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  • Question 1 - A 62-year-old retiree comes to the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old retiree comes to the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain and bloating. He reports recurrent belching after meals and a loss of taste for Chinese food, which he used to enjoy. This has been ongoing for the past 8 years. The patient had an upper GI endoscopy 6 years ago, which was reported as normal. He has tried various over-the-counter remedies and was prescribed medication by his primary care physician, but with little relief. What is the next recommended course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Upper GI endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic and Treatment Options for Non-Ulcer Dyspepsia in Older Patients

      Non-ulcer dyspepsia (NUD) is a common condition characterized by upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms without any identifiable cause. However, in older patients, these symptoms may be indicative of a more serious underlying condition. Therefore, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend upper GI endoscopy for patients over the age of 55 with treatment-resistant symptoms.

      Gastric motility studies are indicated in gastric disorders like gastroparesis but are not necessary for NUD diagnosis. Proton pump inhibitors or H2 blockers may be tried if alarm symptoms are not present. Anti-Helicobacter pylori treatment may also be considered. However, acupuncture is not validated as an effective treatment for NUD.

      In summary, older patients with NUD should undergo endoscopic evaluation to rule out any serious underlying conditions. Treatment options include proton pump inhibitors, H2 blockers, and anti-Helicobacter pylori treatment, but acupuncture is not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old man presents with generalised pruritus, right upper quadrant pain and jaundice...

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    • A 28-year-old man presents with generalised pruritus, right upper quadrant pain and jaundice for the past month. He has a history of recurrent bloody bowel movements and painful defecation and is now being treated with sulfasalazine. His previous colonoscopy has shown superficial mucosal ulceration and inflammation, with many pseudopolyps involving the distal rectum up to the middle third of the transverse colon. On abdominal examination, the liver is slightly enlarged and tender. Total bilirubin level is 102.6 μmol/l and indirect bilirubin level 47.9 μmol/l. Alkaline phosphatase and γ-glutamyltransferase concentrations are moderately increased. Alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels are mildly elevated.
      Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be positive in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA)

      Explanation:

      Serologic Markers of Autoimmune Diseases

      There are several serologic markers used to diagnose autoimmune diseases. These markers include perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA), anti-dsDNA antibody, antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA), and anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA).

      p-ANCA is elevated in patients with ulcerative colitis and/or primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). Anti-dsDNA antibody is found in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). ANA is a sensitive, but not specific, marker for a variety of autoimmune diseases such as SLE, mixed connective tissue disorder (MCTD), and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). ASMA, ANA, and anti-liver–kidney microsomal antibody-1 (LKM-1) are serologic markers of autoimmune hepatitis. Increased levels of ASCA are often associated with Crohn’s disease.

      These serologic markers are useful in diagnosing autoimmune diseases, but they are not always specific to a particular disease. Therefore, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old male has been referred by his doctor due to experiencing severe...

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    • A 20-year-old male has been referred by his doctor due to experiencing severe bloody diarrhoea on and off for the past three months. After undergoing a barium enema, it was discovered that he has multiple ulcers and signs of inflammation that extend from his rectum to the mid transverse colon. A colonoscopy was performed and biopsies were taken from various sites, revealing acute and chronic inflammation that is limited to the mucosa. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Disease

      Ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn’s disease are both types of inflammatory bowel disease that can cause bloody diarrhoea. However, UC is more likely to result in the passage of blood. The onset of UC usually begins in the distal part of the colon and progresses towards the proximal end. On the other hand, Crohn’s disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and can skip areas, resulting in disease occurring at different sites.

      Histologically, Crohn’s disease affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall, while UC typically only affects the mucosa. This means that Crohn’s disease can cause more severe damage to the bowel wall and lead to complications such as strictures and fistulas. In contrast, UC is more likely to cause inflammation and ulceration of the mucosa, which can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhoea.

      In summary, while both UC and Crohn’s disease can cause similar symptoms, there are important differences in their presentation and histological features. these differences is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of these conditions.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old man presents to A&E with sudden onset of severe epigastric pain...

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    • A 42-year-old man presents to A&E with sudden onset of severe epigastric pain and bright red blood in his vomit. He has a long history of heavy alcohol consumption. On examination, he has guarding over the epigastric region and cool extremities. He also has a distended abdomen with ascites and spider naevi on his neck and cheek. The patient is unstable hemodynamically, and fluid resuscitation is initiated. What is the most crucial medication to begin given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      Medications for Oesophageal Variceal Bleeds

      Oesophageal variceal bleeds are a serious medical emergency that require prompt treatment. The most important medication to administer in this situation is terlipressin, which reduces bleeding by constricting the mesenteric arterial circulation and decreasing portal venous inflow. Clopidogrel, an antiplatelet medication, should not be used as it may worsen bleeding. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, can be used prophylactically to prevent variceal bleeding but is not the most important medication to start in an acute setting. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is not recommended before endoscopy in the latest guidelines but is often used in hospital protocols. Tranexamic acid can aid in the treatment of acute bleeding but is not indicated for oesophageal variceal bleeds. Following terlipressin administration, band ligation should be performed, and if bleeding persists, TIPS should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematemesis. His friends report...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematemesis. His friends report that he drank a large amount of alcohol earlier and had prolonged vomiting because he is not used to drinking so much. During the examination, his vital signs are: pulse 110 bpm, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg. There are no notable findings during systemic examination.
      What is the most likely cause of the haematemesis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear

      Explanation:

      Causes of haematemesis and their associated symptoms

      Haematemesis, or vomiting of blood, can be caused by various conditions affecting the upper gastrointestinal tract. Here we discuss some of the common causes and their associated symptoms.

      Mallory-Weiss tear
      This type of tear occurs at the junction between the oesophagus and the stomach, and is often due to severe vomiting or retching, especially in people with alcohol problems. The tear can cause internal bleeding and low blood pressure, and is usually accompanied by a history of recent vomiting.

      Peptic ulcer disease
      Peptic ulcers are sores in the lining of the stomach or duodenum, and can cause epigastric pain, especially after eating or when hungry. Bleeding from a peptic ulcer is usually associated with these symptoms, and may be mild or severe.

      Oesophageal varices
      Varices are enlarged veins in the oesophagus that can occur in people with chronic liver disease, especially due to alcohol abuse or viral hepatitis. Variceal bleeding can cause massive haematemesis and is a medical emergency.

      Barrett’s oesophagus
      This condition is a type of metaplasia, or abnormal tissue growth, in the lower oesophagus, often due to chronic acid reflux. Although Barrett’s mucosa can lead to cancer, bleeding is not a common symptom.

      Gastritis
      Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining, often due to NSAIDs or infection with Helicobacter pylori. It can cause epigastric pain, nausea, and vomiting, and may be associated with mild bleeding. Treatment usually involves acid suppression and eradication of H. pylori if present.

      In summary, haematemesis can be caused by various conditions affecting the upper digestive system, and the associated symptoms can help to narrow down the possible causes. Prompt medical attention is needed for severe or recurrent bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man visited his doctor as his son has expressed concern about...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visited his doctor as his son has expressed concern about his alcohol consumption. He admits to drinking two bottles of wine (750ml capacity) every night along with six pints of 5% beer.
      (A bottle of wine typically contains 12% alcohol)
      What is the total number of units this man is consuming per night?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 36

      Explanation:

      Understanding Units of Alcohol

      Alcohol consumption is often measured in units, with one unit being equal to 10 ml of alcohol. The strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). For example, a single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40% is equivalent to one unit, while a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6% is also one unit. Half a standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12% is also one unit.

      To calculate the number of units in a drink, you can use the ABV and the volume of the drink. For instance, one bottle of wine with nine units is equivalent to two bottles of wine or six pints of beer, both of which contain 18 units.

      It’s important to keep track of your alcohol consumption and stay within recommended limits. Drinking too much can have negative effects on your health and well-being. By understanding units of alcohol, you can make informed decisions about your drinking habits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 33-year-old university teacher returned to the United Kingdom after spending 2 years...

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    • A 33-year-old university teacher returned to the United Kingdom after spending 2 years in India on a spiritual journey. During his time there, he stayed in various ashrams and ate local food with the local disciples. Unfortunately, he contracted malaria twice, suffered from diarrhoea once, and had a urinary tract infection. Upon returning to the UK, he complained of chronic diarrhoea and abdominal pain, which worsened after consuming milk. Blood tests showed a low haemoglobin level of 92 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), a high mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 109 fl (normal range: 76-98 fl), and a white cell count (WCC) of 8 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l). Stool samples and blood tests for IgA Ttg and HIV antibodies were negative. What test would be most helpful in diagnosing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small intestinal biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Chronic Diarrhoea: A Comparison

      Chronic diarrhoea can have various causes, including intestinal parasitic infection and malabsorption syndromes like tropical sprue. Here, we compare different diagnostic tests that can help in identifying the underlying cause of chronic diarrhoea.

      Small Intestinal Biopsy: This test can diagnose parasites like Giardia or Cryptosporidium, which may be missed in stool tests. It can also diagnose villous atrophy, suggestive of tropical sprue.

      Colonoscopy: While colonoscopy can show amoebic ulcers or other intestinal parasites, it is unlikely to be of use in investigating malabsorption.

      Lactose Breath Test: This test diagnoses lactase deficiency only and does not tell us about the aetiology of chronic diarrhoea.

      Serum Vitamin B12 Level: This test diagnoses a deficiency of the vitamin, but it will not tell about the aetiology, eg dietary insufficiency or malabsorption.

      Small Intestinal Aspirate Culture: This test is done if bacterial overgrowth is suspected, which occurs in cases with a previous intestinal surgery or in motility disorders like scleroderma. However, there is no mention of this history in the case presented here.

      In conclusion, the choice of diagnostic test depends on the suspected underlying cause of chronic diarrhoea. A small intestinal biopsy is a useful test for diagnosing both parasitic infections and malabsorption syndromes like tropical sprue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic for a follow-up appointment after...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic for a follow-up appointment after a liver biopsy. She was referred by her General Practitioner two weeks ago due to symptoms of fatigue, myalgia, abdominal bloating and significantly abnormal aminotransferases. The results of her liver biopsy and blood tests confirm a diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis (AIH).
      What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine and prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Autoimmune Hepatitis: Azathioprine and Prednisolone

      Autoimmune hepatitis (AIH) is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects young and middle-aged women. The cause of AIH is unknown, but it is often associated with other autoimmune diseases. The condition is characterized by inflammation of the liver, which can progress to cirrhosis if left untreated.

      The first-line treatment for AIH is a combination of azathioprine and prednisolone. Patients with moderate-to-severe inflammation should receive immunosuppressive treatment, while those with mild disease may be closely monitored instead. Cholestyramine, a medication used for hyperlipidemia and other conditions, is not a first-line treatment for AIH.

      Liver transplantation is not typically recommended as a first-line treatment for AIH, but it may be necessary in severe cases. However, AIH can recur following transplantation. Antiviral medications like peginterferon alpha-2a and tenofovir are not effective in treating AIH, as the condition is not caused by a virus.

      In summary, azathioprine and prednisolone are the primary treatment options for AIH, with liver transplantation reserved for severe cases. Other medications like cholestyramine, peginterferon alpha-2a, and tenofovir are not effective in treating AIH.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with several months of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with several months of difficulty swallowing both liquids and solid foods. He states he also often regurgitates undigested food. He no longer looks forward to his meals and is beginning to lose weight. He denies chest pain.
      Physical examination is normal. An electrocardiogram (ECG) and chest X-ray are also normal. Blood tests reveal normal inflammatory markers and normal renal function. He has had a trial of proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy, without relief of his symptoms. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is performed by the Gastroenterology team, which is also normal.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal manometry

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line investigation for a patient with dysphagia to both solid foods and liquids, regurgitation, and weight loss, who has failed PPI therapy and has a normal upper endoscopy, is oesophageal manometry. This test can diagnose achalasia, a rare disorder characterized by impaired relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter due to neuronal degeneration of the myenteric plexus. Amylase levels are indicated in patients suspected of having acute pancreatitis, which presents with severe epigastric pain and is often associated with alcoholism or gallstone disease. Barium swallow is useful for detecting obstructions, reflux, or strictures in the oesophagus, but oesophageal manometry is preferred for diagnosing abnormal peristalsis in patients with suspected achalasia. A CT scan of the chest is indicated for lung cancer staging or chest trauma, while lateral cervical spine radiographs are used to diagnose dysphagia caused by large cervical osteophytes, which is unlikely in a relatively young patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man presents with mild jaundice following a flu-like illness. During a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with mild jaundice following a flu-like illness. During a review by a gastroenterologist, he has been told that a diagnosis of Gilbert’s syndrome is probable.
      Which of the following test results most suggests this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of bilirubin in the urine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gilbert’s Syndrome: Absence of Bilirubin in Urine and Other Characteristics

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects 5-10% of the population in Western Europe. It is characterized by intermittent raised unconjugated bilirubin levels due to a defective enzyme involved in bilirubin conjugation. Despite this, patients with Gilbert’s syndrome have normal liver function, no evidence of liver disease, and no haemolysis. Attacks are usually triggered by various insults to the body.

      One notable characteristic of Gilbert’s syndrome is the absence of bilirubin in the urine. This is because unconjugated bilirubin is non-water-soluble and cannot be excreted in the urine. In unaffected individuals, conjugated bilirubin is released into the bile and excreted in the faeces or reabsorbed in the circulation and excreted in the urine as urobilinogen.

      Other characteristics that are not expected in Gilbert’s syndrome include decreased serum haptoglobin concentration, elevated aspartate aminotransferase (AST) activity, and increased reticulocyte count. Haptoglobin is an acute phase protein that is decreased in haemolysis, which is not associated with Gilbert’s syndrome. AST activity is associated with normal liver function, which is also a characteristic of Gilbert’s syndrome. A raised reticulocyte count is observed in haemolytic anaemia, which is not present in Gilbert’s syndrome.

      Increased urinary urobilinogen excretion is also not expected in Gilbert’s syndrome as it is associated with haemolytic anaemia. Understanding the characteristics of Gilbert’s syndrome can aid in its diagnosis and management, which typically does not require treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old stockbroker has been experiencing difficulty swallowing solids for the past few...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old stockbroker has been experiencing difficulty swallowing solids for the past few months, while having no trouble swallowing liquids. He does not smoke and denies any alcohol consumption. His medical history is unremarkable except for the fact that he has been using antacids and H2-receptor blockers for gastro-oesophageal reflux disease for the past 5 years, with little relief from symptoms. Upon examination, there are no notable findings.
      What is the probable reason for this man's dysphagia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benign oesophageal stricture

      Explanation:

      Causes of dysphagia: differential diagnosis based on patient history

      Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can have various causes, including structural abnormalities, functional disorders, and neoplastic conditions. Based on the patient’s history, several possibilities can be considered. For example, a benign oesophageal stricture may develop in patients with acid gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and can be treated with endoscopic dilation and reflux management. Diffuse oesophageal spasm, on the other hand, may cause dysphagia for both solids and liquids and be accompanied by chest pain. A lower oesophageal web can produce episodic dysphagia when food gets stuck in the distal oesophagus. Oesophageal squamous carcinoma is less likely in a young non-smoking patient, but should not be ruled out entirely. Scleroderma, a connective tissue disorder, may also cause dysphagia along with Raynaud’s phenomenon and skin changes. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to determine the underlying cause of dysphagia and guide the treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old woman complains of worsening intermittent dysphagia over the past year. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman complains of worsening intermittent dysphagia over the past year. She experiences severe retrosternal chest pain during these episodes and has more difficulty swallowing liquids than solids.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal dysmotility

      Explanation:

      Causes of Dysphagia: Understanding the Underlying Disorders

      Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various underlying disorders. Mechanical obstruction typically causes dysphagia for solids more than liquids, while neuromuscular conditions result in abnormal peristalsis of the oesophagus and cause dysphagia for liquids more than solids. However, oesophageal dysmotility is the only condition that can cause more dysphagia for liquids than solids due to uncoordinated peristalsis.

      Achalasia is a likely underlying disorder for oesophageal dysmotility, which causes progressive dysphagia for liquids more than solids with severe episodes of chest pain. It is an idiopathic condition that can be diagnosed through a barium swallow and manometry, which reveal an abnormally high lower oesophageal sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing.

      Oesophageal cancer and strictures typically cause dysphagia for solids before liquids, accompanied by weight loss, loss of appetite, rapidly progressive symptoms, or a hoarse voice. Pharyngeal pouch causes dysphagia, regurgitation, cough, and halitosis, and patients may need to manually reduce it through pressure on their neck to remove food contents from it.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) may cause retrosternal chest pain, acid brash, coughing/choking episodes, and dysphagia, typically where there is a sensation of food getting stuck (but not for liquids). Benign oesophageal stricture is often associated with long-standing GORD, previous surgery to the oesophagus, or radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 61-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute-onset severe epigastric pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute-onset severe epigastric pain for the last eight hours. The pain radiates to the back and has been poorly controlled with paracetamol. The patient has not had this type of pain before. He also has associated nausea and five episodes of non-bloody, non-bilious vomiting. He last moved his bowels this morning. His past medical history is significant for alcoholism, epilepsy and depression, for which he is not compliant with treatment. The patient has been drinking approximately 25 pints of beer per week for the last 15 years. He has had no previous surgeries.
      His observations and blood tests results are shown below. Examination reveals tenderness in the epigastrium, without rigidity.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Temperature 37.0 °C
      Blood pressure 151/81 mmHg
      Heart rate 81 bpm
      Respiratory rate 19 breaths/min
      Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 99% (room air)
      C-reactive protein 102 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      White cell count 18.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Amylase 992 U/l < 200 U/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and lab results suggest that they have acute pancreatitis, which is commonly seen in individuals with alcoholism or gallstone disease. This condition is characterized by severe epigastric pain that may radiate to the back, and an increase in pancreatic enzymes like amylase within 6-12 hours of onset. Lipase levels can also aid in diagnosis, as they rise earlier and last longer than amylase levels. Acute mesenteric ischemia, perforated peptic ulcer, pyelonephritis, and small bowel obstruction are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old man with dyspepsia and a history of recurrent peptic ulcer disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with dyspepsia and a history of recurrent peptic ulcer disease presents with intractable watery diarrhoea and weight loss. He has multiple gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers, which are poorly responding to medications such as antacids and omeprazole. Gastric acid output and serum gastrin level are elevated. Serum gastrin level fails to decrease following a test meal. On abdominal computerised tomography (CT) scan, no masses are found in the pancreas or duodenum.
      Which one of the following drugs is useful for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Octreotide

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Gastrinoma: Octreotide, Somatostatin Antagonist, Bromocriptine, Pergolide, and Leuprolide

      Gastrinoma is a rare condition characterized by multiple, recurrent, and refractory peptic ulcer disease, along with watery diarrhea and weight loss. The diagnosis is supported by an elevated serum gastrin level that is not suppressed by the test meal. While neoplastic masses of gastrinoma may or may not be localized by abdominal imaging, treatment options are available.

      Octreotide, a synthetic somatostatin, is useful in the treatment of gastrinoma, acromegaly, carcinoid tumor, and glucagonoma. Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone in several endocrine systems, and a somatostatin antagonist would increase gastrin, growth hormone, and glucagon secretion. However, it has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma.

      Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, is used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, hyperprolactinemia, and pituitary tumors. Pergolide, another dopamine receptor agonist, was formerly used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease but is no longer administered due to its association with valvular heart disease. Neither medication has a role in the treatment of gastrinoma.

      Leuprolide, a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor agonist, is used in the treatment of sex hormone-sensitive tumors such as prostate or breast cancer. It also has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma. Overall, octreotide remains the primary treatment option for gastrinoma.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 11-month-old boy is admitted to hospital with an episode of rectal bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-month-old boy is admitted to hospital with an episode of rectal bleeding - the mother noticed that the child had been difficult to settle in the day, on changing the child's nappy she noted a substance which looked like redcurrant jelly in the nappy contents. A diagnosis of Meckel's diverticulum is suspected.
      With regard to Meckel’s diverticulum, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may contain ectopic tissue

      Explanation:

      Understanding Meckel’s Diverticulum: A Congenital Abnormality of the Gastrointestinal Tract

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a common congenital abnormality of the gastrointestinal tract that affects around 2-4% of the population. It is an anatomical remnant of the vitello-intestinal duct, which connects the primitive midgut to the yolk sac during fetal development. Meckel’s diverticulum can contain various types of tissue, including gastric mucosa, liver tissue, carcinoid, or lymphoid tissue. It is usually located around 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is commonly found adjacent to the vermiform appendix.

      Symptoms of Meckel’s diverticulum can closely mimic appendicitis, and it can be a cause of bowel obstruction, perforation, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Bleeding is the most common cause of clinical presentations, and the presence of gastric mucosa is important as it can ulcerate and cause bleeding. If a normal-looking appendix is found during laparoscopy, it is important to exclude Meckel’s diverticulum as a potential cause of the patient’s symptoms. The mortality rate in untreated cases is estimated to be 2.5-15%.

      Advances in imaging have made it easier to detect Meckel’s diverticulum. It can be picked up on barium imaging, computed tomography enterography, and radionuclide technetium scanning (Meckel’s scan). Selective mesenteric arteriography may also be useful in patients with negative imaging results.

      In conclusion, understanding Meckel’s diverticulum is important for clinicians as it is a common congenital abnormality that can cause significant morbidity and mortality if left untreated.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 52-year-old male taxi driver presented with altered consciousness. He was discovered on...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old male taxi driver presented with altered consciousness. He was discovered on the roadside in this state and brought to the Emergency Department. He had a strong smell of alcohol and was also found to be icteric. Ascites and gynaecomastia were clinically present. The following morning during examination, he was lying still in bed without interest in his surroundings. He was able to report his name and occupation promptly but continued to insist that it was midnight. He was cooperative during physical examination, but once the attending doctor pressed his abdomen, he swore loudly, despite being known as a generally gentle person. What is the grading of hepatic encephalopathy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding the West Haven Criteria for Hepatic Encephalopathy

      The West Haven Criteria is a scoring system used to assess the severity of hepatic encephalopathy, a condition where the liver is unable to remove toxins from the blood, leading to brain dysfunction. The criteria range from 0 to 4, with higher scores indicating more severe symptoms.

      A score of 0 indicates normal mental status with minimal changes in memory, concentration, intellectual function, and coordination. This is also known as minimal hepatic encephalopathy.

      A score of 1 indicates mild confusion, euphoria or depression, decreased attention, slowing of mental tasks, irritability, and sleep pattern disorders such as an inverted sleep cycle.

      A score of 2 indicates drowsiness, lethargy, gross deficits in mental tasks, personality changes, inappropriate behavior, and intermittent disorientation.

      A score of 3 presents with somnolence but rousability, inability to perform mental tasks, disorientation to time and place, marked confusion, amnesia, occasional fits of rage, and speech that is present but incomprehensible.

      A score of 4 indicates coma with or without response to painful stimuli.

      Understanding the West Haven Criteria is important in diagnosing and managing hepatic encephalopathy, as it helps healthcare professionals determine the severity of the condition and develop appropriate treatment plans.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old woman presents with acute right upper quadrant abdominal pain and vomiting,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with acute right upper quadrant abdominal pain and vomiting, which started earlier today.
      On examination, the patient is not jaundiced and there is mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant and epigastrium. The blood results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 6.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 70 μmmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Bilirubin 25 mmol/l 2–17 mmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 120 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 40 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Amylase 200 U/l < 200 U/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Analgesia, intravenous (iv) fluids, iv antibiotics, ultrasound (US) abdomen

      Explanation:

      The patient is suspected to have acute cholecystitis, and a confirmation of the diagnosis will rely on an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. To manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent sepsis, it is essential to administer intravenous antibiotics and fluids. Antiemetics may also be necessary to prevent dehydration from vomiting. It is recommended to keep the patient ‘nil by mouth’ until the scan is performed and consider prescribing analgesia for pain relief. An NG tube is not necessary at this stage, and an OGD or ERCP may be appropriate depending on the scan results. The NICE guidelines recommend cholecystectomy within a week of diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and right knee osteoarthritis. Which medication could be causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac

      Explanation:

      Causes of Peptic Ulceration and the Role of Medications

      Peptic ulceration is a condition that can cause acute gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss. One of the common causes of peptic ulceration is the reduction in the production of protective mucous in the stomach, which exposes the stomach epithelium to acid. This can be a consequence of using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as diclofenac, which is commonly used in the treatment of osteoarthritis. Steroids are also known to contribute to peptic ulceration.

      On the other hand, tramadol, an opiate, does not increase the risk of GI ulceration. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. By doing so, patients can receive appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 53-year-old woman presents with haematemesis. She has vomited twice, producing large amounts...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman presents with haematemesis. She has vomited twice, producing large amounts of bright red blood, although the exact volume was not measured. On examination, you discover that there is a palpable spleen tip, and spider naevi over the chest, neck and arms.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bleeding oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      Causes of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding and Their Differentiation

      Upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate management. The following are some common causes of upper GI bleeding and their distinguishing features.

      Bleeding Oesophageal Varices
      Portal hypertension due to chronic liver failure can lead to oesophageal varices, which can rupture and cause severe bleeding, manifested as haematemesis. Immediate management includes resuscitation, proton pump inhibitors, and urgent endoscopy to diagnose and treat the source of bleeding.

      Mallory-Weiss Tear
      A Mallory-Weiss tear causes upper GI bleeding due to a linear mucosal tear at the oesophagogastric junction, secondary to a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure. It occurs in patients after severe retching and vomiting or coughing.

      Peptic Ulcer
      Peptic ulcer is the most common cause of serious upper GI bleeding, with the majority of ulcers in the duodenum. However, sudden-onset haematemesis of a large volume of fresh blood is more suggestive of a bleed from oesophageal varices. It is important to ask about a history of indigestion or peptic ulcers. Oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD) can diagnose both oesophageal varices and peptic ulcers.

      Gastric Ulcer
      Sudden-onset haematemesis of a large volume of fresh blood is more suggestive of a bleed from oesophageal varices.

      Oesophagitis
      Oesophagitis may be very painful but is unlikely to lead to a significant amount of haematemesis.

      Understanding the Causes of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old patient presents with an abdominal mass that is primarily located around...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient presents with an abdominal mass that is primarily located around the caecum and also involves the terminal ileum. There are no signs of weight loss or lymphadenopathy. The patient has a history of multiple oral ulcers and severe perianal disease, including fissures, fistulae, and previous abscesses that have required draining.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a condition that affects different parts of the digestive tract. The location of the disease can be classified as ileal, colonic, ileo-colonic, or upper gastrointestinal tract. In some cases, the disease can cause a solid, thickened mass around the caecum, which also involves the terminal ileum. This is known as ileo-colonic Crohn’s disease.

      While weight loss is a common symptom of Crohn’s disease, it is not always present. It is important to note that the range of areas affected by the disease makes it unlikely for it to be classified as anything other than ileo-colonic Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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