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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old male presents with central chest pain. On examination, he has a...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male presents with central chest pain. On examination, he has a mitral regurgitation murmur. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads V1 to V6. There is no ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior myocardial infarct

      Explanation:

      High-probability ECG features of MI are the following:
      ST-segment elevation greater than 1 mm in two anatomically contiguous leads
      The presence of new Q waves

      Intermediate-probability ECG features of MI are the following:
      ST-segment depression
      T-wave inversion
      Other nonspecific ST-T wave abnormalities
      Low-probability ECG features of MI are normal ECG findings. However, normal or nonspecific findings on ECGs do not exclude the possibility of MI.

      Special attention should be made if there is diffuse ST depression in the precordial and extremity leads associated with more than 1 mm ST elevation in lead aVR, as this may indicate stenosis of the left main coronary artery or the proximal section of the left anterior descending coronary artery.

      Localization of the involved myocardium based on the distribution of ECG abnormalities in MI is as follows:
      – Inferior wall – II, III, aVF
      – Lateral wall – I, aVL, V4 through V6
      – Anteroseptal – V1 through V3
      – Anterolateral – V1 through V6
      – Right ventricular – RV4, RV5
      – Posterior wall – R/S ratio greater than 1 in V1 and V2, and – T-wave changes in V1, V8, and V9
      – True posterior-wall MIs may cause precordial ST depressions, inverted and hyperacute T waves, or both. ST-segment elevation and upright hyperacute T waves may be evident with the use of right-sided chest leads.

      Hyperacute (symmetrical and, often, but not necessarily pointed) T waves are frequently an early sign of MI at any locus.
      The appearance of abnormalities in a large number of ECG leads often indicates extensive injury or concomitant pericarditis.
      The characteristic ECG changes may be seen in conditions other than acute MI. For example, patients with previous MI and left ventricular aneurysm may have persistent ST elevations resulting from dyskinetic wall motion, rather than from acute myocardial injury. ST-segment changes may also be the result of misplaced precordial leads, early repolarization abnormalities, hypothermia (elevated J point or Osborne waves), or hypothyroidism.
      False Q waves may be seen in septal leads in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). They may also result from cardiac rotation.
      Substantial T-wave inversion may be seen in left ventricular hypertrophy with secondary repolarization changes.
      The QT segment may be prolonged because of ischemia or electrolyte disturbances.
      Saddleback ST-segment elevation (Brugada epsilon waves) may be seen in leads V1-V3 in patients with a congenital predisposition to life-threatening arrhythmias. This elevation may be confused with that observed in acute anterior MI.
      Diffuse brain injuries and haemorrhagic stroke may also trigger changes in T waves, which are usually widespread and global, involving all leads.
      Convex ST-segment elevation with upright or inverted T waves is generally indicative of MI in the appropriate clinical setting. ST depression and T-wave changes may also indicate the evolution of NSTEMI.
      Patients with a permanent pacemaker may confound recognition of STEMI by 12-lead ECG due to the presence of paced ventricular contractions.
      To summarize, non-ischemic causes of ST-segment elevation include left ventricular hypertrophy, pericarditis, ventricular-paced rhythms, hypothermia, hyperkalaemia and other electrolyte imbalances, and left ventricular aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      51.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You observe a procedure to harvest the left internal thoracic (mammary) artery to...

    Correct

    • You observe a procedure to harvest the left internal thoracic (mammary) artery to be used as a graft for coronary artery bypass surgery. The left internal thoracic artery is mobilised from the inside of the chest wall and divided near the caudal end of the sternum. After dividing the internal thoracic artery at its distal end, the specialist registrar asks you to name the artery that will now have increased blood supply so that adequate blood flow is maintained to the rectus abdominis on the left side. What would your answer be?

      Your Answer: Inferior epigastric artery

      Explanation:

      The rectus abdominis muscle is supplied by the superior epigastric artery which is a branch of the internal thoracic artery. If the internal thoracic artery is thus ligated, blood would no longer flow to it. However, the superior epigastric artery communicates with the inferior epigastric artery (a branch of the external iliac artery). This means that blood could flow from the external iliac, to the inferior epigastric, to the superior epigastric to the rectus abdominis.
      The superficial circumflex iliac artery and the superficial epigastric are two superficial branches of the femoral artery and do not supply the deep branches of the abdomen.
      The deep circumflex iliac artery travels along the iliac crest on the inner surface of the abdominal wall; being too lateral it doesn’t supply blood to the rectus abdominis.
      The distal portions of the umbilical arteries are obliterated in adults to form the medial umbilical folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 54-year-old woman is re-admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman is re-admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and sharp chest pain 2 weeks after surgical cholecystectomy. The most probable cause of these clinical findings is:

      Your Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolus

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism is caused by the sudden blockage of a major lung blood vessel, usually by a blood clot. Symptoms include sudden sharp chest pain, cough, dyspnoea, palpitations, tachycardia or loss of consciousness. Risk factors for developing pulmonary embolism include long periods of inactivity, surgery, trauma, pregnancy, oral contraceptives, oestrogen replacement, malignancies and venous stasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient at the time of her second delivery opted for a bilateral...

    Correct

    • A patient at the time of her second delivery opted for a bilateral pudendal nerve block. In order to inject the anaesthetic agent near the pudendal nerve a anaesthetic consultant had to insert a finger into the vagina and press laterally to palpate which landmark?

      Your Answer: Ischial spine

      Explanation:

      The ischial spine is always palpated through the walls of the vagina when performing a transvaginal pudendal nerve block and can easily be palpated on the lateral wall of the vagina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old man with Crohn's disease has undergone a number of resections. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with Crohn's disease has undergone a number of resections. His BMI is currently 18 kg/m2 and his albumin levels are 2.5 g/dL. He generally feels well but does have a small localised perforation of his small bowel. The gastroenterologists are giving him azathioprine. What should be the most appropriate advice regarding feeding?

      Your Answer: Enteral feeding

      Correct Answer: Parenteral feeding

      Explanation:

      This patient is malnourished. Although surgery is imminent, it is best for him to be nutritionally optimised first. As he may have reduced surface area for absorption and has a localised perforation, total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is likely the best feeding modality.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has laid down guidelines for identifying patients as malnourished or at risk of malnourishment, in order to start oral, enteral, or parenteral nutrition support, alone or in combination.

      Following patients are identified as malnourished:
      1. BMI <18.5 kg/m2
      2. Unintentional weight loss of >10% within the last 3–6 months
      3. BMI <20 kg/m2 and unintentional weight loss of >5% within the last 3–6 months

      Following patients are at risk of malnutrition:
      1. Eaten nothing or little for >5 days and/or likely to eat little or nothing for the next 5 days or longer
      2. Poor absorptive capacity and/or
      3. High nutrient loss and/or
      4. High metabolic rate

      Considering the method of parenteral nutrition:
      1. For feeding <14 days, consider feeding via a peripheral venous catheter
      2. For feeding >30 days, use a tunnelled subclavian line,
      continuous administration in severely unwell patients
      3. If feed needed for >2 weeks, consider changing from continuous to cyclical feeding
      4. Do not give >50% of daily regime to unwell patients in the first 24–48 hours
      5. In surgical patients, if malnourished with unsafe swallow or a non-functional GI tract or perforation, consider perioperative parenteral feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A growing tumour is impinging on the lingual artery in the floor of...

    Incorrect

    • A growing tumour is impinging on the lingual artery in the floor of the mouth. Which structure will experience decreased blood flow?

      Your Answer: The genioglossus muscle

      Correct Answer: The sublingual gland

      Explanation:

      The paired sublingual glands are major salivary glands in the mouth. They are the smallest, most diffuse, and the only unencapsulated major salivary glands. They provide only 3-5% of the total salivary volume. The gland receives its blood supply from the sublingual and submental arteries. The sublingual artery is a branch of the lingual artery, thus damage to the lingual artery will decrease the blood flow to the sublingual gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 34-year-old male is admitted electively for a right inguinal hernia repair under...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old male is admitted electively for a right inguinal hernia repair under local anaesthesia. He is otherwise asymptomatic and well. However, his family history shows that his grandfather died from a pulmonary embolism.What should be the most appropriate form of thromboprophylaxis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Low-dose low-molecular-weight heparin and pneumatic compression stockings

      Correct Answer: No prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      Repair of an inguinal hernia under local anaesthesia has a short operative time, and patients are usually ambulant immediately after. Furthermore, the family history of this patient is unlikely to be significant and therefore, he is at a very low risk of developing a pulmonary embolism (PE).

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) may develop insidiously in many surgical patients. If left untreated, it may progress to PE. The following surgical patients are at increased risk of developing DVT:

      1. Surgery greater than 90 minutes at any site or greater than 60 minutes if the procedure involves lower limbs or pelvis
      2. Acute admissions with inflammatory process involving the abdominal cavity
      3. Expected significant reduction in mobility
      4. Age over 60 years
      5. Known malignancy
      6. Thrombophilia
      7. Previous thrombosis
      8. BMI >30 kg/m2
      9. Taking hormone replacement therapy or contraceptive pills
      10. Varicose veins with phlebitis

      Thromboprophylaxis can be mechanical or therapeutic. The former includes:
      1. Early ambulation after surgery: cheap and effective
      2. Compression stockings (contraindicated in peripheral arterial disease)
      3. Intermittent pneumatic compression devices
      4. Foot impulse devices

      Therapeutic agents for thromboprophylaxis are:
      1. Low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)
      2. Unfractionated heparin
      3. Dabigatran

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What percentage of cardiac output is delivered to the skin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of cardiac output is delivered to the skin?

      Your Answer: 12%

      Correct Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      Making up 4-5% of total body weight, the skin receives approximately 2% of cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease, is undergoing haemodialysis. She has normocytic...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease, is undergoing haemodialysis. She has normocytic normochromic anaemia. What is the best treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Erythropoietin

      Explanation:

      E erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone that is released by the kidney. It is responsible for the regulation of red blood cell production in the body. It can be made using recombinant technology and is used in the treatment of anaemia of chronic renal failure and in patients under going chemotherapy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60 year old woman with Crohn's disease presents with a high output...

    Correct

    • A 60 year old woman with Crohn's disease presents with a high output enterocutaneous fistula. She is started on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to reduce the output of the fistula and improve her nutritional status. Which of the following statements regarding TPN is incorrect?

      Your Answer: It may result in metabolic complications such a refeeding syndrome, resulting in hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia, and hyperphosphatemia

      Explanation:

      Answer: It may result in metabolic complications such a refeeding syndrome, resulting in hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia, and hyperphosphatemia.

      Refeeding syndrome can be defined as the potentially fatal shifts in fluids and electrolytes that may occur in malnourished patients receiving artificial refeeding (whether enterally or parenterally. These shifts result from hormonal and metabolic changes and may cause serious clinical complications. The hallmark biochemical feature of refeeding syndrome is hypophosphatemia. However, the syndrome is complex and may also feature abnormal sodium and fluid balance; changes in glucose, protein, and fat metabolism; thiamine deficiency; hypokalaemia; and hypomagnesaemia.
      During refeeding, glycaemia leads to increased insulin and decreased secretion of glucagon. Insulin stimulates glycogen, fat, and protein synthesis. This process requires minerals such as phosphate and magnesium and cofactors such as thiamine. Insulin stimulates the absorption of potassium into the cells through the sodium-potassium ATPase symporter, which also transports glucose into the cells. Magnesium and phosphate are also taken up into the cells. Water follows by osmosis. These processes result in a decrease in the serum levels of phosphate, potassium, and magnesium, all of which are already depleted. The clinical features of the refeeding syndrome occur as a result of the functional deficits of these electrolytes and the rapid change in basal metabolic rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 33 year old morbidly obese women is considered for bariatric surgery. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old morbidly obese women is considered for bariatric surgery. Which of the options provided below would most likely be associated with the highest long term failure rates?

      Your Answer: Gastric band

      Correct Answer: Intra gastric balloon

      Explanation:

      The intragastric balloon aids weight loss by slowing the rate at which food enters the stomach and by stimulating gastric stretch receptors. But lifestyle changes, including behaviour modification, exercise and a healthy diet, are crucial for maintaining weight loss once the device is removed. Intragastric balloon is really only suitable as a bridge to a more definitive surgical solution and is associated with a high failure rates and complications.

      Gastric banding: band applied to upper stomach which can be inflated or deflated with normal saline. This affects satiety. Over a 5 year period complications requiring further surgery occur in up to 15% cases.

      Roux-en-Y gastric bypass: a gastric pouch is formed and connected to the jejunum. Patients achieve greater and more long-term weight loss than gastric banding.

      Sleeve gastrectomy: body and fundus resected to leave a small section of stomach

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 55 year old man undergoes a live donor related renal transplant. He...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old man undergoes a live donor related renal transplant. He has noticed that over the past few years following the transplant, his renal function has progressively deteriorated. What is the most likely underlying explanation?

      Your Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Transplantation is a process by which cells, tissues, or organs (a graft) from the donor are transplanted into a host (or recipient). The immune system’s ability to recognize and respond to foreign antigens bring challenges to transplantation.
      Type IV hypersensitivity is characterized by cell-mediated response rather than antibodies as in other types of hypersensitivity reactions. Specifically, the T lymphocytes are involved in the development of the sensitivity, hence called cell-mediated hypersensitivity.
      After exposure to antigens, through a series of biochemical events, the T-cells will be activated. By releasing some chemicals, the T-cells activate other white blood cells to mount an immune response.
      Rejection of transplant occurs months to years later. In chronic rejection, there is intimal fibrosis with vascular thickening, leading to ischemic changes. Mononuclear infiltrates with prominent plasma cells are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Organ Transplantation
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is a landmark to identify the site of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a landmark to identify the site of the 2nd costal cartilage?

      Your Answer: Sternal angle

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle is an important part where the second costal cartilage attaches to the sternum. Finding the sternal angle will help in finding the second costal cartilage and intercostal space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 55-year old gentleman presented to the doctor with worsening dysphagia for both...

    Correct

    • A 55-year old gentleman presented to the doctor with worsening dysphagia for both solids and liquids over 6 months. This was associated with regurgitation of undigested food and occasional chest pain. Barium swallow revealed distal oesophageal dilatation with lack of peristalsis in the distal two-third oesophagus. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Achalasia is an oesophageal motility disorder where inappropriate contractions in the oesophagus lead to reduced peristalsis and failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax properly in response to swallowing. Classical triad of symptoms include dysphagia to fluids followed by solids, chest pain and regurgitation of undigested food. Other symptoms include belching, hiccups, weight loss and cough. Diagnosis is by:
      – X-ray with a barium swallow or oesophagography : narrowing at the gastroesophageal junction (‘bird/parrot beak’ or ‘rat tail’ appearance) and various degrees of mega-oesophagus (oesophageal dilatation) as the oesophagus is gradually stretched by retained food. Effectiveness of treatment can be measured with a 5-minute timed barium swallow.
      – Manometry – probe measures the pressure waves in different parts of oesophagus and stomach while swallowing.
      – Endoscopy
      – CT scan to exclude other causes like malignancy
      – Pathological examination showing defect in the nerves which control oesophageal motility (myenteric plexus).
      In Chagas disease, there is destruction of ganglion cells by Trypanosoma cruzi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 42 - year old male patient with an acute onset headache was...

    Correct

    • A 42 - year old male patient with an acute onset headache was brought in to the emergency department with suspicion of a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH). The SHO on call decided to have a diagnostic lumbar puncture after computed topography scan failed to support the suspicion. To perform a successful lumbar puncture without causing injury to the spine, which anatomical landmark should guide the SHO to locate the fourth vertebra for insertion of the spinal needle?

      Your Answer: Iliac crest

      Explanation:

      The safest spinal level for conducting a lumbar puncture, is at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra. The anatomical landmark used to locate the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4), is the iliac crest. The needle can safely be inserted either above or below L4. The conus medullaris is at the level of the border of L1 and L2 so L4 is safely distant from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves...

    Incorrect

    • In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves coincide with?

      Your Answer: Beginning of diastole

      Correct Answer: Second heart sound

      Explanation:

      The beginning of ventricular systole corresponds to the beginning of the QRS complex in the ECG. The beginning of the ventricular systole also corresponds to the closure of the atrioventricular valves, causing the first heart sound (S1). S2, the second heart sound is due to closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves at the end of ventricular systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - When exposing the right saphenofemoral junction for flush-ligation of the saphenous vein, which...

    Incorrect

    • When exposing the right saphenofemoral junction for flush-ligation of the saphenous vein, which of the following is the most likely to be seen passing through this opening?

      Your Answer: Saphenous nerve

      Correct Answer: Superficial external pudendal artery

      Explanation:

      The saphenous opening is an oval opening in the fascia lata. It is covered by the cribriform fascia and It is so called because it is perforated by the great saphenous vein and by numerous blood and lymphatic vessels and the superficial external pudendal artery pierces it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 54 year old man undergoes Milligan Morgan haemorrhoidectomy. He had no associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old man undergoes Milligan Morgan haemorrhoidectomy. He had no associated co-morbidities. Which of the following would be the best option for immediate post operative analgesia?

      Your Answer: Pudendal nerve block

      Correct Answer: Caudal block

      Explanation:

      Open haemorrhoidectomy is traditionally viewed as a painful procedure. Most operations are performed under general or regional anaesthesia. Following excisional haemorrhoidectomy, severe pain is not unusual, a well placed caudal anaesthetic will counter this. A pudendal nerve block is an alternative but is less effective than a caudal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - In what form are fats primarily transported in the body? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what form are fats primarily transported in the body?

      Your Answer: Cholesterol

      Correct Answer: Free fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Fat is mainly transported in the body as free fatty acids. Once out of the adipose cell, the free fatty acids get ionized and combine with albumin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and transmits the accessory meningeal artery?

      Your Answer: Foramen spinosum

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 33 year old man with fulminant ulcerative colitis underwent a subtotal colectomy....

    Correct

    • A 33 year old man with fulminant ulcerative colitis underwent a subtotal colectomy. Which type of stoma would most likely be fashioned?

      Your Answer: End ileostomy

      Explanation:

      Subtotal colectomy is resection of the entire right, transverse, left and part of the sigmoid colon. The rectal stump is closed and an end ileostomy fashioned in the right iliac fossa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just over the base of the spine of your scapula?

      Your Answer: Dorsal root of T2

      Correct Answer: Dorsal primary ramus of C7

      Explanation:

      The first branches off spinal nerves are called the dorsal and ventral rami. The dorsal rami mediate sensation of the skin over the back and motor supply to the true muscles of the back whilst the ventral rami gives sensation to the skin over the limbs and the skin that is over the ventral side of the trunk. It also gives motor supply to the skeletal muscles of the neck, the trunk and extremities. Hence, itchiness of the part of the skin that is over the spine of the scapula would be mediated by the primary ramus of C7. Accessory nerve doesn’t have any sensory innervation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm...

    Correct

    • A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm mass just below the right nipple, which shows multiple fissures. What finding is likely associated with her condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus infection

      Explanation:

      Breast abscess occur commonly in lactating mothers in the postpartum period due to cracking of the nipple. It is commonly caused due to Staphylococcus aureus infection. Fat necrosis usually results from trauma wherein an ill-defined mass is formed. Ductal carcinomas are malignant masses which are not tender usually, and rare in the young age group. Plasma cell mastitis affect women in an older age group. Sclerosing adenosis is a type of fibrocystic disease which can lead to a tender, cystic mass but no fissuring or cracks are seen in the nipple. Fibroadenoma and lipomas are non-tender, well-defined masses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion...

    Correct

    • Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion in the:

      Your Answer: Pons

      Explanation:

      Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep, as the summed activity of the brain’s neurons is quite similar to that during waking hours. Characterised by rapid movements of the eyes, most of the vividly recalled dreams occur during this stage of sleep. The total time of REM sleep for an adult is about 90–120 min per night.
      Certain neurones in the brainstem, known as REM sleep-on cells, which are located in the pontine tegmentum, are particularly active during REM sleep and are probably responsible for its occurrence. The eye movements associated with REM are generated by the pontine nucleus with projections to the superior colliculus and are associated with PGO (pons, geniculate, occipital) waves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 47-year-old male is referred to a clinic for consideration of resection of...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old male is referred to a clinic for consideration of resection of lung malignancy. He reports shortness of breath and haemoptysis. Investigations reveal corrected calcium of 2.84 mmol/l, FEV 1 of 1.9L and histology of squamous cell carcinoma. The patient is noted to have hoarseness of voice. Which one of the following is a contraindication to surgical resection in lung cancer?

      Your Answer: Vocal cord paralysis

      Explanation:

      The hoarseness of voice implies vocal cord paralysis denoting the spread of malignancy which is a contraindication to surgery.

      Summary of Guidelines on the selection of patients with lung cancer for surgery (Related to this case)

      PART I: FITNESS FOR SURGERY
      Age:
      1. Perioperative morbidity increases with advancing age. Elderly patients undergoing lung resection are more likely to require intensive perioperative support. Preoperatively, a careful assessment of co-morbidity needs to be made.
      2. Surgery for clinically stage I and II disease can be as effective in patients over 70 years as in younger patients. Such patients should be considered for surgical treatment regardless of age.
      3. Age over 80 alone is not a contraindication to lobectomy or wedge resection for clinical stage I disease.
      4. Pneumonectomy is associated with higher mortality risk in the elderly. Age should be a factor in deciding suitability for pneumonectomy.

      Pulmonary function:
      There should be a formal liaison in borderline cases between the referring chest physician and the thoracic surgical team.
      2.No further respiratory function tests are required for a lobectomy if the post-bronchodilator FEV1 is >1.5 litres and for a pneumonectomy, if the post-bronchodilator FEV1 is >2.0 litres, provided that there is no evidence of interstitial lung disease or unexpected disability due to shortness of breath.
      STEP 1
      3.All patients not clearly operable on the basis of spirometry should have: (a) full pulmonary function tests including estimation of transfer factor (TLCO); (b) measurement of oxygen saturation on air at rest; and (c) a quantitative isotope perfusion scan if a pneumonectomy is being considered.
      4.These data should be used to calculate estimated postoperative FEV1 expressed as % predicted and the estimated postoperative TLCO expressed as % predicted, using either the lung scan for pneumonectomy or an anatomical equation for lobectomy, taking account of whether the segments to be removed are ventilated or obstructed.
      STEP 2
      5.(a) Estimated postoperative FEV1 >40% predicted and estimated postoperative TLCO >40% predicted and oxygen saturation (SaO 2) >90% on air: average risk.
      (b)Estimated postoperative FEV1 <40% predicted and estimated postoperative TLCO <40% predicted: high risk.
      (c)All other combinations: consider exercise testing.
      6.Patients for whom the risk of resection is still unclear after step 2 tests should be referred for exercise testing.
      STEP 3
      7.(a) The best distance on two shuttle walk tests of <25 shuttles (250 m) or desaturation during the test of more than 4% SaO 2 indicates a patient is a high risk for surgery.
      (b)Other patients should be referred for a formal cardiopulmonary exercise test. For cardiopulmonary exercise testing peak oxygen consumption (V˙O 2peak) of more than 15 ml/kg/min indicates that a patient is an average risk for surgery.
      (c)A V˙O 2peak of <15 ml/kg/min indicates that a patient is a high risk for surgery. PART II: OPERABILITY
      Diagnosis and staging
      1.All patients being considered for surgery should have a plain chest radiograph and a computed tomographic (CT) scan of the thorax including the liver and adrenal glands.
      2.Confirmatory diagnostic percutaneous needle biopsy in patients presenting with peripheral lesions is not mandatory in patients who are otherwise fit, particularly if there are previous chest radiographs showing no evidence of a lesion.
      3.Patients with mediastinal nodes greater than 1 cm in short-axis diameter on the CT scan should undergo biopsy by staging mediastinoscopy, anterior mediastinotomy, or needle biopsy as appropriate.
      Operability and adjuvant therapy
      1.The proportion of patients found to be inoperable at operation should be 5–10%.
      2.Patients with stage I (cT1N0 and cT2N0) and stage II (cT1N1, cT2N1 and cT3N0) tumours should be considered operable.
      3.Patients with stage I tumours have a high chance and those with stage II tumours a reasonable chance of being cured by surgery alone.
      4.Patients who are known preoperatively to have stage IIIA (cT3N1 and cT1–3N2) tumours have a low chance of being cured by surgery alone but might be considered operable in the context of a trial of surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy.
      5.Participation in prospective trials of multimodality treatment for locally advanced disease is strongly recommended.
      6.Some small individual studies indicate a place for surgery in T4N0 and T4N1 tumours within stage IIIB, few long term data are available. Generally, stage IIIB tumours with node involvement and stage IV tumours should be considered inoperable.
      7.There is no place for postoperative radiotherapy following complete primary tumour resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An ultrasound report of a 35-year old female patient revealed that she had...

    Correct

    • An ultrasound report of a 35-year old female patient revealed that she had cancer of the pancreas and presented with subsequent severe obstructive jaundice. In which part of this was woman's pancreas was the tumour most likely located?

      Your Answer: Head

      Explanation:

      The pancreas is divided into five parts; the head, body, neck, tail, and the uncinate process. Of the five parts, tumours located at the head of the pancreas in most instances cause obstruction of the common bile duct more often than tumours in the other parts of the pancreas. This is because the common bile duct passes through the head of the pancreas from the gallbladder and the liver (it is formed where the cystic and the hepatic bile duct join) to empty bile into the duodenum. This biliary obstruction leads to accumulation of bile in the liver and a consequent bilirubinaemia (raised levels of blood bilirubin). This results in jaundice. The pancreas is not divided into lobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in...

    Correct

    • When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in which part of the pleural space?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costo-diaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity or sac. Any fluid in the pleura will by gravity accumulate here when a patient is standing erect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left...

    Correct

    • A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left adrenal gland. The tumour, which is metastasizing to the adjacent tissues, has already extended to the left suprarenal vein. If the tumour is still spreading, which of the following veins will most likely be affected after the involvement of the left suprarenal vein?

      Your Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The suprarenal veins or also known as the veins of Warshaw, are the veins that receive blood from the suprarenal glands. These veins receive blood from the medullary venous plexus and the cortex of the adrenal glands (suprarenal glands). They are two in number – the left and the right suprarenal veins. The right suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava while the left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein. This therefore means that in the case of a metastasizing tumour involving the left suprarenal vein, the tumour will most likely extend from the left suprarenal vein to the left renal vein into which it drains.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 19-year-old female presents to the oncology clinic after noticing a painless neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female presents to the oncology clinic after noticing a painless neck lump. On examination, she is noted to have bilateral thyroid masses and multicentric nodules near the base of the thyroid. Her corrected calcium level is 2.18 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Toxic nodular goitre

      Correct Answer: Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia

      Explanation:

      Based on the aforementioned findings in this case, the most likely diagnosis is medullary carcinoma of the thyroid associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN).

      Medullary thyroid cancer is a tumour of the parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid and is neural crest in origin. It may be familial and occur as part of the MEN 2A disease spectrum. Less than 10% of thyroid cancers are of this type with patients typically presenting as children or young adults. Diarrhoea occurs in 30% of the cases. In association with MEN syndromes, medullary thyroid cancers are always bilateral and multicentric. Spread may either be lymphatic or haematogenous, and as these tumours are not derived primarily from thyroid cells, they are not responsive to radioiodine.

      Toxic nodular goitre is very rare. In sporadic medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, patients typically present with a unilateral solitary nodule and it tends to spread early to the lymph nodes in neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35 year old patient presenting with haematemesis, heart burn and bloody stool...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old patient presenting with haematemesis, heart burn and bloody stool was diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer that had eroded the gastroduodenal artery. The patient was then rushed into theatre for an emergency procedure to control the haemorrhage. If the surgeon decided to ligate the gastroduodenal artery at its origin, which of the following arteries would most likely experience retrograde blood flow from collateral sources as a result of the ligation?

      Your Answer: Left gastric

      Correct Answer: Right gastroepiploic

      Explanation:

      In the stomach and around the duodenum, there are many arterial anastomoses. Ligation of the gastroduodenal artery would result in the retrograde flow of blood from the left gastroepiploic artery to the right gastroepiploic artery. The blood flows into the right gastroepiploic artery, a branch of the gastroduodenal artery from the left gastroepiploic artery that branches from the splenic artery. This retrograde blood flow is aimed at providing alternate blood flow to the greater curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      29.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (1/1) 100%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (3/6) 50%
Anatomy (7/12) 58%
Basic Sciences (11/20) 55%
Pathology (1/2) 50%
Post-operative Management And Critical Care (0/1) 0%
Peri-operative Care (1/3) 33%
Physiology (3/6) 50%
Generic Surgical Topics (2/4) 50%
Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery (0/1) 0%
Organ Transplantation (1/1) 100%
The Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Head And Neck Surgery (0/1) 0%
Passmed