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  • Question 1 - A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for...

    Correct

    • A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung's disease

      Explanation:

      Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period -if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most often found in patients suffering...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most often found in patients suffering from Marfan syndrome?

      Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue found throughout the body, Marfan syndrome can affect many systems, often causing abnormalities in the heart, blood vessels, eyes, bones, and joints. The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and aortic root disease, leading to aneurysmal dilatation, aortic regurgitation and dissection is the main cause of morbidity and mortality in Marfan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 2 year old male is able to run down the stairs and...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old male is able to run down the stairs and say mama and dada. He can understand what he is saying and can say one word. How is this child developing?

      Your Answer: Normal

      Correct Answer: Delayed speech

      Explanation:

      This child is experiencing delayed speech. By the age of 2, a child should be able to combine at least 2 words to make a very simple sentence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Atrial septal defects may also occur in association with a variety of other congenital heart defects, or in new-borns that are relatively small or premature. The following conditions are associated with an atrial septal defect:Ebstein’s anomalyFoetal alcohol syndromeHolt-Oram syndromeDown syndromeEllis van Creveld syndromeLutembacher’s syndrome Ostium primum defects occur frequently in individuals with Down syndrome or Ellis van-Creveld syndrome.Holt-Oram syndrome characterized by an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and deformities of the upper limbs (most often, absent or hypoplastic radii) has been attributed to a single gene defect in TBX5Fragile X syndrome is characterized by moderate intellectual disability in affected males and mild intellectual disability in affected females. The physical features in affected males are variable and may not be obvious until puberty. These symptoms can include a large head, long face, prominent forehead and chin, protruding ears, loose joints and large testes. Other symptoms can include flat feet, frequent ear infections, low muscle tone, a long narrow face, high arched palate, dental problems, crossed eyes (strabismus) and heart problems including mitral valve prolapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Her food intake has drastically reduced but she is drinking normally. She also complains that she feels tired all the time.On examination, the presence of aphthous ulcers and generalized abdominal tenderness was noted. Considering the clinical presentation, what could be the most probable underlying disorder causing the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Correct Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Crohn’s disease.Crohn’s disease:An inflammatory bowel disease which can affect any part of the bowel from the mouth to the anus. Symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhoea, pyrexia and weight loss. Extra-intestinal manifestations include arthritis, uveitis, fatigue, anaemia and rashes including pyoderma gangrenosum and erythema nodosum.Other options:- Anorexia nervosa is an important diagnosis to consider. There are no indicators in the description that she has a fear of gaining weight or a strong desire to be thin.- Diabetic ketoacidosis is incorrect because there is no polydipsia or polyuria. A patient in DKA is more likely to present with vomiting and not diarrhoea.- Recurrent aphthous stomatitis is not a correct answer because it does not explain all of the symptoms described, only the mouth ulcers.- Ulcerative colitis (UC) is also incorrect. UC is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the colon. The main symptom is bloody stools, which is not mentioned as a feature in history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old male presents to the clinic with a month-long history of headaches,...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male presents to the clinic with a month-long history of headaches, which are worse in the morning and when lying down. There is no significant past medical history and he is not currently taking any medications. Eye examination reveals left sided homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. A lesion is most likely suspected in which of the following sites?

      Your Answer: Right sided optic tract

      Explanation:

      Homonymous hemianopia (HH) is a visual field defect involving either two right or the two left halves of the visual field of both eye. It results from the damage of the visual pathway in its suprachiasmatic part. The causes of HH include stroke, brain tumours, head injuries, neurosurgical procedures, multiple sclerosis and miscellaneous conditions. HH result in a severe visual impairment and affect a variety of cognitive visual functions. Patients with HH frequently have difficulties with reading and scanning scenes in sufficiently rapid fashion to make sense of things as a whole. They stumble, fall or knock objects in their surroundings, since they cannot see them and they are frequent surprised that somebody or something suddenly appeared in their visual field. The prognosis of visual field deficit recovery is highly variable and depends on the cause and severity of brain nd optic pathway injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - One of the main disadvantages of case control studies is: ...

    Correct

    • One of the main disadvantages of case control studies is:

      Your Answer: The potential for recall bias

      Explanation:

      Case control studies are observational studies which retrospectively determine whether a patient might have been exposed to a risk factor for a certain disease, as compared to a control group from the general population. They can be used for a range of outcomes as well as rare diseases. One of the biggest problems with this type of study is recall bias. Research subjects may selectively remember factors that are more predictive of the disease outcome when compared to the control group. All studies should have prior power calculations before the study commences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 15-year-old girl arrives at the hospital complaining of resting tremors in both...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl arrives at the hospital complaining of resting tremors in both arms. Ataxia and dysarthria are also observed along with occasional involuntary grimacing of the face. The patient is most likely suffering from which of the following?

      Your Answer: Huntington's chorea

      Correct Answer: Wilson's disease

      Explanation:

      Common neurological symptoms of Wilson disease that may appear and progress with time include tremor, involuntary movements, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking and poor articulation (dysarthria), lack of coordination, spasticity, dystonic postures, and muscle rigidity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the given choices accurately defines perinatal mortality rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given choices accurately defines perinatal mortality rate?

      Your Answer: Number of stillbirths and deaths within 7 days of life divided by 100 births

      Correct Answer: Number of stillbirths and deaths within 7 days of life divided by 1000 births

      Explanation:

      The perinatal mortality rate is defined as the number of perinatal deaths per 1000 total births. Perinatal death includes the death of a live-born neonate within 7-days of life (early neonatal death) and the death of a fetus ≥ 22 weeks of gestation (stillbirth). Hence, the perinatal mortality rate is calculated by dividing the number of still births+ the number of early neonatal deaths by 1000 births.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic accident. His car seat was thrown forward into the front passenger seat. He has sustained multiple injuries, including a fractured pelvis and suspected skull fracture.On initial assessment in the emergency department, the child was lying supine with c-spine immobilized. His eyes were closed, and he was motionless. He did not respond to voice commands. He cried and produced weak vocal sounds to pain but did not open his eyes. He tries to move away from the examining hand.What is the Paediatric Glasgow Coma Scale score of this child?

      Your Answer: 10

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Coma Scale, being inappropriate for use in children (especially below the age of 5) as they are unable to elicit the verbal response as per the adult GCS. Therefore, GCS for the paediatric age group was modified to Adelaide coma scale (ACS), which is stated as follows:Best Eye Response (as in adult scale):Spontaneous – 4To speech – 3To pain – 2No response – 1Best Verbal Response:Oriented – 5Words – 4Vocal sounds – 3Cries – 2No response – 1Best Motor Response (as in adult scale):Obeys commands – 5Localises pain – 4Flexion to pain – 3 Extension to pain – 2No response – 1 The described child scores:Eye response – 1; Verbal response – 3; Motor response – 4Thus, bringing the total ACS score to 8.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      96.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor...

    Incorrect

    • A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor for the development of asthma in children. The total number of patients recruited for this study is 200. 40 out of the 200 patients report at least one parent smoking in the house when they were younger. 200 more people without asthma are recruited and 20 out of them report that at least one parent smoked in the house when they were younger. What is the odds ratio of patients with asthma having been exposed to passive smoking during their childhood?

      Your Answer: 0.5

      Correct Answer: 2.25

      Explanation:

      An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Wherea = Number of exposed casesb = Number of exposed non-casesc = Number of unexposed casesd = Number of unexposed non-casesOR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      118.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A healthy 8 month old baby boy was brought in by his parents,...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 8 month old baby boy was brought in by his parents, who claimed that the baby had come into close contact with another child with measles two days ago. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Nothing need be done now but she should receive her MMR vaccination at the usual time of approximately 12 months

      Correct Answer: She should receive the MMR vaccine now together with measles immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      People who are at risk for severe illness and complications from measles, such as infants younger than 12 months of age, pregnant women without evidence of measles immunity, and people with severely compromised immune systems, should receive immunoglobulin. Intramuscular immunoglobulin should be given to all infants younger than 12 months of age who have been exposed to measles. For infants aged 6 through 11 months, MMR vaccine can be given in place of IG, if administered within 72 hours of exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling from his mothers arms....

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling from his mothers arms. The mother reports hearing a popping sound when his face hit the floor. Examination revealed swelling and bruising on the right mandible. Which of the following investigations should be ordered next?

      Your Answer: Skull X Ray

      Correct Answer: Facial X ray

      Explanation:

      The swelling and bruising on the mandible needs to be checked for fractures. A facial X-ray can adequately visualize this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What post-birth event encourages closure of the ductus venosus in a new-born baby?...

    Correct

    • What post-birth event encourages closure of the ductus venosus in a new-born baby?

      Your Answer: Umbilical cord clamping and separation from mother

      Explanation:

      After birth, the infant takes its first breath and is exposed to a myriad of stimuli. The pulmonary vessels dilate, and pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) decreases remarkably while the systemic vascular pressure rises above the PVR. This allows blood from the right ventricle to enter the lungs for oxygenation. In most cases, this increased oxygenation, along with other factors, causes the ductal wall to constrict and the ductus arteriosus to close functionally. As left-sided pressures rise higher than right-sided pressures, the foramen ovale functionally closes. With the clamping of the umbilical cord and the cessation of blood flow, pressures in the portal sinus decrease. This causes the muscle in the sinus wall near the ductus venosus to contract. The lumen of the duct becomes filled with connective tissue, and, in two months, the ductus venosus becomes a fibrous strand embedded in the wall of the liver, thus establishing adult circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 11-year-old boy was brought to the hospital by his mother, who says...

    Correct

    • An 11-year-old boy was brought to the hospital by his mother, who says that occasionally he tilts his head towards his right shoulder. She also remarked that his left eye seemed to move up suddenly when he looked towards his nose. Which of the following extraocular muscles is most likely to be affected in this child?

      Your Answer: Superior oblique

      Explanation:

      From the given scenario, the extraocular muscle affected in the child is superior oblique muscle. Point to remember:All of the extraocular muscles are supplied by the oculomotor nerve (3rd cranial nerve), except superior oblique (trochlear nerve/4th cranial nerve) and lateral rectus (abducens nerve/6th cranial nerve).The superior oblique muscle causes the eye to move downwards and medially. The unopposed inferior oblique, in this case, causes the eye to deviate upwards and medially. Children tend to tilt their head (torticollis) to the side opposite to the affected eye with their chin down toward the shoulder, and their face turned away from the affected side to decrease the diplopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast and continuous pain. You suspect a compartment syndrome injury. Which of the following represents a late sign of the condition?

      Your Answer: Absent distal pulses

      Explanation:

      The Five P’s: pain, pulselessness, paraesthesia, paralysis, and pallor, are the most common symptoms of compartment syndrome. However, late signs of the condition include the absence of distal pulses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A study done on a group of epileptics records the numbers of seizures...

    Incorrect

    • A study done on a group of epileptics records the numbers of seizures in the weeks before and after a dietary intervention. The decrease in seizures is on average 20. (95% CI=15 to 25; P=0.0024)Which of the following options is true?

      Your Answer: There cannot be any confounding because the patients act as their own controls

      Correct Answer: This is a before and after study with no control group and so the results should be viewed with great caution

      Explanation:

      While the results of this before and after study can provide some preliminary insight into the effects of the dietary intervention, the results should be viewed with great caution as they may be considered merely anecdotal. The lack of a control group contributes to confounding the data. Therefore, while the difference may be statistically significant and the confidence interval is compatible with a fall in the number of seizures after therapy, the results cannot be introduced as the standard without a control group to compare with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      65.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with right knee pain. On examination,...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with right knee pain. On examination, her eyes were red. But she denied any ocular or visual discomfort.Which of the following should be suspected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      When a child with joint problems presents with red-eye, the likelihood of anterior uveitis must be excluded by involving an ophthalmologist in the assessment. This is because uveitis is the most common extra-articular manifestation of juvenile idiopathic arthritis.Other options:- Cataract: It does not give rise to a red-eye, but leukocoria. Often this would have been picked up at an earlier age. – A patient with a corneal foreign body almost would almost invariably give a suspicious history (onset while playing outdoors etc.), as well as have marked symptoms of ocular discomfort (red, watery and painful eyes). – A child with periorbital cellulitis often presents acutely unwell and distressed. – A child with an uncorrected refractive error often complains of being unable to see in class and does not normally present with ocular redness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 5 month old baby presents with failure to thrive, and the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old baby presents with failure to thrive, and the following blood results: Na=135 mmol/l K=2.3 mmol/lUrea=2.0 mmol/lCreatinine 30 µmol/lP=0.8 mmol/lBicarbonate=17 mmol/lCa=2.5 mmol/lAdditionally, urinalysis reveals 1+ glucose and 1+ protein. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis

      Correct Answer: Fanconi tubular syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fanconi tubular syndrome is characterised by malabsorption of various electrolytes and substances commonly absorbed by the proximal tubule. Hypokalaemia, hypophosphatemia, and hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis is usually present. Also, urinalysis reveals an increased fractional excretion of glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      54.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The correlation coefficient is used to determine whether there is a mathematical linear...

    Incorrect

    • The correlation coefficient is used to determine whether there is a mathematical linear relationship between diastolic blood pressure and serum cholesterol levels in a group of patients with hypertension (both variables have a normal distribution).Which of the following five coefficients is described?

      Your Answer: Student's t-test

      Correct Answer: Parametric Pearson's correlation coefficient

      Explanation:

      Correlation is a bivariate analysis that measures the strength of association between two variables and the direction of the relationship.Pearson r correlation: Pearson r correlation is the most widely used correlation statistic to measure the degree of the relationship between linearly related variables. Pearson’s correlation coefficient is the test that measures the statistical relationship, or association, between two continuous variables. It is known as the best method of measuring the association between variables of interest because it is based on the method of covariance. It gives information about the magnitude of the association, or correlation, as well as the direction of the relationship.The non-parametric Spearman or Kendall rank correlation coefficient is used if neither variable has a normal distribution or the sample size is small (i.e. <20).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely to have achieved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Make good cuts with scissors

      Explanation:

      At the age of three years a child is to be able to dress and undress himself with supervision, eat with a spoon and fork, build a tower with 9 cubes, give their full name and copy a circle. The child will not be able to make good cuts with scissions until he is about 5 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia does NOT occur in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia does NOT occur in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia is a common clinical condition and can be categorized as conjugated and unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia results from obstructive or hepatocellular causes mainly. The causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia include inborn errors of metabolism like galactosemia and aminoaciduria, obstruction from choledochal cysts, and biliary atresia. Long term TPN also leads to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Spherocytosis is a hereditary condition belonging to the group of haemolytic anaemias, resulting from plasma membrane protein deficiency. This defect of the RBC plasma membrane decreases their life span, making them osmotically fragile and prone to haemolysis. This leads to an increase in the unconjugated bilirubin levels, with a risk of developing kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15-20%

      Explanation:

      Atopic dermatitis (AD), also called atopic eczema, is a common chronic or recurrent inflammatory skin disease and affects 15-20% of children and 1-3% of adults worldwide. It is characterized by acute flare-ups of eczematous pruritic lesions over dry skin.The incidence has increased by 2- to 3-fold during the past decades in industrialized countries.Some of the most valuable AD prevalence and trend data have come from the International Study of Asthma and Allergies in Childhood (ISAAC). This is the biggest (close to 2 million children in 100 countries) and only allergy study that has taken a truly global approach. The strength of the study is the use of a uniformly validated methodology allowing a direct comparison of results between paediatric populations all over the world (http://isaac.auckland.ac.nz/index.html).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 15-year-old boy presents with a concern that he is the shortest in...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with a concern that he is the shortest in his class, and his voice has not 'broken' yet. A thorough examination reveals that his sexual development is within the normal range, and he is reassured that puberty occurs at different times for everyone. Which of the following cells in the testes secrete testosterone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leydig cells

      Explanation:

      The cells in the testes that secrete testosterone are the Leydig cells.Other cells in testes include:- Spermatogonia: These are undifferentiated male germ cells which undergo spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules of the testes.- Sertoli cells: They are a part of the seminiferous tubule of the testes, cells are activated by FSH and nourish developing sperm cells.- Myoid: They are squamous contractile cells which generate peristaltic waves, they surround the basement membrane of testes.- Fibroblasts: Cells which synthesise collagen and the extracellular matrix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a left sided cataract after an ophthalmoscopic...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a left sided cataract after an ophthalmoscopic exam. Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroidism is the least likely cause of cataract development as all of the other mentioned options can lead to eye problems. Asthma and crohn’s can lead to steroid induced cataract formation, while trauma to the eye can cause traumatic cataracts to develop afterwards. JIA often leads to uveitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent early morning non-ketotic hyperglycaemia. Which of the following statements regarding the phenomenon described is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can be seen after a hypoglycaemic fit

      Explanation:

      The child has experienced the Somogyi phenomenon. It is a phenomenon where there’s a morning rise in blood sugar. Often it occurs as posthypoglycemic hyperglycaemia and follows nocturnal hypoglycaemia. The mechanism is the production of counter-regulatory hormones like glucagon, cortisol and adrenaline, which increase glucose. She can be managed by reducing her evening insulin dosage and increasing complex carbohydrates for supper (evening meal).Type I diabetes mellitus:It is a chronic illness that is characterised by the inability to produce insulin. It is caused by autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas and often presents with ketoacidosis.The patient can present with symptoms suggestive of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. There can be periods of islet cell regeneration in these patients, which leads to a ‘honeymoon period’ of remission.Symptoms occur when there is < 20% of islet cell activity left.Insulin therapy is required in almost all children with type 1 diabetes.Most children require multiple insulin injections throughout the day via subcutaneous insulin pumps.Target HbA1c in these patients is 48 mmol/mol according to the updated NICE guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is true about Kwashiorkor Protein Energy Malnutrition? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about Kwashiorkor Protein Energy Malnutrition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Children affected have generalised oedema

      Explanation:

      Protein energy malnutrition often presents in two common forms, Kwashiorkor and Marasmus. Kwashiorkor is characterised by a protein deficiency with an additional inadequate calorie intake. As a result, affected children present with oedema, muscular atrophy, and their weight for age is 60-80% of the expected weight. Their cutaneous tissue is however preserved. Marasmus on the other hand is characterised by a severe calorie deficiency leading to atrophy of the muscles and adipose tissue, with weight loss being less than 60% of the normal. In both cases, if the child is not promptly rehabilitated, the malnutrition could cause irreversible damage, such as hepatic, cardiac and renal impairments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia,...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia, a patent ductus arteriosus and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation is suggestive of congenital rubella syndrome. The classic triad of presenting symptoms includes sensorineural hearing loss, ocular abnormalities (cataract, infantile glaucoma, and pigmentary retinopathy) and congenital heart disease (patent ductus arteriosus and pulmonary artery stenosis). Other findings in congenital rubella syndrome include CNS abnormalities (mental retardation, behavioural disorders, encephalographic abnormalities, hypotonia, meningoencephalitis, and microcephaly), hepatosplenomegaly, and jaundice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following conditions exhibits Koebner's phenomenon? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions exhibits Koebner's phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Koebner’s phenomenon describes skin lesions that occur on damaged skin, usually in a linear fashion at the site of injury. Conditions which exhibit true Koebnerisation include psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen sclerosis, vitiligo, Kaposi sarcoma and SLE. Conditions such as erythema nodosum or multiforme, or Lyme disease and Impetigo do not exhibit Koebner’s phenomenon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 30 - A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:Opening...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:Opening pressure 260 mm H20 (50-180)Total protein 0.8 g/l (0.15-0.45)Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4)White cell count 60 per ml (<5)Lymphocytes 90%Plasma glucose 6.4 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose together with lymphocytosis, an increased opening pressure and raised CSF protein are typical of a viral meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
Child Development (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (3/3) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/4) 25%
Neurology And Neurodisability (0/1) 0%
Neonatology (1/2) 50%
Emergency Medicine (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
ENT (0/1) 0%
Nephro-urology (0/1) 0%
Passmed