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  • Question 1 - A 41-year-old man presents with a severe left-sided loin pain radiating to the...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old man presents with a severe left-sided loin pain radiating to the groin. Imaging demonstrates a 2 mm left-sided calculus in the distal ureter. Renal function is normal. What should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange to review the patient in two weeks with a KUB X-ray

      Explanation:

      As the stone is smaller in size, there is a strong likelihood (75%) of it to be passed spontaneously. Furthermore, distally sited stones are more likely to pass spontaneously than proximally sited ones. Hence, it should be arranged to review the patient in two weeks with a KUB X-ray.

      Urolithiasis affects up to 15% of the population worldwide. The development of sudden-onset, colicky loin to groin pain is a classical feature in the history. It is nearly always associated with haematuria that is either micro- or macroscopic. The most sensitive and specific diagnostic test is helical, non-contrast CT scanning.

      Management options for urolithiasis are:
      1. Most renal stones measuring <5mm in maximum diameter typically pass within four weeks of onset of symptoms. More intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteric obstruction, renal developmental abnormality such as horseshoe kidney, and previous renal transplant.
      2. Ureteric obstruction due to stones together with infection is a surgical emergency and the system must be decompressed. Options include nephrostomy tube placement, insertion of ureteric catheters, and ureteric stent placement.
      3. In the non-emergency setting, the preferred options for treatment include extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, percutaneous nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery (selected cases). Minimally invasive options are the most popular first-line treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 58-year-old woman diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis had been using warfarin for...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis had been using warfarin for 10 days. When she presented to the doctor she had haemorrhagic bullae and necrotic lesions in her lower limbs and buttocks. Deficiency of which of the following proteins may have caused the necrotic skin lesions?

      Your Answer: Protein C

      Explanation:

      Warfarin-induced skin necrosis is a rare complication of anticoagulant therapy that requires immediate drug cessation. The most common cutaneous findings include petechiae that progress to ecchymoses and haemorrhagic bullae. Warfarin inactivates vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and vitamin K-dependent proteins C and S. The concentration of protein C falls more rapidly than other vitamin K-dependent factors because they have a shorter half-lives. Skin necrosis is seen mainly in patients with prior protein C deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In which of the following situations will fat necrosis occur? ...

    Correct

    • In which of the following situations will fat necrosis occur?

      Your Answer: Trauma to the breast

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis is necrosis of adipose tissue with subsequent deposition of calcium, giving it a white chalky appearance. It is seen characteristically in trauma to the breast and the pancreas with subsequent involvement of the peripancreatic fat. In the breast it may present as a palpable mass with is usually painless or as an incidental finding on mammogram. Fatty acids are released from the traumatic tissue which combine with calcium in a process known as saponification, this is an example of dystrophic calcification in which calcium binds to dead tissue. The central focus is surrounded by macrophages and neutrophils initially, followed by proliferation of fibroblasts, neovascularization and lymphocytic migration to the site of the insult.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old builder presents with a reducible swelling in the right groin, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old builder presents with a reducible swelling in the right groin, it is increasing in size and has not been operated on previously. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic Bassini repair

      Correct Answer: Open Lichtenstein repair

      Explanation:

      The patient has a right groin hernia since he has a reducible lump and a history of carrying heavy objects.
      Inguinal hernias present with a reducible lump in the groin.
      A third of patients scheduled for surgery have no pain, and severe pain is uncommon (1.5% at rest and 10.2% on movement).
      Inguinal hernias are at risk of irreducibility or incarceration, which may result in strangulation and obstruction; however, unlike with femoral hernias, strangulation is rare.
      Inguinal hernias are often classified as direct or indirect, depending on whether the hernia sac bulges directly through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal (direct hernia) or passes through the internal inguinal ring alongside the spermatic cord, following the coursing of the inguinal canal (indirect hernia).

      Surgery is the only curative treatment.
      If patients with asymptomatic inguinal hernia are medically fit, they should be offered repair
      Mesh repair is associated with the lowest recurrence rates of hernia
      Laparoscopic repair is suggested for recurrent and bilateral inguinal hernias, though it may also be offered for primary inguinal hernia repair
      The EuraHS recommendations:
      – For Primary unilateral Hernia: Mesh repair, Lichtenstein or endoscopic repair are recommended. Endoscopic repair only if expertise is available.
      – Primary bilateral: Mesh repair, Lichtenstein or endoscopic.
      – Recurrent inguinal hernia: Mesh repair, modifying the technique with respect to the previous technique.
      – If previously anterior: Consider open preperitoneal mesh or endoscopic approach (if expertise is present).
      – If previously posterior: Consider an anterior mesh

      In inguinal hernia tension-free repair, synthetic non-absorbable flat meshes (or composite meshes with a non-absorbable component) should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old woman trips over a step, injuring her right ankle. Examination reveals...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman trips over a step, injuring her right ankle. Examination reveals tenderness over the lateral malleolus and X-ray demonstrates an undisplaced fracture distal to the syndesmosis. What should be the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Application of ankle boot

      Explanation:

      The patient has a Weber type A fracture, based on the Danis-Weber classification system for lateral malleolar fractures. It is a stable ankle injury and can, therefore, be managed conservatively. Whilst this patient could also be treated in a below-knee plaster, most clinicians, nowadays, treat this injury in an ankle boot. Patients are also advised to mobilise with the ankle boot as pain allows and can wean themselves off as the symptoms improve.

      The Danis-Weber classification system is based on the level of the fibula fracture in relation to the syndesmosis (the connection between the distal ends of the tibia and fibula). The more proximal, the greater the risk of syndesmotic injury and, therefore, fracture instability.

      1. Weber type A: fracture below the level of the syndesmosis
      2. Weber type B: fracture at the level of the syndesmosis/level of the tibial plafond
      3. Weber type C: fracture above the level of the syndesmosis. This includes Maisonneuve fracture (proximal fibula fracture) which can be associated with ankle instability.

      Ankle fractures are common. They affect men and women in equal numbers, but men have a higher rate as young adults (sports and contact injuries), and women have a higher rate post-menopausal (fragility-type fractures). Patients present, following a traumatic event, with a painful, swollen ankle, and reluctance/inability to bear weight.

      Radiographs of clearly deformed or dislocated joints are not necessary, and removing the pressure on the surrounding soft tissues from the underlying bony deformity is the priority. If the fracture pattern is not clinically obvious, then plain radiographs are appropriate. Antero-posterior, lateral, and mortise views are essential to evaluate fracture displacement and syndesmotic injury. Decreased tibiofibular overlap, medial joint clear space, and lateral talar shift all indicate a syndesmotic injury.

      When deciding upon treatment for an ankle fracture, one must consider both the fracture and the patient. Diabetic patients and smokers are at greater risk of post-operative complication, especially wound problems and infection. Likewise, the long term outcome of post-traumatic arthritis from a malunited ankle fracture is extremely important for a young patient, but not as relevant in the elderly. Unimalleolar Weber type A fractures, by definition, are stable and therefore, can be mobilised fully in an ankle boot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 9 year old boy is admitted with right iliac fossa pain and...

    Correct

    • A 9 year old boy is admitted with right iliac fossa pain and an appendicectomy is to be performed.Which of the following incision is the best for this procedure?

      Your Answer: Lanz

      Explanation:

      Answer: Lanz

      The Lanz and Gridiron incisions are two incisions that can be used to access the appendix, predominantly for appendectomy.

      Both incisions are made at McBurney’s point (two-thirds from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine). They involve passing through all of the abdominal muscles, transversalis fascia, and then the peritoneum, before entering the abdominal cavity.

      The Lanz incision is a transverse incision, whilst the Gridiron incision is oblique (superolateral to inferomedial). Due to its continuation with Langer’s lines, the Lanz incision produces much more aesthetically pleasing results with reduced scarring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - During a laparoscopic surgery, the surgeon visualizes the medical umbilical folds on the...

    Correct

    • During a laparoscopic surgery, the surgeon visualizes the medical umbilical folds on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall. What causes the medial umbilical folds?

      Your Answer: Obliterated umbilical arteries

      Explanation:

      The medial umbilical ligament is a structure found on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall and is covered by the medial umbilical folds. It is a paired structure that represents the remnants of the fetal umbilical artery. They have no role in humans after birth other than to be used as a landmark for exploring the medial inguinal fossa during laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 34-year old gentleman presented with acute pancreatitis to the emergency department. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year old gentleman presented with acute pancreatitis to the emergency department. On enquiry, there was found to be a history of recurrent pancreatitis, eruptive xanthomas and raised plasma triglyceride levels associated with chylomicrons. Which of the following will be found deficient in this patient?

      Your Answer: Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors

      Correct Answer: Lipoprotein lipase

      Explanation:

      The clinical features mentioned here suggest the diagnosis of hypertriglyceridemia due to lipoprotein lipase (LPL) deficiency. LPL aids in hydrolysing the lipids in lipoproteins into free fatty acids and glycerol. Apo-CII acts as a co-factor. Deficiency of this enzyme leads to hypertriglyceridemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - When conducting an exploratory laparotomy procedure of a patient diagnosed with a bleeding...

    Correct

    • When conducting an exploratory laparotomy procedure of a patient diagnosed with a bleeding ulcer of the lesser curvature of the stomach, which artery in this patient are you most likely to ligate to control the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Left gastric

      Explanation:

      The lesser curvature of the stomach is supplied by the left gastric artery along with the right gastric artery. These two arteries are the ones to most likely be ligated if bleeding was to be stopped at the lesser curvature of the stomach. The splenic artery branches from the celiac branch and supplies the spleen. The left gastro-omental, the right and left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old woman goes to the doctor complaining of myalgia, muscle cramps, and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman goes to the doctor complaining of myalgia, muscle cramps, and weakness; she is diagnosed with severe hypokalaemia. Which of the following is the most common cause of hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer: Prolonged vomiting

      Explanation:

      Potassium is one of the body’s major ions. Nearly 98% of the body’s potassium is intracellular. The ratio of intracellular to extracellular potassium is important in determining the cellular membrane potential. Small changes in the extracellular potassium level can have profound effects on the function of the cardiovascular and neuromuscular systems. Hypokalaemia may result from conditions as varied as renal or gastrointestinal (GI) losses, inadequate diet, transcellular shift (movement of potassium from serum into cells) and medications. The important causes of hypokalaemia are:
      Renal losses: renal tubular acidosis, hyperaldosteronism, magnesium depletion, leukaemia (mechanism uncertain).
      GI losses: vomiting or nasogastric suctioning, diarrhoea, enemas or laxative use, ileal loop.
      Medication effects: diuretics (most common cause), β-adrenergic agonists, steroids, theophylline, aminoglycosides.
      Transcellular shift: insulin, alkalosis.
      Severe hypokalaemia, with serum potassium concentrations of 2.5–3 meq/l, may cause muscle weakness, myalgia, tremor, muscle cramps and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 55 year-old construction worker is diagnosed with malignant melanoma. He was exposed...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year-old construction worker is diagnosed with malignant melanoma. He was exposed to what substance which increased his risk in developing mesothelioma?

      Your Answer: Beryllium

      Correct Answer: Asbestos

      Explanation:

      Mesothelioma is a rare, aggressive form of cancer that develops in the lining of the lungs, abdomen or heart. It is linked to inhalation of asbestos commonly used in ship building and the insulation industry. It has no known cure and has a very poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A machine worker fractured the medial epicondyle of his right humerus resulting in...

    Incorrect

    • A machine worker fractured the medial epicondyle of his right humerus resulting in damage to an artery running with the ulnar nerve posterior to the medial epicondyle. The artery injured is the?

      Your Answer: Interosseous recurrent

      Correct Answer: Superior ulnar collateral

      Explanation:

      The superior ulnar collateral artery runs posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus, accompanied by the ulnar nerve. This artery arises from the brachial artery near the middle of the arm and ends under the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle by anastomosing with two arteries: the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 33 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a tender...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a tender mass in the right groin area. Red streaks are also noted on the thigh that are extending from a small abrasion. Which of the following would be the most likely explanation?

      Your Answer: Abscess

      Correct Answer: Lymphadenitis

      Explanation:

      Lymphadenitis is the inflammation or enlargement of a lymph node. Lymph nodes are small, ovoid nodules normally ranging in size from a few millimetres to 2 cm. They are distributed in clusters along the course of lymphatic vessels located throughout the body. The primary function of lymph nodes is to filter out microorganisms and abnormal cells that have collected in lymph fluid. Lymph node enlargement is a common feature in a variety of diseases and may serve as a focal point for subsequent clinical investigation of diseases of the reticuloendothelial system or regional infection. The majority of cases represent a benign response to localized or systemic infection. The red streaks that are noted along the line of lymphatics are indicative of lymphadenitis.

      Groin masses are common and include:
      Herniae
      Lipomas
      Lymph nodes
      Undescended testis
      Femoral aneurysm
      Saphena varix

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his left foot. It was found that the belly of extensor digitorum muscle was lacerated and the lateral tarsal artery was severed. The lateral tarsal artery is a branch of the:

      Your Answer: Popliteal artery

      Correct Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery

      Explanation:

      The lateral tarsal artery arises from the dorsalis pedis, as the vessel crosses the navicular bone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the deep fasciae located in the anterolateral abdominal wall form the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the deep fasciae located in the anterolateral abdominal wall form the inguinal ligament?

      Your Answer: Internal abdominal oblique aponeurosis

      Correct Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The inguinal ligament is the inferior border of the aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominis and extends from the anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle from whence it is reflected backward and laterally to attach to the pectineal line and form the lacunar ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old woman has had persistent diarrhoea for a week. A stool test...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman has had persistent diarrhoea for a week. A stool test reveals an infection by Clostridium difficile. Which of the following antibiotics could be used to treat the infection?

      Your Answer: Oral vancomycin

      Explanation:

      Three antibiotics are effective against Clostridium difficile:
      Metronidazole 500 mg orally three times daily is the drug of choice, because of superior tolerability, lower price and comparable efficacy.
      Oral vancomycin 125 mg four times daily is second-line therapy in particular cases of relapse or where the infection is unresponsive to metronidazole treatment.
      Thirdly, the use of linezolid might also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 43 year old man presents with a perianal abscess which is managed...

    Correct

    • A 43 year old man presents with a perianal abscess which is managed by incision and drainage. The wound measures 2.5cm x 2.5cm. What is the best step in management?

      Your Answer: Allow the wound to heal by secondary intention

      Explanation:

      Answer: Allow the wound to heal by secondary intention

      A perianal abscess is a type of anorectal abscess that is confined to the perianal space. Other causes can include inflammatory bowel diseases such as Crohn’s disease, as well as trauma, or cancerous origins. Patients with recurrent or complex abscesses should be evaluated for Crohn’s disease. Perianal abscesses are the most common type of anorectal abscesses. These abscesses can cause significant discomfort for patients. They are located at the anal verge and if left untreated can extend into the ischioanal space or intersphincteric space since these areas are continuous with the perianal space. They can also cause systemic infection if left untreated. Patients will complain of anal pain which may be dull, sharp, aching, or throbbing. This may be accompanied by fever, chills, constipation, or diarrhoea. Patients with perianal abscess typically present with pain around the anus, which may or may not be associated with bowel movements, but is usually constant. Purulent discharge may be reported if the abscess is spontaneously draining, and blood per rectum may be reported in a spontaneously draining abscess.

      A physical exam can typically rule out other causes of anal pain, such as haemorrhoids, and will yield an area of fluctuance or an area of erythema and induration in the skin around the perianal area. Cellulitis should be noted and marked if extending beyond the fluctuant area.

      Perianal abscesses are an indication for timely incision and drainage. Antibiotic administration alone is inadequate and inappropriate. Once incision and drainage are performed, there is no need for antibiotic administration unless certain medical issues necessitate the use. Such conditions include valvular heart disease, immunocompromised patients, diabetic patients, or in the setting of sepsis. Antibiotics are also considered in these patients or cases with signs of systemic infection or significant surrounding cellulitis.

      Incision and drainage are typically performed in an office setting, or immediately in the emergency department. Local anaesthesia with 1% lidocaine may be administered to the surrounding tissues. A cruciate incision is made as close to the anal verge as possible to shorten any potential fistula formation. Blunt palpation is used to ensure no other septation or abscess pocket is missed. It is useful before completion of procedure to excise a skin flap of the cruciate incision or the tips of the four skin flaps to ensure adequate drainage and prevent premature healing of the skin over the abscess pocket. Packing may be placed initially for haemostasis. Continual packing may be further utilized for healing by secondary intention. Patients are encouraged to keep the incision and drainage site clean. Sitz baths may assist in pain relief.

      More extensive abscesses may require the operating room for the adequate exam under anaesthesia to ensure adequate drainage, as well as inspect for other diseases such as fistula in ano.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor...

    Correct

    • If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor in his fingers that worsens on reaching for an object, what part of his brain is likely to be involved?

      Your Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      The cerebellum plays an important role in the integration of sensory perception and motor output. Multiple neural pathways link the cerebellum with the motor cortex and the spinocerebellar tract. The cerebellum uses the constant feedback on body position to fine-tune the movements and integrates these pathways. The patient described here has a characteristic cerebellar tremor that is a slow, broad tremor of the extremities and occurs at the end of a purposeful movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma do NOT include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma do NOT include:

      Your Answer: Anabolic steroids

      Correct Answer: Heptitis E

      Explanation:

      Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma include hepatitis B and C, aflatoxin, anabolic steroids, alcohol cirrhosis and primary liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The most likely cause of prominent U waves on the electrocardiogram (ECG) of...

    Correct

    • The most likely cause of prominent U waves on the electrocardiogram (ECG) of a patient is:

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The U-wave, not always visible in ECGs, is thought to represent repolarisation of papillary muscles or Purkinje fibres. When seen, it is very small and occurs after the T-wave. Inverted U-waves indicate myocardial ischaemia or left ventricular volume overload. Prominent U-waves are most commonly seen in hypokalaemia. Other causes include hypercalcaemia, thyrotoxicosis, digitalis exposure, adrenaline and class 1A and 3 anti-arrhythmic agents. It can also be seen in congenital long-QT syndrome and in intracranial haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 33 year old woman presents with a history of recurrent infections and...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old woman presents with a history of recurrent infections and abscesses in the neck. Examination reveals a midline defect with an overlying scab which moves upwards on tongue protrusion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroglossal cyst

      Explanation:

      Congenital neck masses are developmental anomalies typically seen in infants or children. Common conditions include thyroglossal duct cysts, branchial cleft cysts, and cystic hygromas. These malformations present as painless neck masses, which can cause dysphagia, respiratory distress, and neck pain due to compression of surrounding structures. The location of the mass depends on the embryological structure the cysts arise from. Diagnosis is made based on clinical findings and imaging results (ultrasound, CT, MRI), which also help in surgical planning. Treatment consists of complete surgical resection to prevent recurrence and complications such as infection or abscess formation.
      The thyroglossal cyst is present from birth and usually detected during early childhood. It presents as a painless, firm midline neck mass, usually near the hyoid bone, which elevates with swallowing and tongue protrusion. May cause dysphagia or neck/throat pain if the cyst enlarges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior...

    Correct

    • The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior abdominal wall is arranged around a horizontal plane above which drainage is in a cranial direction and below which drainage is in a caudal direction. Which horizontal plane is being referred to?

      Your Answer: Level of the umbilicus

      Explanation:

      The umbilicus is a key landmark for the lymphatic and venous drainage of the abdominal wall. Above it, lymphatics drain into the axillary lymph nodes and the venous blood drains into the superior epigastric vein, into the internal thoracic vein. Below it, lymphatics drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes while venous blood drains into the inferior epigastric vein and the external iliac vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - When inserting a chest drain anteriorly into the second intercostal space, one must...

    Correct

    • When inserting a chest drain anteriorly into the second intercostal space, one must identify the second costal cartilage by palpating which landmark?

      Your Answer: Sternal angle

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle is the site for identification of the second rib as the second rib is attached to the sternum at this point.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which statement is correct regarding secretions from the adrenal glands? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is correct regarding secretions from the adrenal glands?

      Your Answer: Aldosterone is producd by the zona glomerulosa

      Explanation:

      The secretions of the adrenal glands by zone are:
      Zona glomerulosa – aldosterone
      Zona fasciculata – cortisol and testosterone
      Zona reticularis – oestradiol and progesterone
      Adrenal medulia – adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm? ...

    Correct

    • Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm?

      Your Answer: Perineal membrane

      Explanation:

      The urogenital fascia is mostly commonly referred to as the perineal membrane. This term refers to an anatomical fibrous membrane in the perineum. It is triangular in shape, and thus at times referred to as the triangular ligament. It is about 4 cm in depth. Its The perineal membrane’s apex is anterior and is separated from the arcuate pubic ligament by an oval opening for the passage of the deep dorsal vein of the penis. The lateral marginas of this triangular ligament are attached on either side to the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium, above the crus penis. Its base faces the rectum, and connects to the central tendinous point of the perineum. The pelvic fascia and Colle’s fascia is fused to the base of this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following can occur even in the absence of brainstem co-ordination?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can occur even in the absence of brainstem co-ordination?

      Your Answer: Vomiting

      Correct Answer: Gastric emptying

      Explanation:

      Although gastric emptying is under both neural and hormonal control, it does not require brainstem co-ordination. Increased motility of the orad stomach (decreased distensibility) or of the distal stomach (increased peristalsis), decreased pyloric tone, decreased duodenal motility or a combination of these, all increase the rate of gastric emptying. The major control mechanism for gastric emptying is through duodenal gastric feedback. The duodenum has receptors for the presence of acid, carbohydrate, fat and protein digestion products, osmolarity different from that of plasma, and distension. Activating these receptors decreases the rate of gastric emptying. Neural mechanisms involve both enteric and vagal pathways and a vagotomy impairs the gastric emptying regulation. CCK (cholecystokinin) slows gastric emptying at physiological levels of the hormone. Gastrin, secretin and glucose-1-phosphate also slow gastric emptying, but require higher doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was...

    Correct

    • After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was a known case of diabetic nephropathy had persistent metabolic acidosis. The patient appeared well perfused, with normal vital signs and normal fluid balance. Investigations revealed:Sodium = 132 mmol/l, Potassium = 6.6 mmol/l, Creatinine = 185 μmol/l (2.16 mg/dl), Chloride = 109 μmol/l, 8am cortisol = 500 nmol/l (18 μg/dl), pH = 7.29, p(CO2) = 27 mmHg, p(O2) = 107 mmHg, standard bicarbonate = 12 mmol/l. What is the likely causes of his acidosis?

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis here is due to low bicarbonate. The low p(CO2) is seen in compensation. The anion gap is normal, ruling out intra-abdominal ischaemia (which leads to metabolic acidosis). If it was a gastrointestinal aetiology, low potassium would be seen. The history of diabetic nephropathy predisposes to renal tubular acidosis. Type 4 (hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism) is associated with high potassium and is found in diabetic and hypertensive renal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 20 year old lady is involved in a motor vehicle accident in...

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year old lady is involved in a motor vehicle accident in which her car crashes head on into a truck. She complains of severe chest pain and a chest x-ray performed as part of a trauma series shows widening of the mediastinum. Which of the following is the most likely injury that she has sustained?

      Your Answer: Rupture of the aorta proximal to the left subclavian artery

      Correct Answer: Rupture of the aorta distal to the left subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      Answer: Rupture of the aorta distal to the left subclavian artery

      Aortic rupture is typically the result of a blunt aortic injury in the context of rapid deceleration. After traumatic brain injury, blunt aortic rupture is the second leading cause of death following blunt trauma. Thus, this condition is commonly fatal as blood in the aorta is under great pressure and can quickly escape the vessel through a tear, resulting in rapid haemorrhagic shock, exsanguination, and death.
      Traumatic aortic transection or rupture is associated with a sudden and rapid deceleration of the heart and the aorta within the thoracic cavity. Anatomically, the heart and great vessels (superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, pulmonary arteries, pulmonary veins, and aorta) are mobile within the thoracic cavity and not fixed to the chest wall, unlike the descending abdominal aorta. Injury to the aorta during a sudden deceleration commonly originates near the terminal section of the aortic arch, also known as the isthmus. This portion lies just distal to the take-off of the left subclavian artery at the intersection of the mobile and fixed portions of the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A correct statement about the RECTUM: ...

    Correct

    • A correct statement about the RECTUM:

      Your Answer: It is an important anastomotic site for the portal and caval (systemic) venous systems

      Explanation:

      The rectum is part of the gastrointestinal tract that is continuous above with the sigmoid colon and below with the anal canal. It contains both longitudinal and circular smooth muscles. These are supplied by the enteric nervous system. It is about 12 cm long. It has no sacculations comparable with those of the colon. It has three permanent transverse folds called the valves of Houston. The peritoneum is related to the upper two thirds of the rectum only whereas the lower part is not covered by peritoneum. It is supplied by the superior rectal (hemorrhoidal) branch of the inferior mesenteric artery and the median sacral artery that is a direct branch from the abdominal aorta. It is drained by veins that begin as a plexus that surround the anus. These veins form anastomoses with the portal system (portocaval anastomoses).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 15 year old girl is taken to the A&E after complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old girl is taken to the A&E after complaining of right iliac fossa pain which started suddenly. She is well other than having some right iliac fossa tenderness but no guarding. She has no fever and the urinary dipstick result is normal. Her last menstrual cycle was 14 days ago which was also normal and the pregnancy test done is negative. What is the most likely underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Mittelschmerz

      Explanation:

      Answer: Mittelschmerz

      Mittelschmerz is midcycle abdominal pain due to leakage of prostaglandin-containing follicular fluid at the time of ovulation. It is self-limited, and a theoretical concern is treatment of pain with prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, which could prevent ovulation. The pain of mittelschmerz usually occurs in the lower abdomen and pelvis, either in the middle or to one side. The pain can range from a mild twinge to severe discomfort and usually lasts from minutes to hours. In some cases, a small amount of vaginal bleeding or discharge might occur. Some women have nausea, especially if the pain is very strong.
      Diagnosis of pelvic pain in women can be challenging because many symptoms and signs are insensitive and nonspecific. As the first priority, urgent life-threatening conditions (e.g., ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, ruptured ovarian cyst) and fertility-threatening conditions (e.g., pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian torsion) must be considered.
      Many women never have pain at ovulation. Some women, however, have mid-cycle pain every month, and can tell by the pain that they are ovulating.
      As an egg develops in the ovary, it is surrounded by follicular fluid. During ovulation, the egg and the fluid, as well as some blood, are released from the ovary. While the exact cause of mittelschmerz is not known, it is believed to be caused by the normal enlargement of the egg in the ovary just before ovulation. Also, the pain could be caused by the normal bleeding that comes with ovulation.
      Pelvic inflammatory disease can be ruled out if the patient is not sexually active.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      13
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Generic Surgical Topics (5/7) 71%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Basic Sciences (14/21) 67%
Pathology (3/5) 60%
The Abdomen (2/3) 67%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (6/9) 67%
Physiology (5/7) 71%
Vascular (0/1) 0%
Peri-operative Care (1/1) 100%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (1/2) 50%
Head And Neck Surgery (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (0/1) 0%
Passmed