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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old woman complains of headaches, dizziness, and memory loss. About a month...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman complains of headaches, dizziness, and memory loss. About a month ago, she fell from a staircase but only suffered mild head trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Chronic subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      A quarter to a half of patients with chronic subdural haematoma have no identifiable history of head trauma. If a patient does have a history of head trauma, it usually is mild. The average time between head trauma and chronic subdural haematoma diagnosis is 4–5 weeks. Symptoms include decreased level of consciousness, balance problems, cognitive dysfunction and memory loss, motor deficit (e.g. hemiparesis), headache or aphasia. Some patients present acutely. They usually result from tears in bridging veins which cross the subdural space, and may cause an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 21 year old female presents to the clinic with axillary lymphadenopathy and...

    Correct

    • A 21 year old female presents to the clinic with axillary lymphadenopathy and symptoms suggestive of Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following tests should be done?

      Your Answer: Excision biopsy of a lymph node

      Explanation:

      Answer: Excision biopsy of a lymph node

      Hodgkin lymphoma is an uncommon cancer that develops in the lymphatic system, which is a network of vessels and glands spread throughout your body. In Hodgkin lymphoma, B-lymphocytes (a particular type of lymphocyte) start to multiply in an abnormal way and begin to collect in certain parts of the lymphatic system, such as the lymph nodes (glands). The affected lymphocytes lose their infection-fighting properties, making you more vulnerable to infection. The most common symptom of Hodgkin lymphoma is a painless swelling in a lymph node, usually in the neck, armpit or groin.
      A histologic diagnosis of Hodgkin lymphoma is always required. An excisional lymph node biopsy is recommended because the lymph node architecture is important for histologic classification.

      Features of Hodgkin lymphoma include the following:

      Asymptomatic lymphadenopathy may be present (above the diaphragm in 80% of patients)

      Constitutional symptoms (unexplained weight loss [>10% of total body weight] within the past 6 months, unexplained fever >38º C, or drenching night sweats) are present in 40% of patients; collectively, these are known as B symptoms

      Intermittent fever is observed in approximately 35% of cases; infrequently, the classic Pel-Ebstein fever is observed (high fever for 1-2 week, followed by an afebrile period of 1-2 week)

      Chest pain, cough, shortness of breath, or a combination of those may be present due to a large mediastinal mass or lung involvement; rarely, haemoptysis occurs

      Pruritus may be present

      Pain at sites of nodal disease, precipitated by drinking alcohol, occurs in fewer than 10% of patients but is specific for Hodgkin lymphoma

      Back or bone pain may rarely occur

      A family history is also helpful; in particular, nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma (NSHL) has a strong genetic component and has often previously been diagnosed in the family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The following organs would be expected to lie within the right lower quadrant...

    Correct

    • The following organs would be expected to lie within the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, assuming that the gastrointestinal tract is rotated normally:

      Your Answer: Distal jejunum, caecum, vermiform appendix

      Explanation:

      The abdomen is divided by theoretical anatomic lines into four quadrants. The median plane follows the linea alba and extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis and splits the abdomen in half. The transumbilical plane is a horizontal line that runs at the level of the umbilicus. This forms the upper right and left quadrants and the lower right and left quadrants. Structures in the right lower quadrant include: caecum, appendix, part of the small intestine, ascending colon, the right half of the female reproductive system, right ureter. Pain in this region is most commonly associated with appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the basic chemical reaction that takes place in the breakdown of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the basic chemical reaction that takes place in the breakdown of complex foodstuffs?

      Your Answer: Oxidation

      Correct Answer: Hydrolysis

      Explanation:

      Breakdown of complex food into simpler compounds is achieved by hydrolysis, with the help of different enzymes specific for different compounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Most of the coagulation factors are serine proteases. Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • Most of the coagulation factors are serine proteases. Which of the following is not one of them?

      Your Answer: Factor I

      Correct Answer: Factor XIII

      Explanation:

      Serine protease coagulation factors include: thrombin, plasmin, Factors X, XI and XII. Factor VIII and factor V are glycoproteins and factor XIII is a transglutaminase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 44 year old woman suffers 20% partial and full thickness burns in...

    Incorrect

    • A 44 year old woman suffers 20% partial and full thickness burns in a garage fire. There is also an associated inhalational injury. Her doctors have decided to administer intravenous fluids to replace fluid loss. Which of the following intravenous fluids should be used for initial resuscitation?

      Your Answer: Blood

      Correct Answer: Hartmann's solution

      Explanation:

      The goal of fluid management in major burn injuries is to maintain the tissue perfusion in the early phase of burn shock, in which hypovolemia finally occurs due to steady fluid extravasation from the intravascular compartment.

      Burn injuries of less than 20% are associated with minimal fluid shifts and can generally be resuscitated with oral hydration, except in cases of facial, hand and genital burns, as well as burns in children and the elderly. As the total body surface area (TBSA) involved in the burn approaches 15–20%, the systemic inflammatory response syndrome is initiated and massive fluid shifts, which result in burn oedema and burn shock, can be expected.

      The ideal burn resuscitation is the one that effectively restores plasma volume, with no adverse effects. Isotonic crystalloids, hypertonic solutions and colloids have been used for this purpose, but every solution has its advantages and disadvantages. None of them is ideal, and none is superior to any of the others.
      Crystalloids are readily available and cheaper than some of the other alternatives. RL solution, Hartmann solution (a solution similar to RL solution) and normal saline are commonly used. There are some adverse effects of the crystalloids: high volume administration of normal saline produces hyperchloremic acidosis, RL increases the neutrophil activation after resuscitation for haemorrhage or after infusion without haemorrhage. d-lactate in RL solution containing a racemic mixture of the d-lactate and l-lactate isomers has been found to be responsible for increased production of ROS. RL used in the majority of hospitals contains this mixture. Another adverse effect that has been demonstrated is that crystalloids have a substantial influence on coagulation. Recent studies have demonstrated that in vivo dilution with crystalloids (independent of the type of the crystalloid) resulted in a hypercoagulable state.
      Despite these adverse effects, the most commonly used fluid for burn resuscitation in the UK and Ireland is Hartmann’s solution (adult units 76%, paediatric units 75%). Another study has revealed that RL is the most popular type of fluid in burn units located in USA and Canada.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is formed when the ductus deferens unites with the duct of the...

    Correct

    • What is formed when the ductus deferens unites with the duct of the seminal vesicle?

      Your Answer: Ejaculatory duct

      Explanation:

      The deferens is a cylindrical structure​ with dense walls and an extremely small lumen It is joined at an acute angle by the duct of the seminal vesicles to form the ejaculatory duct, which traverses the prostate behind it’s middle lobe and opens into the prostatic portion of the urethra, close to the orifice of the prostatic utricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A chest x ray of a patient reveals loculated fluid in the right...

    Incorrect

    • A chest x ray of a patient reveals loculated fluid in the right chest, which can be easily aspirated if the needle is inserted through the body wall just above the 9th rib in the midaxillary line. Where is this fluid located?

      Your Answer: Cupola

      Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.
      The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.
      Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.
      Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.
      Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.
      The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining of sudden onset of pain in the left hemiscrotum despite not having any other urinary symptoms. The superior pole of the testis is tender on examination and the cremasteric reflex is particularly marked. What would be the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Torsion of the testis

      Correct Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatid

      Explanation:

      Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatid

      The appendix testis (or hydatid of Morgagni) is a vestigial remnant of the Müllerian duct, present on the upper pole of the testis and attached to the tunica vaginalis. It is present about 90% of the time. The appendix of testis can, occasionally, undergo torsion (i.e. become twisted), causing acute one-sided testicular pain and may require surgical excision to achieve relief. One third of patients present with a palpable blue dot discoloration on the scrotum. This is nearly diagnostic of this condition. If clinical suspicion is high for the serious differential diagnosis of testicular torsion, a surgical exploration of the scrotum is warranted. Torsion of the appendix of testis occurs at ages 0-15 years, with a mean at 10 years, which is similar to that of testicular torsion.

      Occasionally a torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni can produce symptoms mimicking those created by a testicular torsion; a torsion of the hydatid, however, does not lead to any impairment of testicular function.
      Absence of the cremasteric reflex is a sign of testicular torsion. This therefore confirms that the diagnosis is Torsion of a testicular hydatid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A medical officer was shown an X ray with barium contrast and was...

    Incorrect

    • A medical officer was shown an X ray with barium contrast and was asked to distinguish the small from the large bowel. Which of the following features listed is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: Mucosal glands

      Correct Answer: Circular folds of the mucosa

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing features include:
      1. Three strips of longitudinal muscle-taenia coli- on the wall instead of a continuous surrounding longitudinal muscle that is seen in the small intestine
      2. The colon has bulges called haustra that are not on the small bowel.
      3. The surface of the colon is covered with fatty omental appendages. Both the colon and the small intestine have similar circular smooth muscle layer, serosa. Peyer’s patches are lymphoid tissues that are not visible on X ray with barium contrast.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby? ...

    Incorrect

    • What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby?

      Your Answer: Arthus reaction

      Correct Answer: Type II hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      In type II hypersensitivity the antibodies that are produced by the immune response bind to the patients own cell surface antigens. These antigens can be intrinsic or extrinsic. Destruction occurs due to antibody dependent cell mediated antibodies. Antibodies bind to the cell and opsonise the cell, activating phagocytes to destroy that cell e.g. autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Goodpasture syndrome, erythroblastosis fetalis, pernicious anaemia, Graves’ disease, Myasthenia gravis and haemolytic disease of the new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Laboratory findings in a patient with dark urine and yellowish skin revealed a...

    Incorrect

    • Laboratory findings in a patient with dark urine and yellowish skin revealed a prolonged prothrombin time. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?

      Your Answer: Factor XII deficiency

      Correct Answer: Liver damage

      Explanation:

      Various conditions may prolong the prothrombin time (PT), including: warfarin use, vitamin K deficiency, liver disease, disseminated intravascular coagulopathy, hypofibrinogenemia, heparin infusion, massive blood transfusion and hypothermia. Liver disease causes prolonging of PT due to diminished synthesis of clotting factors. Dark urine colour and jaundice are indicators of the presence of a liver disease in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 11 year old boy is referred to the clinic with pain in...

    Incorrect

    • An 11 year old boy is referred to the clinic with pain in the left knee. He has been experiencing the pain for the past four months and it usually lasts for a few hours. He is seen to be walking with an antalgic gait and has apparent left leg shortening. The left knee is normal but the left hip reveals pain on internal and external rotation. Flattening of the femoral head is shown on imaging. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta

      Correct Answer: Perthes disease

      Explanation:

      Answer: Perthes disease

      Perthes’ disease is a condition affecting the hip joint in children. It is rare (1 in 9,000 children are affected) and we do not clearly understand why it occurs.

      Part or all of the femoral head (top of the thigh bone: the ball part of the ball-and-socket hip joint) loses its blood supply and may become misshapen. This may lead to arthritis of the hip in later years.

      The earliest sign of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (LCPD) is an intermittent limp (abductor lurch), especially after exertion, with mild or intermittent pain in the anterior part of the thigh. LCPD is the most common cause of a limp in the 4- to 10-year-old age group, and the classic presentation has been described as a painless limp.
      The patient may present with limited range of motion of the affected extremity. The most common symptom is persistent pain.

      Hip pain may develop and is a result of necrosis of the involved bone. This pain may be referred to the medial aspect of the ipsilateral knee or to the lateral thigh. The quadriceps muscles and adjacent thigh soft tissues may atrophy, and the hip may develop adduction flexion contracture. The patient may have an antalgic gait with limited hip motion.
      Early radiographic changes may reveal only a nonspecific effusion of the joint associated with slight widening of the joint space, metaphyseal demineralization (decreased bone density around the joint), and periarticular swelling (bulging capsule). This is the acute phase, and it may last 1-2 weeks. Decreasing bone density in and around the joint is noted after a few weeks. Eventually, the disease may progress to collapse of the femoral head, increase in the width of the neck, and demineralization of the femoral head. The final shape of this area depends on the extent of necrosis and the degree of collapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old man with gunshot to the abdomen is transferred to the operating...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man with gunshot to the abdomen is transferred to the operating theatre, following his arrival in the A&E department. He is unstable and his FAST scan is positive. During the operation, extensive laceration to the right lobe of the liver and involvement of the IVC are found, along with massive haemorrhage. What should be the most appropriate approach to blood component therapy?

      Your Answer: Use Factor VIII concentrates early

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      There is strong evidence to support haemostatic resuscitation in the setting of massive haemorrhage due to trauma. This advocates the use of 1:1:1 ratio.

      Uncontrolled haemorrhage accounts for up to 39% of all trauma-related deaths. In the UK, approximately 2% of all trauma patients need massive transfusion. Massive transfusion is defined as the replacement of a patient’s total blood volume in less than 24 hours or the acute administration of more than half the patient’s estimated blood volume per hour. During acute bleeding, the practice of haemostatic resuscitation has been shown to reduce mortality rates. It is based on the principle of transfusion of blood components in fixed ratios. For example, packed red cells, FFP, and platelets are administered in a ratio of 1:1:1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A patient presented with continuous bleeding several hours after dental extraction. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presented with continuous bleeding several hours after dental extraction. Which of the following findings is most often associated with clinical bleeding?

      Your Answer: Prekallikrein deficiency

      Correct Answer: Factor IX deficiency

      Explanation:

      Factor IX deficiency, also called Haemophilia B or Christmas disease, is a disorder caused by missing or defective clotting factor IX. Deficiency of the factor IX causes irregular bleeding that can happen spontaneously or after mild trauma, surgery and dental extractions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65 year old man develops persistent pyrexia on his 2nd postoperative day....

    Correct

    • A 65 year old man develops persistent pyrexia on his 2nd postoperative day. He has undergone an open extended right hemicolectomy for carcinoma of the colonic-splenic flexure. What is the least likely cause?

      Your Answer: Ileus

      Explanation:

      Pyrexia is a very common post operative finding and can most likely result from an infection. However, it is highly unlikely to occur as a result of ileus. Anastomotic leaks are uncommon after right sided colonic surgery. In this scenario atelectasis would be the most likely underlying cause, as open extended right hemicolectomies will necessitate a long midline incision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - How are amino acids transported across the luminal surface of the small intestinal...

    Incorrect

    • How are amino acids transported across the luminal surface of the small intestinal epithelium?

      Your Answer: Co-transport with potassium ions

      Correct Answer: Co-transport with sodium ions

      Explanation:

      Once complex peptides are broken down into amino acids by the peptidases present in the brush border of small intestine, they are ready for absorption by at least four sodium-dependent amino acid co-transporters – one each for acidic, basic, neutral and amino acids, present on the luminal plasma membrane. These transporters first bind sodium and can then bind the amino acids. Thus, amino acid absorption is totally dependent on the electrochemical gradient of sodium across the epithelium. The basolateral membrane in contrast, possesses additional transporters to carry amino acids from the cell into the blood, but these are sodium-independent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 4-year-old boy suffers 20% burns to the torso. On examination, there is...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy suffers 20% burns to the torso. On examination, there is fixed pigmentation and the affected area has a white and dry appearance. Which of the following options represents the best management plan?

      Your Answer: Split thickness skin graft

      Explanation:

      Burn depth is classified as first, second, third, or fourth degree, as follows:
      First-degree burns are usually red, dry, and painful. Burns initially termed first-degree are often actually superficial second-degree burns, with sloughing occurring the next day.
      Second-degree burns are often red, wet, and very painful. Their depth, ability to heal, and propensity to form hypertrophic scars vary enormously.
      Third-degree burns are generally leathery in consistency, dry, insensate, and waxy. These wounds will not heal, except by contraction and limited epithelial migration, with resulting hypertrophic and unstable cover. Burn blisters can overlie both second- and third-degree burns. The management of burn blisters remains controversial, yet intact blisters help greatly with pain control. Debride blisters if infection occurs.
      Fourth-degree burns involve underlying subcutaneous tissue, tendon, or bone. Usually, even an experienced examiner has difficulty accurately determining burn depth during an early examination. As a general rule, burn depth is underestimated upon initial examination.

      The management plan for patients with large burns that require inpatient care is usually determined by the physiology of the burn injury.
      Hospitalization is divided into 4 general phases, including (1) initial evaluation and resuscitation, (2) initial wound excision and biologic closure, (3) definitive wound closure, and (4) rehabilitation and reconstruction.

      Early excision and closure of full-thickness wounds change the natural history of burn injury, avoiding the otherwise common occurrence of wound sepsis. Wound size is the most important factor in determining the need for early operation

      Medications
      See the list below:
      – Silver sulfadiazine – Broad antibacterial spectrum; painless application
      – Aqueous 0.5% silver nitrate – Broad-spectrum coverage, including fungi; leeches electrolytes
      – Mafenide acetate – Broad antibacterial spectrum; penetrates eschar best
      – Petrolatum – Bland and nontoxic
      – Various debriding enzymes – Useful in selected partial-thickness wounds
      – Various antibiotic ointments – Useful in many superficial partial-thickness wounds
      Membranes
      See the list below:
      – Porcine xenograft – Adheres to wound coagulum and provides excellent pain control
      – Split-thickness allograft – Vascularizes and provides durable temporary closure of wounds
      – Various hydrocolloid dressings – Provide vapour and bacteria barrier while absorbing wound exudate
      – Various impregnated gauzes – Provide vapour and bacteria barrier while allowing drainage
      – Various semipermeable membranes – Provide vapour and bacteria barrier
      – Acticoat (Westhaim Biomedical, Saskatchewan, Canada) – Nonadherent wound dressing that delivers a low concentration of silver for antisepsis
      – Biobrane (Dow-Hickman, Sugarland, Tex) – Synthetic bilaminate that facilitates fibrovascular tissue growth into the inner layer and provides temporary vapour and bacteria barrier
      – Transcyte (Smith and Nephew, Largo, Fla) – Synthetic bilaminate that facilitates fibrovascular tissue growth into the inner layer populated with allogenic fibroblasts and overlying layer that provides temporary vapour and bacteria barrier
      – AlloDerm R – Consists of cell-free allogenic human dermis; requires an immediate thin overlying autograft
      – Integra R – Provides scaffold for neodermis; requires delayed thin autograft

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Calculate the pulmonary vascular resistance in an adult male with the following parameters:...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the pulmonary vascular resistance in an adult male with the following parameters: Heart rate 70 beats/min, Arterial [O2] 0.24 ml O2/min, Venous [O2] 0.16 ml O2/min, Whole body O2 consumption 500 ml/min, Pulmonary diastolic pressure 15 mmHg, Pulmonary systolic pressure 25 mmHg, Wedge pressure 5 mmHg.

      Your Answer: 2.5 resistance units (mmHg/l per min)

      Correct Answer: 2.0 resistance units (mmHg/l per min)

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) = (Mean pulmonary artery pressure – Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure) divided by Cardiac output. To get cardiac output, Fick’s principle needs to be applied which states that VO2 = (CO × CAO2) – (CO × CVO2) where VO2 = oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CA = oxygen concentration of arterial blood and CVO2 = oxygen concentration of venous blood. Thus, CO = VO2/CAO2– CVO2, CO = 500/0.24–0.16, CO = 500/0.8, CO = 6.25 l/min. To calculate mean pulmonary artery pressure, we use the formula: Mean pulmonary artery pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3(Systolic pressure – Diastolic pressure). Thus, Mean pulmonary artery pressure = 15 + 1/3(25 – 15) = 15 + 3. 33 = 18.33. Substituting these values in the first formula, PVR = 18.3–5/6.25 = 13.5/5.25 = 2.0 resistance units (mmHg/l per min) approximately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 34-year-old man is receiving chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old man is receiving chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy regimens would be used in this case?

      Your Answer: CHOP

      Explanation:

      CHOP is the acronym for a chemotherapy regimen used in the treatment of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, comprising cyclophosphamide, hydroxyrubicin (adriamycin), vincristine and prednisone. This regimen can also be combined with the monoclonal antibody rituximab if the lymphoma is of B cell origin; this combination is called R-CHOP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The circle of Willis is an arterial anastomosis in the base of the...

    Incorrect

    • The circle of Willis is an arterial anastomosis in the base of the brain and is one of the cerebrovascular safeguards in the brain. Where is the circle of Willis contained?

      Your Answer: Cisterna venae magnae cerebri

      Correct Answer: Cisterna basalis

      Explanation:

      Cisterns refers to a system of intercommunicating pools formed by the subarachnoid space at the base of the brain and around the brainstem. Cisterna basalis/basal cistern (interpeduncular cistern) is found at the base of the brain between the two temporal lobes and it contains the arterial circle of Willis. The lumbar cistern is contained in the spinal canal while the foramen magna refers to the opening at the base of the skull though which the spinal cord enters into the skull.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle?

      Your Answer: XII

      Correct Answer: X

      Explanation:

      The palatoglossal arch contains the palatoglossal muscle which is innervated by the vagus nerve which is the tenth cranial nerve. So the correct answer is X

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old female is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of metastatic breast cancer....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of metastatic breast cancer. You are called because it has become apparent that her doxorubicin infusion has extravasated. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Stop the infusion and administer sodium bicarbonate through the infusion device

      Correct Answer: Stop the infusion and apply a cold compress to the site

      Explanation:

      Extravasation is the process by which any liquid (fluid or drug) accidentally leaks into the surrounding tissue. In terms of cancer therapy, extravasation refers to the inadvertent infiltration of chemotherapy into the subcutaneous or subdermal tissues surrounding the intravenous or intra-arterial administration site.
      Extravasated drugs are classified according to their potential for causing damage as ‘vesicant’, ‘irritant’ and ‘non-vesicant’.
      Doxorubicin is one of the vesicant drugs.
      Regardless of the chemotherapy drug, early initiation of treatment is considered mandatory. In this context, patient education is crucial for prompt identification of the extravasation.
      Step 1: Stop the infusion and leave the needle in place
      Step 2: Identify the extravasated agent
      Step 3: Leave the cannula in place, gently aspirate the agent and avoid manual compression, then remove the cannula
      Step 4: Use a pen to outline the extravasated area
      Step 5: Start Specific measures
      Step 5A: For Anthracyclines (Doxorubicin), Apply cold compressions for 20 minutes, 4 times daily for 1-2 days.
      Step 5B: Using Specific Antidotes as Topical Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) or Dexrazoxane

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old woman complains of generalised swelling and particularly puffiness around the eyes...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman complains of generalised swelling and particularly puffiness around the eyes which is worst in the morning. Laboratory studies showed: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) = 30 mg/dl, Creatinine = 2. 8 mg/dl, Albumin = 2. 0 mg/dl, Alanine transaminase (ALT) = 25 U/l, Bilirubin = 1 mg/dl. Urine analysis shows 3+ albumin and no cells.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congestive heart failure

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome is a disorder in which the glomeruli have been damaged, characterized by:
      – Proteinuria (>3.5 g per 1.73 m2 body surface area per day, or > 40 mg per square meter body surface area per hour in children)
      – Hypoalbuminemia (< 2,5 g/dl)
      – Hyperlipidaemia, and oedema (generalized anasarca).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 45 year old man who complains of chronic post prandial, burning epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old man who complains of chronic post prandial, burning epigastric pain undergoes a gastrointestinal endoscopy. There is no apparent mass or haemorrhage and a biopsy is taken from the lower oesophageal mucosa just above the gastro-oesophageal junction. The results reveal the presence of columnar cells interspersed with goblet cells. Which change best explains the above mentioned histology?

      Your Answer: Carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Metaplasia

      Explanation:

      Metaplasia is the transformation of one type of epithelium into another as a means to better cope with external stress on that epithelium. In this case metaplasia occurs due to the inflammation resulting from gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. Dysplasia is disordered cellular growth. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number but not cell type i.e. transformation. Carcinoma is characterized by cellular atypia. Ischaemia would result in necrosis with ulceration. Carcinoma insitu involves dysplastic atypical cells with the basement membrane intact and atrophy would mean a decrease in number of cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An anatomy instructor is giving a demonstration of the right lung. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • An anatomy instructor is giving a demonstration of the right lung. Which of the statements about the right lung made by the demonstrator is correct?

      Your Answer: It is slightly smaller than the left lung

      Correct Answer: Its upper lobar bronchus lies behind and above the right pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      The root of the lungs on both sides are similar in that the pulmonary veins are anterior and inferior while the bronchus is posterior. However, on the right side, the pulmonary arteries are anterior to the bronchus while on the left side the pulmonary arteries are superior to the bronchus. The lingual is only found on the left lung. The mediastinum is the space in the thorax between the two pleural sacs and does not contain any lung. The right lung, having three lobes, is slightly larger than the left lung. On both sides, the phrenic nerves passes in front of the root of the lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of penis

      Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Transitional cell carcinomas can arise anywhere in the urothelium lining the urinary tract; and hence are known to be multicentric and recur commonly. Prostatic adenocarcinoma most commonly involves the posterior lobe of the prostate gland. Although renal cell carcinomas occasionally show multicentricity, it is not common. Penile carcinomas are usually locally infiltrative lesions. Wilm’s tumours are usually solitary, but can be bilateral or multicentric in 10% cases. Small cell carcinoma of lung and teratomas are usually solitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 54-year-old woman is re-admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman is re-admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and sharp chest pain 2 weeks after surgical cholecystectomy. The most probable cause of these clinical findings is:

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolus

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism is caused by the sudden blockage of a major lung blood vessel, usually by a blood clot. Symptoms include sudden sharp chest pain, cough, dyspnoea, palpitations, tachycardia or loss of consciousness. Risk factors for developing pulmonary embolism include long periods of inactivity, surgery, trauma, pregnancy, oral contraceptives, oestrogen replacement, malignancies and venous stasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 27 year old women works in a dry-cleaning shop. She was exposed...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old women works in a dry-cleaning shop. She was exposed to massive amounts of carbon tetrachloride on her skin as well as inhaled. Which of the following organs is most susceptible to damage?

      Your Answer: Heart

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) is a common agent used in the dry cleaning industry and is thought to cause the formation of free radicals. It causes rapid breakdown of the endoplasmic reticulum due to decomposition of lipids and severe liver cell injury. Within less than 30 mins, hepatic protein synthesis declines, lipid export is reduced due to lack of apoprotein and there is an influx of calcium and cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following conditions causes an elevation of the pH in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions causes an elevation of the pH in the tissues with elevated arterial CO2 content?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is a metabolic condition in which the pH of tissue is elevated beyond the normal range (7.35-7.45). This is the result of decreased hydrogen ion concentration, leading to increased bicarbonate, or alternatively a direct result of increased bicarbonate concentrations. Normally, arterial pa(CO2) increases by 0.5–0.7 mmHg for every 1 mEq/l increase in plasma bicarbonate concentration, a compensatory response that is very quick. If the change in pa(CO2) is not within this range, then a mixed acid–base disturbance occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Sciences (15/22) 68%
Pathology (7/9) 78%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (2/5) 40%
Surgical Technique And Technology (1/2) 50%
Anatomy (5/7) 71%
Physiology (3/6) 50%
Generic Surgical Topics (2/2) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (0/1) 0%
Peri-operative Care (0/1) 0%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
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