is caused by damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland after an infection, operation, brain tumor, or head injury. And the patient’s history confirms this diagnosis. To define the other choices, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus happens when the structures in the kidneys are damaged and results in an inability to properly respond to antidiuretic hormone. Kidney damage can be caused by an inherited (genetic) disorder or a chronic kidney disorder. As with cranial diabetes insipidus, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can also cause an elevated urine output. Diabetes mellitus is classified into two types, and the main difference between them is that type 1 diabetes is a genetic disorder, and type 2 diabetes is diet-related and develops over time. Type 1 diabetes is also known as insulin-dependent diabetes, in which the pancreas produces little or no insulin. Type 2 diabetes is termed insulin resistance, as cells don’t respond customarily to insulin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A patient with history of weight loss and diarrhoea was found out to have Giardia lamblia in her stool since returning from a holiday to Nepal.Which of the following statements is considered true regarding the life cycle of Giardia lamblia?
Your Answer: It is mainly transmitted via the aerosol route
Correct Answer: Trophozoites attach to the intestinal wall via a specialised sucking disc
Explanation:Cysts are resistant forms and are responsible for transmission of giardiasis. Both cysts and trophozoites can be found in the faeces (diagnostic stages). The cysts are hardy and can survive several months in cold water. Infection occurs by the ingestion of cysts in contaminated water, food, or by the faecal-oral route (hands or fomites). In the small intestine, excystation releases trophozoites (each cyst produces two trophozoites).Trophozoites multiply by longitudinal binary fission, remaining in the lumen of the proximal small bowel where they can be free or attached to the mucosa by a ventral sucking disk.Encystation occurs as the parasites transit toward the colon. The cyst is the stage found most commonly in non diarrheal faeces.Because the cysts are infectious when passed in the stool or shortly afterward, person-to-person transmission is possible. While animals are infected with Giardia, their importance as a reservoir is unclear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The following statements are not true of the flexor digiti minimi brevis, except?
Your Answer: It forms part of the thenar eminence
Correct Answer: It is situated on the radial border of abductor digiti minimi
Explanation:Flexor digiti minimi brevis muscle is located on the ulnar side of the palm, lying on the radial border of the abductor digiti minimi. Together with the abductor digiti minimi and opponens digiti minimi muscles, it forms the hypothenar eminence. The muscle is situated inferior and lateral to adductor digiti minimi muscle and superior and medial to opponens digiti minimi muscle. The proximal parts of flexor digiti minimi brevis and abductor digiti minimi muscles form a gap through which deep branches of the ulnar artery and ulnar nerve pass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Regarding carbohydrate, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Carbohydrates provide 4 kcal of energy per gram.
Correct Answer: Most dietary carbohydrate is in the form of disaccharides.
Explanation:Carbohydrates are the main energy source of most diets. They provide 17 kJ (4 kcal) of energy per gram. Most dietary carbohydrate is in the form of polysaccharides. The principal ingested polysaccharides are starch which is derived from plant sources and glycogen which is derived from animal sources. Dietary fibre consists of indigestible carbohydrate (found in plant foods) such as cellulose, lignin and pectin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A patient is complaining of painless jaundice. His bilirubin levels are abnormally high.Which of the following statements about bile is correct?
Your Answer: It helps to reduce the surface area of fat
Correct Answer: Bile acids are amphipathic
Explanation:The liver produces bile on a constant basis, which is then stored and concentrated in the gallbladder. In a 24-hour period, around 400 to 800 mL of bile is generated.Bile is involved in the following processes:Fats are broken down into fatty acids.Waste products are eliminated.Cholesterol homeostasis is the balance of cholesterol in the body.The enteric hormones cholecystokinin and secretin are primarily responsible for bile secretion. When chyme from an unprocessed meal enters the small intestine, they are released, and they play the following function in bile secretion and flow:Cholecystokinin promotes gallbladder and common bile duct contractions, allowing bile to reach the intestine.Secretin enhances the secretion of bicarbonate and water by biliary duct cells, increasing the amount of bile and its flow into the gut.Bile acids have a hydrophobic and hydrophilic area, making them amphipathic. Bile acids’ amphipathic nature allows them to perform the following crucial functions:Emulsification of lipid aggregates increases the surface area of fat and makes it easier for lipases to digest it.Lipid solubilization and transport: solubilizes lipids by creating micelles, which are lipid clumps that float in water.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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In all of the following conditions, lymphocytosis typically occurs except for:
Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Correct Answer: Corticosteroid therapy
Explanation:In infants and young children, lymphocytosis often occurs in response to infections that would normally produce a neutrophil reaction in adults.Lymphocytosis occurs in:1. Viral infections (e.g. infectious mononucleosis, HIV, rubella, mumps, viral hepatitis, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex or zoster)2. Bacterial infections (e.g. pertussis, tuberculosis, toxoplasmosis, syphilis)3. Chronic lymphoid leukaemias4. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemias5. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma6. Thyrotoxicosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old obese patient goes to the emergency department with a fever and significant right upper quadrant pain. The pain radiates to her right shoulder tip. Murphy's sign is positive and acute cholecystitis is diagnosed. The pain referred to the shoulder tip is caused by one of the following nerves:
Your Answer: Lesser thoracic splanchnic nerve
Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve
Explanation:Gallbladder inflammation can cause pain in the right upper quadrant and right shoulder, which is caused by irritation of the diaphragmatic peritoneum. Pain from areas supplied by the phrenic nerve is often referred to other somatic regions served by spinal nerves C3-C5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Regarding Escherichia coli, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: It is a common cause of neonatal meningitis.
Correct Answer: It is a predominant member of the normal flora of the skin.
Explanation:Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative bacilli that is an important member of the intestinal flora. It is the most common cause of UTI in adults (about 70 – 95% of cases), followed by Staphylococcus saprophyticus (about 5 – 10% of cases), and an important cause of neonatal meningitis. E. coli O157 strain is implicated in the development of dysentery associated with haemolytic uraemic syndrome characterised by haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia and acute renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A range of one standard deviation above and below the mean includes what approximate percentage of the sample values:
Your Answer: 0.72
Correct Answer: 0.68
Explanation:A range of one SD above and below the mean (+/- 1 SD) includes 68.2% of the sample values.A range of two SD above and below the mean (+/- 2 SD) includes 95.4% of the sample values.A range of three SD above and below the mean (+/- 3 SD) includes 99.7% of the sample values.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of diabetic ketoacidosis:
Your Answer: Fruity-smelling breath
Correct Answer: Cheyne–Stokes respiration
Explanation:Clinical features of DKA: Symptoms: Polyuria, polydipsia, thirst, lethargy, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, abdominal pain, dehydration, headache, altered mental stateSigns: Dry mucous membranes, ketotic breath, tachycardia, hypotension, Kussmaul breathing, focal signs of precipitant e.g. infection
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following is typically a cause of a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis:
Your Answer: Infection
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:FUSEDCARS can be used to remember some of the causes of a normal anion gap acidosis:Fistula (pancreaticoduodenal)Ureteroenteric conduitSaline administrationEndocrine (hyperparathyroidism)DiarrhoeaCarbonic anhydrase inhibitors (e.g. acetazolamide)Ammonium chlorideRenal tubular acidosisSpironolactone
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Insulin is a very important peptide hormone produced by the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.Insulin is synthesised by which of the following cell types within the islets of Langerhans? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Alpha cells
Correct Answer: Beta cells
Explanation:Insulin is produced by beta cells, located centrally within the islets of Langerhans, in the endocrine tissues of the pancreas. Insulin is a polypeptide hormone consisting of two short chains (A and B) linked by disulphide bonds. Proinsulin is synthesised as a single-chain peptide. Within storage granules, a connecting peptide (C peptide) is removed by proteases to yield insulin. Insulin release is stimulated initially during eating by the parasympathetic nervous system and gut hormones such as secretin, but most output is driven by the rise in plasma glucose concentration that occurs after a meal. The effects of insulin are mediated by the receptor tyrosine kinase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An elderly man presents with bilateral lower facial swelling around the mandible and upper neck. A CT scan of his neck was performed and the results were conclusive with Ludwig's angina.Which of the following spaces is most likely affected based on the case presented?
Your Answer: Submental space
Correct Answer: Submandibular space
Explanation:Ludwig’s angina is life-threatening cellulitis of the soft tissue involving the floor of the mouth and neck. It involves three compartments of the floor of the mouth: the sublingual, submental, and submandibular.Ludwig’s angina usually originates as a dental infection of the second or third mandibular molars. The infection begins in the subgingival pocket and spreads to the musculature of the floor of the mouth. It progresses below the mylohyoid line, indicating that it has moved to the sublingual space. As the roots of the second and third mandibular molars lie below this line, infection of these teeth will predispose to Ludwig’s angina. The infection spreads lingually rather than buccally because the lingual aspect of the tooth socket is thinner. It initially spreads to the sublingual space and progresses to the submandibular space.The disease is usually polymicrobial, involving oral flora, both aerobes, and anaerobes. The most common organisms are Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Peptostreptococcus, Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and Actinomyces.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A patient presents with pain in the wrist and a tingling in the hand. On examination Tinel's test is positive and you diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome. Regarding the carpal tunnel, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: The median nerve lies anterior to the tendons in the carpal tunnel.
Correct Answer: The tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor pollicis longus lie within a single synovial sheath.
Explanation:Free movement of the tendons in the carpal tunnel is facilitated by synovial sheaths, which surround the tendons. All of the tendons of the FDP and FDS are contained within a single synovial sheath with a separate sheath enclosing the tendon of the FPL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is the earliest physiological effect that causes postural hypotension:
Your Answer: A fall in heart rate
Correct Answer: A fall in central venous pressure
Explanation:When autonomic reflexes are impaired or intravascular volume is markedly depleted, a significant reduction in blood pressure occurs upon standing, a phenomenon termed Postural Hypotension (orthostatic hypotension). Orthostatic hypotension can cause dizziness, syncope, and even angina or stroke. When autonomic reflexes are impaired, blood pressure falls progressively after standing because the gravitational pooling of blood in the legs cannot be compensated by sympathetic vasoconstriction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Regarding the tongue, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Sensation from the tongue is carried by the hypoglossal nerve.
Correct Answer: The lymphatic supply of the tongue drains to the jugulo-omohyoid node of the deep cervical chain.
Explanation:All lymphatics from the tongue ultimately drain into the deep cervical chain of nodes along the internal jugular vein, particularly the jugulo-omohyoid lymph node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct about the extensor digitorum muscle?
Your Answer: It receives its blood supply from the radial artery
Correct Answer: It extends the medial four digits at the metacarpophalangeal joints
Explanation:Extensor digitorum is a long muscle located in the posterior compartment of the forearm. Together with the extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor digiti minimi, extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis as well as the brachioradialis, it belongs to the group of superficial extensors of the forearm. These muscles can be easily palpated in the lateral aspect of the posterior forearm, especially during the extension of hand when they are contracted.Extensor digitorum runs from the lateral epicondyle of humerus to the medial four phalanges of the hand. In this way, it generates the pull for the extension of the four medial fingers in their metacarpophalangeal and both interphalangeal joints. Extensor digitorum also participates in the extension of the wrist.Extensor digitorum is innervated by posterior interosseous nerve which is a continuation of a deep branch of radial nerve (root value C7 and C8).Extensor digitorum is vascularized by the branches of three different arteries: (1) posterior interosseous artery, (2) radial recurrent artery, and (3) anterior interosseous artery. Anterior and posterior interosseous arteries are the branches of the common interosseous artery that arises from the ulnar artery. The radial recurrent artery is a branch of the radial artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 24
Correct
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Regarding probability distribution, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: In a negative skew, the mass of distribution is concentrated on the right.
Explanation:Distribution of data is usually unimodal (one peak) but may be bimodal (two peaks) or uniform (no peaks, each value equally likely). The normal distribution is a symmetrical bell-shaped curve. The mean, median, and mode of a normal distribution are equal. In a positive skew, the right tail is longer and the mass of distribution is concentrated on the left; mean > median > mode. In a negative skew, the left tail is longer and the mass of distribution is concentrated on the right; mean < median < mode.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A young boy is carried by his friends to the Emergency Department in an unconscious state. He is quickly moved into the resuscitation room. He was at a party with friends and has injected heroin. On examination, his GCS is 6/15, and he has bilateral pinpoint pupils and a very low respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Naloxone 0.2Â mg IM
Correct Answer: Naloxone 0.8 mg IV
Explanation:Heroin is injected into the veins and is the most commonly abused drug. Acute intoxication with opioid overuse is the most common cause of death by drug overdose. The clinical features of opioid overdose are:1. Decreased respiratory rate2. Reduced conscious level or coma3. Decreased bowel sounds4. Miotic (constricted) pupils5. Cyanosis6. Hypotension7. Seizures8. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema (with IV heroin usage)The main cause of death secondary to opioid overdose is respiratory depression, which usually occurs within 1 hour of the overdose. Vomiting is also common, and aspiration can occur.Naloxone is a short-acting, specific antagonist of mu(μ)-opioid receptors. It is used to reverse the effects of opioid toxicity. It can be given by a continuous infusion if repeated doses are required and the infusion rate is adjusted according to the vital signs. Initially, the infusion rate can be set at 60% of the initial resuscitative IV dose per hour.Naloxone has a shorter duration of action (6-24 hours) than most opioids, and so close monitoring according to the respiratory rate and depth of coma with repeated injections is necessary. When repeated doses are needed in opioid addicts, naloxone administration may precipitate a withdrawal syndrome with abdominal cramps, nausea and diarrhoea, but these usually settle within 2 hours.An initial dose of 0.4 to 2 mg can be given intravenously and can be repeated at 2 to 3-minute intervals to a maximum of 10mg. If the intravenous route is inaccessible, naloxone can be administered via an IO line, subcutaneously (SQ), IM, or via the intranasal (IN) route.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with chest pain. Flecainide is one of the medications she is taking.Which of the following statements about flecainide mechanism of action is correct?
Your Answer: Opens K + channels in the heart
Correct Answer: Blocks Na+ channels in the heart
Explanation:Flecainide is an antiarrhythmic drug of class Ic that works by blocking the Nav1.5 sodium channel in the heart, prolonging the cardiac action potential and slowing cardiac impulse conduction. It has a significant impact on accessory pathway conduction, particularly retrograde conduction, and significantly reduces ventricular ectopic foci.Many different arrhythmias can be treated with flecainide, including:Pre-excitation syndromes (e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White)Acute atrial arrhythmiasVentricular arrhythmiasChronic neuropathic painThe use of flecainide is contraindicated in the following situations:Abnormal left ventricular functionAtrial conduction defects (unless pacing rescue available)Bundle branch block (unless pacing rescue available)Distal block (unless pacing rescue available)Haemodynamically significant valvular heart diseaseHeart failureHistory of myocardial infarctionLong-standing atrial fibrillation where conversion to sinus rhythm not attemptedSecond-degree or greater AV block (unless pacing rescue available)Sinus node dysfunction (unless pacing rescue available)Flecainide should only be used in people who don’t have a structural heart problem. The CAST trial found a significant increase in sudden cardiac death and all-cause mortality in patients with an ejection fraction of less than 40% after a myocardial infarction, where it tended to be pro-arrhythmic.Anti-arrhythmic drugs have a limited and ineffective role in the treatment of atrial flutter. It’s important to keep in mind that flecainide shouldn’t be used by itself to treat atrial flutter. When used alone, there is a risk of inducing 1:1 atrioventricular conduction, which results in an increase in ventricular rate that is paradoxical. As a result, it should be used in conjunction with a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker with a rate-limiting effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Correct
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You examine a 79-year-old woman who has had hypertension and atrial fibrillation in the past. Her most recent blood tests show that she has severe renal impairment.Which medication adjustments should you make in this patient's case?
Your Answer: Reduce dose of digoxin
Explanation:Digoxin is excreted through the kidneys, and impaired renal function can lead to elevated digoxin levels and toxicity.The patient’s digoxin dose should be reduced in this case, and their digoxin level and electrolytes should be closely monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Dehydration causes a significant increase in the amount of this hormone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antidiuretic hormone
Explanation:Antidiuretic hormone induces the kidneys to release less water, resulting in reduced urine production. In the case of dehydration, ADH levels rise, resulting in a considerable decrease in urine output as well as an increase in plasma protein, blood Hct, and serum osmolality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was recently released from the hospital after receiving abciximab during coronary angioplasty.Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to abciximab (ReoPro) treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Major surgery within the last 6 months
Explanation:Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:Internal bleeding is present.Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.Stroke in the previous two yearsIntracranial tumourAneurysm or arteriovenous malformationHaemorrhagic diathesis is a type of haemorrhagic diathesis.VasculitisRetinopathy caused by hypertension
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true about anterior cord syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is preservation of proprioception
Explanation:Anterior cord syndrome is an incomplete cord syndrome that predominantly affects the anterior 2/3 of the spinal cord, characteristically resulting in motor paralysis below the level of the lesion as well as the loss of pain and temperature at and below the level of the lesion. The patient presentation typically includes these two findings; however, there is variability depending on the portion of the spinal cord affected. Other findings include back pain, or autonomic dysfunction such as hypotension, neurogenic bowel or bladder, and sexual dysfunction. The severity of motor dysfunction can vary, typically resulting in paraplegia or quadriplegia.Proprioception, vibratory sense, two-point discrimination, and fine touch are not affected in anterior cord syndrome. These sensations are under the control of the dorsal column of the spinal cord, which is supplied by two posterior spinal arteries running in the posterior lateral sulci.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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