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Question 1
Correct
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A 4 year old girl is brought to the emergency due to fever and urinary urgency. The temperature is recorded to be 39C. Which of the following is the best investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Clean catch of urine
Explanation:Urine culture and sensitivity is used to diagnose a urinary tract infection (UTI). A mid-stream clean catch urine sample is the most common type of sample collected. It is important to follow the clean catch process to have accurate results from an uncontaminated sample. Urine cultures can also check for infections of the bladder or kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents with complaints of a patch of scaling skin and hair loss on the right side of his head. A skin scraping confirms the diagnosis of tinea capitis. What is the most common organism responsible for tinea capitis?
Your Answer: Microsporum distortum
Correct Answer: Trichophyton tonsurans
Explanation:The most common organism responsible for tinea capitis is Trichophyton tonsurans.Tinea is a term given to dermatophyte fungal infections. There are three types of tinea, depending on what part of the body is infected:- Tinea capitis – scalp- Tinea corporis – trunk, legs or arms- Tinea pedis – feet-Tinea capitis (scalp ringworm): It is a cause for scarring alopecia mainly seen in children. If untreated, it can form a raised pustular, spongy/boggy mass called a kerion. The most common cause of tinea capitis in the UK and the USA is Trichophyton tonsurans. Tinea can also be caused by Microsporum canis acquired from cats or dogs.The diagnosis of tinea capitis and identification of the organism is possible from the skin lesions: – Scalp scrapings and Potassium hydroxide (KOH) mounts.- Wood’s lamp: Microsporum canis produces a green fluorescence under Wood’s lamp examination.Treatment: – Oral antifungals: terbinafine for Trichophyton tonsurans infections.- Griseofulvin for Microsporum infections. – Topical ketoconazole shampoo is recommended for the first two weeks to limit the transmission of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old female arrives at the clinic complaining of a facial rash and stiffness in her joints. On examination, she has +1 oedema, slightly swollen metacarpophalangeal joints and ulceration of her buccal mucosa. Her BP is 145/95. Serum creatinine is 92 x 10^12/l. Urinalysis is significant for blood and protein, both +3. High titres of anti-dsDNA are detected in her serum. Which of the following histological changes would be observed in the renal tissue?
Your Answer: Pauci-immune diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis with deposits of IgG, IgM and C3
Explanation:Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is a term used to describe a distinct histologic form of glomerulonephritis common to various types of systemic inflammatory diseases, including autoimmune disorders (e.g., systemic lupus erythematosus [SLE]), vasculitis syndromes (e.g., granulomatosis with polyangiitis), and infectious processes. In DPGN, more than 50% of the glomeruli (diffuse) show an increase in mesangial, epithelial, endothelial (proliferative), and inflammatory cells (i.e., glomerulonephritis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 4
Correct
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A premature neonate at 28 weeks gestation suffers from right sided intraventricular haemorrhage with no ventricular dilation while on the ventilator. What advice should ideally be given to the parents in this situation?
Your Answer: It is probable that there will be no significant long-term effects but his development will be closely followed just in case
Explanation:There are four types of IVH. These are called grades and are based on the degree of bleeding.Grades 1 and 2 involve a smaller amount of bleeding. Most of the time, there are no long-term problems as a result of the bleeding. Grade 1 is also referred to as germinal matrix haemorrhage (GMH).Grades 3 and 4 involve more severe bleeding. The blood presses on (grade 3) or directly involves (grade 4) brain tissue. Grade 4 is also called an intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Blood clots can form and block the flow of cerebrospinal fluid. This can lead to increased fluid in the brain (hydrocephalus).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?
Your Answer: Methicillin
Explanation:Bacterial meningitis (including meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae meningitis, and staphylococcal meningitis) is a neurologic emergency that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Initiation of empiric antibacterial therapy is therefore essential for better outcomes. The patient appears to be suffering from meningitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Methicillin would be the drug of choice . It is bactericidal and unlike streptomycin and chloramphenicol it is not associated with toxicity
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 12 year old girl presented with pallor and a rash over her lower limbs after 4 days of bloody diarrhoea. Lab investigations showed proteinuria and deranged renal function. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer: Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)
Explanation:Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome affects children and is characterised by abdominal pain, a purpuric rash over the body, generalized pallor, haematuria and bloody diarrhoea. There is always a history of preceding diarrhoea caused usually by E.coli and it affects the renal system causing haematuria and deranged renal function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 18 year old, previously well boy was admitted following a generalized tonic-clonic convulsion for 5 minutes with urinary incontinence and eye rolling. On examination, he was drowsy and had bilateral up going plantar reflexes. A short while ago he had been playing rugby and had taken a hit to the head. He was apparently normal for a few minutes before fitting. His blood sugar level was normal. Which of the following is the most probable reason for this presentation?
Your Answer: Subdural haematoma
Correct Answer: Post-traumatic seizure
Explanation:The history is suggestive of a post-traumatic seizure which frequently occurs after moderate or severe traumatic brain injury. Although upgoing plantars can be identified in a post-ictal status, an intracranial bleed has to be excluded. A single seizure cannot be considered epilepsy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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The following are the causes of hydrops fetalis EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Hydrops fetalis is a serious condition characterized by excessive fluid accumulation resulting in oedema in one or more of the fetal compartments. The most likely cause is fetal anaemia, and the condition may lead to ascites and pleural effusion. The anaemia that results in hydrops may be caused by Rh incompatibility, Parvovirus B19 infection, toxoplasmosis, hepatitis B, maternal syphilis (strong association), Cytomegalovirus, Turner syndrome, and Noonan syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which is the LEAST likely place to find the testis?
Your Answer: Pelvic brim
Correct Answer: Perineum
Explanation:Embryologically the testes are retroperitoneal structures in the posterior abdominal wall, attached to the anterolateral abdominal wall by the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum ‘pulls’ the testes through the deep inguinal ring, inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring and over the pelvic brim. The gubernaculum is preceded by the processus vaginalis that is derived from the peritoneum anterior to the testes. The processus vaginalis pushes the muscle and fascial layers. These eventually make up the canal and the spermatic cord, into the scrotum. The gubernaculum persists as the scrotal ligament while part of the processus vaginalis remains as a bursa-like sac i.e. the tunica vaginalis testes. The testes therefore could be caught in any one of these places along its path of descending. The testes are never in the perineum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is due to a deletion of chromosome 15q inherited from the father?
Your Answer: Angelman's syndrome
Correct Answer: Prader-Willi
Explanation:Most cases of Prader-Willi syndrome are not inherited, particularly those caused by a deletion in the paternal chromosome 15 or by maternal uniparental disomy. These genetic changes occur as random events during the formation of reproductive cells (eggs and sperm) or in early embryonic development. Affected people typically have no history of the disorder in their family.Rarely, a genetic change responsible for Prader-Willi syndrome can be inherited. For example, it is possible for a genetic change that abnormally inactivates genes on the paternal chromosome 15 to be passed from one generation to the next.Prader-Willi syndrome is a complex genetic condition that affects many parts of the body. In infancy, this condition is characterized by weak muscle tone (hypotonia), feeding difficulties, poor growth, and delayed development. Beginning in childhood, affected individuals develop an insatiable appetite, which leads to chronic overeating (hyperphagia) and obesity. Some people with Prader-Willi syndrome, particularly those with obesity, also develop type 2 diabetes (the most common form of diabetes).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl was bought immediately to the emergency department. She is fully conscious but has stridor, is wheezing and has a generalised erythematous rash. She has known allergies. What is the single immediate management?
Your Answer: Give 0.5ml in 1000 adrenaline by IM injection
Correct Answer: Give 0.3ml in 1000 adrenaline by IM injection
Explanation:This is a case of an anaphylactic reaction that requires immediate intervention. IM adrenaline dose for 6-12 year old children is 300 micrograms IM.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their son might have delayed puberty. On examination, he has very little pubic hair and the testicular volume is 3ml. Bilateral gynaecomastia is also observed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome
Explanation:The most overt phenotypic features of Klinefelter syndrome are caused by testosterone deficiency and, directly or indirectly, by unsuppressed follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones. Affected men typically have (in decreasing order of frequency): infertility, small testes, decreased facial hair, gynecomastia, decreased pubic hair, and a small penis. Because of their long legs, men with Klinefelter syndrome often are taller than predicted based on parental height. Body habitus may be feminized. In childhood, when there is a relative quiescence in the hormonal milieu, ascertainment of the syndrome may be difficult because the effects of hypogonadism (i.e., small external genitalia and firm testes) may be subtle or not present at all.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 16-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mumps
Explanation:Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 14
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl with acute Guillain-Barre syndrome has developed worsening weakness of her proximal muscles. Which of the following tests should be used to monitor her respiratory function?
Your Answer: Vital capacity
Explanation:One-third of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome suffer from diaphragm weakness which can lead to further respiratory complications if there is involvement of the tongue, palate, and neck muscles. Forced vital capacity (FVC) is the best way to monitor respiratory muscle function by assessing it repeatedly. Admission for ITU is suggested when FVC is below 20ml/kg and intubation recommended when FVC is 15ml/kg or below. FVC is used in any neurological disorders wherein the respiratory muscles are affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Correct
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A 7 year old boy who had significant dry spells in the past presented with a recent history of wetting himself. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Explanation:As this boy has experienced significant dry spells in the past, it is unlikely that a structural abnormality is causing the enuresis. The only therapies that have been shown to be effective in randomized trials are alarm therapy and treatment with desmopressin acetate or imipramine. Bladder training exercises are not recommended. Desmopressin acetate is the preferred medication for treating children with enuresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 16
Correct
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A screening test correctly identifies 90 of 100 individuals with disease and falsely identifies a further 15 of 300 individuals without disease. Which one of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: The sensitivity of the test is 90%
Explanation:The sensitivity of a screening test can be described in a variety of ways, typically such as sensitivity being the ability of a screening test to detect a true positive, being based on the true positive rate, reflecting a test’s ability to correctly identify all people who have a condition, or, if 100%, identifying all people with a condition of interest by those people testing positive on the test.The specificity of a test is defined in a variety of ways, typically such as specificity is the ability of a screening test to detect a true negative, being based on the true negative rate, correctly identifying people who do not have a condition, or, if 100%, identifying all patients who do not have the condition of interest by those people testing negative on the test.Sensitivity=[a/(a+c)]x100Specificity=[d/(b+d)]x100a: True positiveb: False Positivec: False negatived: True negative
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old male presents with a depressed skull fracture, which was surgically managed. Over the next few days, he complains of double vision on walking downstairs and reading. On testing ocular convergence, the left eye faces downward and medially, but the right side does not.Which of the following injured nerves is most likely responsible for the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Abducens
Correct Answer: Trochlear
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable nerve injured in this patient would be the trochlear nerve. The trochlear nerve has a relatively long intracranial course, and this makes it vulnerable to injury in head trauma. Head trauma is the most frequent cause of acute fourth nerve palsy. A 4th nerve palsy is the most common cause of vertical diplopia. The diplopia is at its worst when the eye looks medially which it usually does as part of the accommodation reflex when walking downstairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presents to her OBGYN for a 20-week anomaly scan of the foetus. During her visit, she is informed she is going to have a baby boy. What will be the chromosomal arrangement of the baby?
Your Answer: 23 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex hormones (XY)
Correct Answer: 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex hormones (XY)
Explanation:In humans, each cell normally contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46. Twenty-two of these pairs, called autosomes, look the same in both males and females. The 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, differ between males and females. Females have two copies of the X chromosome, while males have one X and one Y chromosome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which is true regarding XYY syndrome?
Your Answer: Sexual development is delayed in most cases
Correct Answer: Affected individuals are usually asymptomatic
Explanation:47,XYY syndrome is characterized by an extra copy of the Y chromosome in each of a male’s cells. Although many males with this condition are taller than average, the chromosomal change sometimes causes no unusual physical features. Most males with 47,XYY syndrome have normal production of the male sex hormone testosterone and normal sexual development, and they are usually able to father children.47,XYY syndrome is associated with an increased risk of learning disabilities and delayed development of speech and language skills. Affected boys can have delayed development of motor skills or hypotonia.Other signs and symptoms of this condition include hand tremors or other involuntary movements (motor tics), seizures, and asthma. Males with 47,XYY syndrome have an increased risk of behavioural, social, and emotional difficulties compared with their unaffected peers. These problems include attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD); depression; anxiety; and autism spectrum disorder.Physical features related to 47,XYY syndrome can include increased belly fat, macrocephaly, macrodontia, flat feet (pes planus), fifth fingers that curve inward (clinodactyly), widely spaced eyes (ocular hypertelorism), and scoliosis. These characteristics vary widely among affected boys and men.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following types best describe the epithelium on the external aspect of the tympanic membrane?
Your Answer: Stratified squamous
Explanation:The external aspect of the tympanic membrane is lined by stratified squamous epithelium. Clinical correlation: Following middle ear infections, this type of epithelium can migrate into the middle ear through a perforated tympanic membrane.The ear is composed of three anatomically distinct regions: – External ear: Auricle is composed of elastic cartilage covered by skin. The lobule has no cartilage and contains fat and fibrous tissue. External auditory meatus is variable in length, measuring approximately 2.5cm long in fully grown children. Lateral third of the external auditory meatus is cartilaginous, and the medial two-thirds is bony. The greater auricular nerve innervates the region. The auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve supplies most of the external auditory meatus and the lateral surface of the auricle. – Middle ear: It is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea. The aditus leads to the mastoid air cells is the route through which middle ear infections may cause mastoiditis. Anteriorly the eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx. The tympanic membrane consists of an outer layer of stratified squamous epithelium, a middle layer of fibrous tissue and an inner layer of mucous membrane continuous with the middle ear. The chorda tympani nerve passes on the medial side of the pars flaccida. The glossopharyngeal nerve and pain innervate the middle ear. Thus, pain may radiate to the middle ear following tonsillectomy. – Ossicles:Malleus attaches to the tympanic membrane (the Umbo). Malleus articulates with the incus (synovial joint). Incus attaches to stapes (another synovial joint). – Internal ear:It consists of the cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibule. Organ of Corti is the sense organ of hearing and is located on the inside of the cochlear duct on the basilar membrane. Vestibule accommodates the utricle and the saccule. These structures contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph within the vestibule. The semicircular canals lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone. All share a common opening into the vestibule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 21
Correct
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A 3-year-old boy presents with facial puffiness, frothy urine, lethargy and oliguria for two weeks. Urine analysis reveals proteinuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this child?
Your Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:The presentation is suggestive of nephrotic syndrome. A trial of corticosteroids is the first step in treatment of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome. Diuretics are useful in managing symptomatic oedema. Cyclosporin and cyclophosphamide are indicated in frequently relapsing and steroid dependant disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 22
Correct
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A pathologist examines a histological section and identifies a clump of Reed Sternberg cells.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma
Explanation:Reed-Sternberg cells are classically associated with Hodgkin lymphoma.Classical diagnostic Reed-Sternberg cells are large (15 to 45 micrometres), have abundant slightly basophilic or amphophilic cytoplasm and have at least two nuclear lobes or nuclei. Diagnostic Reed-Sternberg cells must have at least two nucleoli in two separate nuclear lobes. The nuclei are large and often rounded in contour with a prominent, often irregular nuclear membrane, pale chromatin and usually one prominent eosinophilic nucleolus, with perinuclear clearing (halo), resembling a viral inclusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound. The position has not changed despite attempting External Cephalic Version at 36 weeks and the due date is in a week. What is the preferred option of delivery for a foetus in a transverse lie?
Your Answer: Caesarean section
Explanation:A transverse lie is a common malpresentation. It occurs when the fetal longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. The location of the spine determines if the foetus is back up (the curvature of the spine is in the upper part of the uterus) or back down (the curvature of the spine is in the lower part of the uterus).Good antenatal care, ECV, and elective caesarean section are the mainstay of the management.Spontaneous delivery of a term foetus is impossible with a persistent transverse lie and, in general, the onset of labour is an indication for the lower segment caesarean section (LSCS) in a case of a transverse lie.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended step in management?
Your Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years
Explanation:Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common adenomatous polyposis syndrome. It is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by the early onset of hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps throughout the colon. If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. In addition, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.Most patients with FAP are asymptomatic until they develop cancer. As a result, diagnosing presymptomatic patients is essential.Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.Nonspecific symptoms, such as unexplained rectal bleeding (haematochezia), diarrhoea, or abdominal pain, in young patients may be suggestive of FAP.In a minority of FAP families a mutation cannot be identified and so annual flexible sigmoidoscopy should be offered to at risk family members from age 13-15 years until age 30, and at three to five year intervals thereafter until age 60 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 25
Correct
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Which is not true relating to growth in the normal child?
Your Answer: Full growth hormone responsiveness develops in puberty
Explanation:Most healthy infants and children grow predictably, following a typical pattern of progression in weight, length, and head circumference. Normal human growth is pulsatile; periods of rapid growth (growth spurts) are separated by periods of no measurable growth Growth hormone levels and responsiveness’ develop in late infancy, increase during childhood and peak during puberty.Typical milestones – General guidelines regarding length or height gain during infancy and childhood include the following:- The average length at birth for a term infant is 20 inches (50 cm)- Infants grow 10 inches (25 cm) during the first year of life- Toddlers grow 4 inches (10 cm) between 12 and 24 months, 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 24 and 36 months, and 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 36 and 48 months- Children reach one-half of their adult height by 24 to 30 months- Children grow 2 inches per year (5 cm per year) between age four years and puberty- There is a normal deceleration of height velocity before the pubertal growth spurt.Growth continues past pubertal growth spurt as there is increase in spinal length.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An 8 month old baby boy presents with a fine, white and scaly rash that is more profound on the extensor surfaces of his arms and legs. It is also found on his trunk. However, the flexor surfaces, face and neck are spared. It has been present for 4 months. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Treatment with acitretin is required
Correct Answer: Ichthyosis vulgaris
Explanation:Ichthyosis vulgaris presents clinically with xerosis, hyperkeratosis, excess scaling, keratosis pilaris, and palmar and plantar hyperlinearity. It most commonly affects the extensor surfaces of the limbs and spares flexor surfaces, the face, and the neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Correct
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What is the most likely infectious agent implicated in mastitis?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Infectious mastitis and breast abscesses are predominantly caused by bacteria that colonize the skin. S. aureus is the most common causative agent, followed by coagulase-negative Staphylococci. The majority of S. aureus isolated are now methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)Some breast infections (and up to 40% of breast abscesses) may be polymicrobial, with the isolation of aerobes (Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Enterobacteriaceae, Corynebacterium, Escherichia coli, and Pseudomonas) as well as anaerobes (Peptostreptococcus, Propionibacterium, Bacteroides, Lactobacillus, Eubacterium, Clostridium, Fusobacterium, and Veillonella). A study of primary and recurrent breast abscesses showed that smokers were more likely to have anaerobes recovered (isolated in 15% of patients).Unusual breast infections may be the initial presentation of HIV infection. Typhoid is a well-recognized cause of breast abscesses in countries where this disease is prevalent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 5 week old boy is vomiting excessively, suggesting a pyloric stenosis. Which of the following risk factors might be present?
Your Answer: Term baby
Correct Answer: Maternal smoking
Explanation:Maternal smoking is one of the most significant risk factors for pyloric stenosis.Remember the three Ps for Pyloric Stenosis:P -palpable massP -peristalsisP -projectile vomiting
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 29
Correct
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A term infant delivered via C-section develops tachypnoea, grunting, flaring, and intercostal retractions 10 minutes after birth. A chest radiograph reveals well-aerated lungs with fluid in the fissure on the right, prominent pulmonary vascular markings, and flattening of the diaphragm. His oxygen saturation is 90%. He improves within a few hours and requires no oxygen. What condition is this infant most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the new-born
Explanation:Transient tachypnoea of the new-born is a condition associated with the delayed clearance of amniotic fluid from the new-born. The X-ray findings are typical of this condition. As the name implies and was noted in this patient, it is not a lasting condition and resolves within 24-72 hours after birth. The differential diagnoses usually present with different chest X-ray findings:- Aspiration pneumonia shows infiltrates in the lower lobes of the lungs- Congenitally acquired pneumonia shows patchy, asymmetrical densities- Meconium aspiration shows hyperinflation and patchy asymmetric airspace disease- Pulmonary oedema shows cephalization of pulmonary veins and indistinctness of the vascular margins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An infant, 5 weeks and 6 days old born with a large sub-aortic ventricular septal defect, is prepared for pulmonary artery banding through a left thoracotomy (the child is not fit for a surgical closure). The surgeon initially passes his index finger immediately behind two great arteries in the pericardial sac to mobilise the great arteries in order to pass the tape around the pulmonary artery. Into which space is the surgeon's finger inserted?
Your Answer: Cardiac notch
Correct Answer: Transverse pericardial sinus
Explanation:Cardiac notch: is an indentation on the left lung of the heart. Coronary sinus: a venous sinus on the surface of the heart (the posterior aspect) that receives blood from the smaller veins that drain the heart. Coronary sulcus: a groove on the heart between the atria and ventricles. Transverse pericardial sinus: located behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and anterior to the superior vena cava. Oblique pericardial sinus: located behind the left atrium. Accessed from the inferior side (or the apex) of the heart upwards.Horizontal pericardial sinus: this is a made-up term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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