00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Which tumour site is more commonly involved in adults than in children? ...

    Correct

    • Which tumour site is more commonly involved in adults than in children?

      Your Answer: Lung

      Explanation:

      In adults, the most common primary site of tumour is in the lungs, compared to children wherein the most common primary site is the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old right-handed tennis player presents to the A&E department with a painful,...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old right-handed tennis player presents to the A&E department with a painful, swollen right arm. On examination, his upper limb pulses are present, but he has dusky fingers. A diagnosis of axillary vein thrombosis is made and confirmed. He is immediately started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH).What should be the next best step of management to achieve venous patency?

      Your Answer: Continue with LMWH only

      Correct Answer: Catheter-directed tPA

      Explanation:

      Catheter-directed thrombolysis (CDT) is recommended as the next step of management for patients with proximal upper-extremity deep vein thrombosis (UEDVT) of recent onset or severe symptoms.

      Primary UEDVT is less common than secondary forms. The most common primary form is effort-related thrombosis, also called Paget-Schroetter syndrome. It usually occurs in otherwise healthy young men who report, before the onset of thrombosis, vigorous arm exercise such as lifting weights, playing badminton, pitching a baseball, or performing repetitive overhead activities, such as painting or car repair. Most patients with effort-related UEDVT have an underlying venous thoracic outlet syndrome (VTOS). Secondary causes of UEDVT include central line insertion, malignancy, or pacemakers.

      Patients with UEDVT typically present with heaviness, discomfort, pain, paraesthesia, and swelling of the affected arm. Physical examination may reveal pitting oedema, redness, or cyanosis of the involved extremity; visible collateral veins at the shoulder or upper arm; and fever.

      Diagnosis is made by:
      1. FBC: platelet function
      2. Coagulation profile
      3. Liver function tests
      4. Duplex scan: investigation of choice
      5. D-dimer testing
      6. CT scan: for VTOS

      Treatment options for primary UEDVT are as follows:
      1. Anticoagulation therapy should be undertaken with a once-daily regimen of LMWH or fondaparinux for at least five days, followed by vitamin K antagonists for at least three months. Unfractionated heparin instead of LMWH is recommended for patients with renal failure or for those treated with CDT.

      2. Early thrombus removal and restoration of venous patency should be done immediately after starting the patient on heparin. Catheter-based therapy is recommended for patients with proximal UEDVT of recent onset and severe symptoms, low risk for bleeding complications, and good functional status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 46-year-old male is involved in a polytrauma and requires a massive transfusion...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old male is involved in a polytrauma and requires a massive transfusion of packed red cells and fresh frozen plasma. Three hours later he develops marked hypoxia and his CVP is noted to be 10mm Hg. A chest x-ray shows bilateral diffuse pulmonary infiltrates. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transfusion associated lung injury

      Explanation:

      A massive blood transfusion is defined as the replacement of a patient’s total blood volume in <24 h
      The abnormalities which result include effects upon coagulation status, serum biochemistry, acid-base balance and temperature homeostasis.
      One of the complications is Transfusion-related acute lung injury
      (TRALI) which is the most common cause of major morbidity and death after transfusion. It presents as an acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) either during or within 6 h of transfusion.

      Clinical features
      Hypoxaemia, dyspnoea, cyanosis, fever, tachycardia and hypotension result from non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema. The radiographic appearance is of bilateral pulmonary infiltration, characteristic of pulmonary oedema. It is important to differentiate TRALI from other causes of ARDS such as circulatory overload or myocardial or valvular heart disease. Invasive monitoring in TRALI demonstrates normal intracardiac pressures

      Pathogenesis
      Two different mechanisms for the pathogenesis of TRALI have been identified: immune (antibody-mediated) and non-immune. Immune TRALI results from the presence of leucocyte antibodies in the plasma of donor blood directed against human leucocyte antigens (HLA) and human neutrophil alloantigens (HNA) in the recipient. Antibodies present in the recipient only rarely cause TRALI. In up to 40% of patients, leucocyte antibodies cannot be detected in either donor or recipient. In these cases, it is possible that reactive lipid products released from the membranes of the donor blood cells act as the trigger. This is known as non-immune TRALI.
      The target cell in both forms of TRALI is the neutrophil granulocyte. On activation of their acute phase cycle, these cells migrate to the lungs where they become trapped within the pulmonary microvasculature. Oxygen-free radicals and other proteolytic enzymes are then released which destroy the endothelial cells of the lung capillaries. A pulmonary capillary leak syndrome develops with the exudation of fluid and protein into the alveoli resulting in pulmonary oedema. The majority of reactions are severe, and often life-threatening; 70% require mechanical ventilation and 6–9% are fatal. A definitive diagnosis requires antibody detection. The mortality in non-immune TRALI is lower, and the syndrome is encountered predominantly in critically ill patients.
      Other Complications of blood transfusion
      Early:
      – Haemolytic reactions
      Immediate
      Delayed
      – Non-haemolytic febrile reactions
      – Allergic reactions to proteins, IgA
      – Reactions secondary to bacterial contamination
      – Circulatory overload
      – Air embolism
      – Thrombophlebitis
      – Hyperkalaemia
      – Citrate toxicity
      – Hypothermia
      – Clotting abnormalities (after massive transfusion)
      Late:
      – Transmission of infection
      – Viral (hepatitis A, B, C, HIV, CMV)
      – Bacterial (Treponeum pallidum, Salmonella)
      – Parasites (malaria, toxoplasma)
      – Graft-vs-host disease
      – Iron overload (after chronic transfusions)
      – Immune sensitization (Rhesus D antigen)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 37 year old female is admitted after she vomited blood. An upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 37 year old female is admitted after she vomited blood. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is performed and a large ulcer in the first part of the duodenum is noted. Attempts are made to endoscopically clip and inject the ulcer which is bleeding profusely but they are unsuccessful. What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Therapeutic angiogram

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy and underrunning of the ulcer

      Explanation:

      Ulcer bleeding stops spontaneously in about 80% of patients. Only a small percentage require specific measures to stop bleeding. surgery remains the most definitive method of controlling ulcer haemorrhage, and is indicated when endoscopic haemostasis fails to control the bleeding, or when rebleeding occurs. The morbidity and mortality of emergency surgery for ulcer bleeding is high. In principle, the operation performed should be the minimum compatible with permanent haemostasis. The choice of operations is determined by the site and size of the ulcer as well as the experience and preference of the surgeon. Most bleeding duodenal ulcers may be managed by underrunning the bleeding vessel together with vagotomy and pyloroplasty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient is unable to move the mandible to the left. Which muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is unable to move the mandible to the left. Which muscle is affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Left lateral pterygoid muscle

      Correct Answer: Right lateral pterygoid muscle

      Explanation:

      Patients with paralysis of the right pterygoid muscle are unable to move their mandible laterally to the left.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 39 year old man with a long standing inguinal hernia inquires about...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old man with a long standing inguinal hernia inquires about the risk of strangulation over the next year if he decides not to have surgery done. He is seen with a small, direct inguinal hernia. Which percentage matches with the likely risk of strangulation over the year?

      Your Answer: <5%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Indirect inguinal hernias have a higher risk of strangulation. The risk of strangulation and obstruction is lowest for direct inguinal hernias as they have a wide neck, which can often be monitored and managed conservatively. A study conducted showed that the cumulative probability of strangulation for inguinal hernias was 2.8 per cent, rising to 4.5 per cent after 2 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - When does the heart rate decrease? ...

    Incorrect

    • When does the heart rate decrease?

      Your Answer: On inspiration

      Correct Answer: Pressure on the eyeball

      Explanation:

      Various vagotonic manoeuvres (e.g. Valsalva manoeuvre, carotid sinus massage, pressure on eyeballs, ice-water facial immersion, swallowing of ice-cold water) result in increased parasympathetic tone through the vagus nerve which results in a decrease in heart rate. These manoeuvres may be clinically useful in terminating supraventricular arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A young lady is taken to the A&E department after she falls from...

    Incorrect

    • A young lady is taken to the A&E department after she falls from the 3rd floor balcony. A chest x-ray shows depression of the left main bronchus and deviation of the trachea to the right. What is the most likely injury that she sustained?

      Your Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Correct Answer: Aortic rupture

      Explanation:

      Answer: Aortic rupture

      Aortic rupture is typically the result of a blunt aortic injury in the context of rapid deceleration. After traumatic brain injury, blunt aortic rupture is the second leading cause of death following blunt trauma. Thus, this condition is commonly fatal as blood in the aorta is under great pressure and can quickly escape the vessel through a tear, resulting in rapid haemorrhagic shock, exsanguination, and death. Traumatic aortic transection or rupture is associated with a sudden and rapid deceleration of the heart and the aorta within the thoracic cavity.
      Features on plain chest radiography that suggest aortic injury and can help guide the further use of angiography include; an abnormal aortic arch contour, left apical cap, loss of the aorticopulmonary window, rightward deviation of the trachea, depression of the left main stem bronchus, and a wide left paravertebral pleural stripe. Also, widening of the mediastinum (greater than 8 cm) has a reported sensitivity of 81% to 100% and a specificity of 60%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left...

    Correct

    • A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left side of his lower back. His parents both have a similar history of the condition. His urine tests positive for blood. A radio dense stone is seen in the region of the mid ureter when a KUB style x-ray is done. Which of the following is most likely the composition of the stone?

      Your Answer: Cystine stone

      Explanation:

      Answer: Cystine stone

      Cystinuria is a genetic cause of kidney stones with an average prevalence of 1 in 7000 births. Cystine stones are found in 1 to 2 percent of stone formers, although they represent a higher percentage of stones in children (approximately 5 percent). Cystinuria is an inherited disorder. Inherited means it is passed down from parents to children through a defect in a specific gene. In order to have cystinuria, a person must inherit the gene from both parents.
      Cystine is a homodimer of the amino acid cysteine. Patients with cystinuria have impairment of renal cystine transport, with decreased proximal tubular reabsorption of filtered cystine resulting in increased urinary cystine excretion and cystine nephrolithiasis. The cystine transporter also promotes the reabsorption of dibasic amino acids, including ornithine, arginine, and lysine, but these compounds are soluble so that an increase in their urinary excretion does not lead to stones. Intestinal cystine transport is also diminished, but the result is of uncertain clinical significance.

      Cystinuria only causes symptoms if you have a stone. Kidney stones can be as small as a grain of sand. Others can become as large as a pebble or even a golf ball. Symptoms may include:

      Pain while urinating
      Blood in the urine
      Sharp pain in the side or the back (almost always on one side)
      Pain near the groin, pelvis, or abdomen
      Nausea and vomiting

      Struvite stones are a type of hard mineral deposit that can form in your kidneys. Stones form when minerals like calcium and phosphate crystallize inside your kidneys and stick together. Struvite is a mineral that’s produced by bacteria in your urinary tract. Bacteria in your urinary tract produce struvite when they break down the waste product urea into ammonia. For struvite to be produced, your urine needs to be alkaline. Having a urinary tract infection can make your urine alkaline. Struvite stones often form in women who have a urinary tract infection.

      Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone. Kidney stones are solid masses that form in the kidney when there are high levels of calcium, oxalate, cystine, or phosphate and too little liquid. There are different types of kidney stones. Your healthcare provider can test your stones to find what type you have. Calcium oxalate stones are caused by too much oxalate in the urine.

      What is oxalate and how does it form stones?
      Oxalate is a natural substance found in many foods. Your body uses food for energy. After your body uses what it needs, waste products travel through the bloodstream to the kidneys and are removed through urine. Urine has various wastes in it. If there is too much waste in too little liquid, crystals can begin to form. These crystals may stick together and form a solid mass (a kidney stone). Oxalate is one type of substance that can form crystals in the urine. This can happen if there is too much oxalate, too little liquid, and the oxalate “sticks” to calcium while urine is being made by the kidneys.

      Uric acid stones are the most common cause of radiolucent kidney stones in children. Several products of purine metabolism are relatively insoluble and can precipitate when urinary pH is low. These include 2- or 8-dihydroxyadenine, adenine, xanthine, and uric acid. The crystals of uric acid may initiate calcium oxalate precipitation in metastable urine concentrates.
      Uric acid stones form when the levels of uric acid in the urine is too high, and/or the urine is too acidic (pH level below 5.5) on a regular basis. High acidity in urine is linked to the following causes:
      Uric acid can result from a diet high in purines, which are found especially in animal proteins such as beef, poultry, pork, eggs, and fish. The highest levels of purines are found in organ meats, such as liver and fish. Eating large amounts of animal proteins can cause uric acid to build up in the urine. The uric acid can settle and form a stone by itself or in combination with calcium. It is important to note that a person’s diet alone is not the cause of uric acid stones. Other people might eat the same diet and not have any problems because they are not prone to developing uric acid stones.
      There is an increased risk of uric acid stones in those who are obese or diabetic.
      Patients on chemotherapy are prone to developing uric acid stones.

      Only cystine stone is inherited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Blood supply to the posterior compartment of the thigh is supplied by which...

    Correct

    • Blood supply to the posterior compartment of the thigh is supplied by which artery?

      Your Answer: Perforating

      Explanation:

      There are usually 3 perforating arteries:
      The first gives branches to the adductor brevis and magnus, biceps femoris and gluteus maximus and anastomoses with the inferior gluteal, medial and lateral femoral circumflex.
      The second artery supplies the posterior femoral muscles and anastomose with the first and third perforating vessels.
      The third supplies the posterior femoral muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior...

    Correct

    • The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior abdominal wall is arranged around a horizontal plane above which drainage is in a cranial direction and below which drainage is in a caudal direction. Which horizontal plane is being referred to?

      Your Answer: Level of the umbilicus

      Explanation:

      The umbilicus is a key landmark for the lymphatic and venous drainage of the abdominal wall. Above it, lymphatics drain into the axillary lymph nodes and the venous blood drains into the superior epigastric vein, into the internal thoracic vein. Below it, lymphatics drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes while venous blood drains into the inferior epigastric vein and the external iliac vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - When you rest your elbows on a desk, what bony landmark of the...

    Correct

    • When you rest your elbows on a desk, what bony landmark of the upper limb are you resting on?

      Your Answer: Olecranon process of the ulna

      Explanation:

      At the upper and back part of the ulna, there exists a curved eminence which is the olecranon process. This process lodges in the olecranon fossa of the humerus. It’s posterior surface is subcutaneous and this triangular area is what you rest your elbow upon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A patient is admitted to the ICU, and is prescribed tazobactam, amongst other...

    Correct

    • A patient is admitted to the ICU, and is prescribed tazobactam, amongst other drugs. What is the mechanism of action of tazobactam?

      Your Answer: Inhibits beta-lactamase

      Explanation:

      Tazobactam is a compound which inhibits the action of bacterial beta-lactamases. It is added to the extended-spectrum beta-lactam antibiotic piperacillin to broaden the spectrum of piperacillin by making it effective against organisms that express beta-lactamase and would normally degrade piperacillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer: Precentral gyrus

      Correct Answer: Postcentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary somatic sensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus and is the largest cortical receiving area for information from somatosensory receptors. Through corticocortical fibres, it then sends the information to other areas of the neocortex and further analysis takes place in the posterior parietal association cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Renal function is an indication of the state of the kidney, measured by glomerular...

    Correct

    • Renal function is an indication of the state of the kidney, measured by glomerular filtration rate (GFR). In a healthy person, GFR would be greatly increased by: 

      Your Answer: Substantial increases in renal blood flow

      Explanation:

      An increase in the rate of renal blood flow (RBF) greatly increases the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). The more plasma available (from increased RBF), the more filtrate is formed. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal (kidney) glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time. Central to the physiologic maintenance of GFR is the differential basal tone of the afferent and efferent arterioles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - During uterogrowth, the second branchial arch gives rise to which structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • During uterogrowth, the second branchial arch gives rise to which structures?

      Your Answer: Incus

      Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      The second pharyngeal arch or hyoid arch, is the second of six pharyngeal arches that develops in fetal life during the fourth week of development and assists in forming the side and front of the neck. Derivatives:
      Skeletal – From the cartilage of the second arch arises:
      Stapes,
      Temporal styloid process,
      Stylohyoid ligament, and
      Lesser cornu of the hyoid bone.
      Muscles:
      Muscles of face
      Occipitofrontalis muscle
      Platysma
      Stylohyoid muscle
      Posterior belly of Digastric
      Stapedius muscle
      Auricular muscles
      Nerve supply: Facial nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The collaborative effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles produces which action on the...

    Incorrect

    • The collaborative effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles produces which action on the jaw?

      Your Answer: Laterotrusion of the mandible

      Correct Answer: Protrude the mandible

      Explanation:

      The combined effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles results in the protrusion of the mandible. The lateral pterygoid muscle is a muscle of mastication located superiorly to the medial pterygoid muscle and has two heads. The superior head originates on the infratemporal surface and infratemporal crest of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, and the inferior head on the lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate. The insertion of this muscle is on the front margin of the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint. The unilateral contraction of the pterygoid muscle results in the laterotrusion of the mandible. It is important to note that the lateral pterygoid muscle is the only muscle of mastication that can open the jaw.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the doctor complaining of cough, shortness of breath,...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the doctor complaining of cough, shortness of breath, fever and weight loss. Chest X-ray revealed bilateral hilar and mediastinal lymph node enlargement and bilateral pulmonary opacities. Non-caseating granulomas were found on histological examination. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is an inflammatory disease of unknown aetiology that affects multiple organs but predominantly the lungs and intrathoracic lymph nodes. Systemic and pulmonary symptoms may both be present. Pulmonary involvement is confirmed by a chest X-ray and other imaging studies. The main histological finding is the presence of non-caseating granulomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Urine specific gravity allows the assessment of which of the following renal functions?...

    Correct

    • Urine specific gravity allows the assessment of which of the following renal functions?

      Your Answer: Concentration

      Explanation:

      Concentrating ability of kidneys is assessed by measuring the urine specific gravity. Normal values of urine specific gravity fall between 1.002 and 1.030 g/ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of...

    Incorrect

    • The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of the spinal cord?

      Your Answer: C8 and T1

      Correct Answer: C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1

      Explanation:

      THE correct answer is A. The posterior cord derives its fibres from the spinal nerves C5,C6,C7,C8,T1. This cord is formed from the fusion of the posterior divisions of the upper, lower, and middle trunks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45-year old with sarcoidosis has enlarged tracheobronchial lymph nodes. Which nerve is...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old with sarcoidosis has enlarged tracheobronchial lymph nodes. Which nerve is most likely to be irritated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Left phrenic

      Correct Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal

      Explanation:

      Tracheobronchial lymph nodes are located at the bifurcation of the trachea and are in three groups i.e. the right superior, left superior and inferior. The aorta arches over the left bronchus near the point of tracheal bifurcation. Thus, the nerves that are closely associated with the aorta might be irritated if these nodes become inflamed. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is such a nerve. The phrenic nerves, both the left and the right, are lateral and thus would not be affected. The right recurrent nerve loops around the right subclavian artery and is distant from this area. The right vagus artery is not associated with the aorta and the sympathetic chain is located in the posterior chest parallel to the vertebra, also not associated with the tracheobronchial tree.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old female will undergo a diagnostic laparoscopy. Which of the agents listed...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female will undergo a diagnostic laparoscopy. Which of the agents listed below should be used for inducing pneumoperitoneum?

      Your Answer: Carbon dioxide

      Explanation:

      Laparoscopic surgery involves insufflation of a gas (usually carbon dioxide) into the peritoneal cavity producing a pneumoperitoneum. This causes an increase in intra-abdominal pressure (IAP). Carbon dioxide is insufflated into the peritoneal cavity at a rate of 4–6 litre min−1 to a pressure of 10–20 mm Hg. The pneumoperitoneum is maintained by a constant gas flow of 200–400 ml min−1.

      Carbon dioxide is the most frequently used gas for insufflation of the abdomen as it is colourless, non-toxic, non-flammable and has the greatest margin of safety in the event of a venous embolus (highly soluble). It is absorbed readily from the peritoneum, causing an increase in PaCO2. This has direct, as well as indirect (by raising catecholamine levels), effects on the cardiovascular system. Thus, tachycardia, increased cardiac contractility and reduction in the diastolic filling can result in decreased myocardial oxygen supply to demand ratio and greater risk of myocardial ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - For calculation of cardiac output by Fick's principle, which of the following vessels...

    Correct

    • For calculation of cardiac output by Fick's principle, which of the following vessels is the best source of venous blood to determine the arterial-to-venous oxygen tension difference?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      Fick’s principle states that the total uptake (or release) of a substance by peripheral tissues is equal to the product of the blood flow to the peripheral tissues and the arterial– venous concentration difference (gradient) of the substance. It is used to measure the cardiac output, and the formula is Cardiac output = oxygen consumption divided by arteriovenous oxygen difference. Assuming there are no shunts across the pulmonary system, the pulmonary blood flow equals the systemic blood flow. The arterial and venous blood oxygen content is measured by sampling from the pulmonary artery (low oxygen content) and pulmonary vein (high oxygen content). Peripheral arterial blood is used as a surrogate for the pulmonary vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is the most accurate test for the diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most accurate test for the diagnosis of primary syphilis?

      Your Answer: Microbiological culture

      Correct Answer: Dark-field microscopy

      Explanation:

      Primary syphilis is transmitted via sexual contact. Lesions on genitalia, called a chancre occur after an asymptomatic incubation period of 10-90 days (average 21 days) after exposure. This chancre is a typically solitary (can be multiple), firm, painless, ulceration over the skin at the point of exposure to spirochete, seen on penis, vagina or rectum. It heals spontaneously after 4-6 weeks. Local lymphadenopathy can be seen.
      Diagnosis is made by microscopy of fluid from lesion using dark-field illumination, taking care to not confuse with other treponemal disease. Screening tests include rapid plasma regain (RPR) and Venereal Diseases Research Laboratory (VDRL) tests. False positives are known to occur with these tests and can be seen in viral infections like hepatitis, varicella, Epstein-Barr virus, tuberculosis, lymphoma, pregnancy and IV drug use. More specific tests should therefore be carried out in case these screening tests are positive. The Treponema pallidum hemagglutination assay (TPHA) and the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTAABS) test are based on monoclonal antibodies and immunofluorescence and are more specific. However, they can too show false positives with other treponemal diseases like yaws or pinta. Other confirmatory tests include those based on enzyme-linked immunoassays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - After a car accident, a 30-year-old woman is alert and only has minor,...

    Correct

    • After a car accident, a 30-year-old woman is alert and only has minor, superficial injuries. 2 hours later, she becomes unconscious and a CT scan reveals a convex, lens-shaped haemorrhage over the right parietal region. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Epidural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Epidural haematomas are usually caused by arterial bleeding, classically due to damage to the middle meningeal artery by a temporal bone fracture. Symptoms develop within minutes to several hours after the injury and consist of increasing headache, decreased level of consciousness, hemiparesis and pupillary dilation with loss of light reactivity. Around 15–20% of epidural hematomas are fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 39 year old man presents to the clinic with a headache. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old man presents to the clinic with a headache. His blood pressure is found to be 175/110 on routine screening. Examination shows no abnormalities. However, further investigations show a left-sided adrenal mass on CT. Labs reveal an elevated plasma level of metanephrines. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Pheochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Hypertension in a young patient without any obvious cause should be investigated.

      A pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting tumour typically located in the adrenal medulla. Pheochromocytomas are usually benign (∼ 90% of cases) but may also be malignant. Classic clinical features are due to excess sympathetic nervous system stimulation and involve episodic blood pressure crises with paroxysmal headaches, diaphoresis, heart palpitations, and pallor. However, a pheochromocytoma may also present asymptomatically or with persistent hypertension. Elevated catecholamine metabolites in the plasma or urine confirm the diagnosis, while imaging studies in patients with positive biochemistry are used to determine the location of the tumour. Surgical resection is the treatment of choice, but is only carried out once alpha blockade with phenoxybenzamine has become effective.

      Pheochromocytoma is said to follow a 10% rule:

      ,10% are extra-adrenal
      ,10% are bilateral
      ,10% are malignant
      ,10% are found in children
      ,10% are familial
      ,10% are not associated with hypertension
      ,10% contain calcification

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?...

    Correct

    • Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?

      Your Answer: Fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Under basal conditions, most of the energy needed by cardiac muscle for metabolism is derived from fats (60%), 35% by carbohydrates, and 5% by ketones and amino acids. However, after intake of large amounts of glucose, lactate and pyruvate are mainly used. During prolonged starvation, fat acts as the primary source. 50% of the used lipids are sourced from circulating fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following causes the maximum increase in the secretion of antidiuretic...

    Correct

    • Which of the following causes the maximum increase in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

      Your Answer: Increased plasma osmolarity

      Explanation:

      The most potent stimulus for ADH release is increased plasma osmolarity. Decreased plasma volume is a less potent stimulus in comparison. However, decrease blood volume and arterial pressure due to severe haemorrhage does lead to ADH secretion. Hypothalamic releasing factors do not control the release of posterior pituitary hormones ADH and oxytocin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 31 year old rugby player is brought to the ER after being...

    Correct

    • A 31 year old rugby player is brought to the ER after being crushed in a scrum. He briefly lost consciousness, regained it and collapsed again. On arrival, his GCS was noted to be 6/15 with dilatation of the left pupil. What would be the best definitive management in his case?

      Your Answer: Parietotemporal craniotomy

      Explanation:

      Epidural hematoma (EDH) is a traumatic accumulation of blood between the inner table of the skull and the stripped-off dural membrane. EDH results from a traumatic head injury, usually with an associated skull fracture and arterial laceration. The inciting event often is a focused blow to the head, such as that produced by a hammer or baseball bat. In 85-95% of patients, this type of trauma results in an overlying fracture of the skull. Blood vessels in close proximity to the fracture are the sources of the haemorrhage in the formation of an epidural hematoma. Because the underlying brain has usually been minimally injured, prognosis is excellent if treated aggressively. Outcome from surgical decompression and repair is related directly to patient’s preoperative neurologic condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut?

      Your Answer: Caecum

      Explanation:

      The primary intestinal loop is formed from the midgut which gives rise to the distal half of the duodenum, the jejunum, ascending colon, proximal two thirds of the transverse colon and the ileum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      11.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Sciences (13/21) 62%
Pathology (5/6) 83%
Generic Surgical Topics (2/6) 33%
Vascular (0/1) 0%
Post-operative Management And Critical Care (1/1) 100%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (2/3) 67%
Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (4/9) 44%
The Abdomen (0/1) 0%
Physiology (4/6) 67%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (0/1) 0%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Surgical Technique And Technology (1/1) 100%
Breast And Endocrine Surgery (0/1) 0%
Surgical Disorders Of The Brain (1/1) 100%
Passmed