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  • Question 1 - A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at...

    Correct

    • A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at the left sternal edge. What pulse abnormality is most associated with patent ductus arteriosus if that's her suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Collapsing pulse

      Explanation:

      DIAGNOSIS:
      A consensus definition for hemodynamically significant PDA is lacking. The diagnosis is often suspected clinically, when an infant demonstrates signs of excessive shunting from the arterial to pulmonary circulation. Continuous or a systolic murmur; note, a “silent” PDA may also occur when the ductus shunt is large enough that nonturbulent flow fails to generate a detectible murmur.
      A low diastolic blood pressure (due to runoff into the ductus during diastole, more frequent in the most premature infants).
      A wide pulse pressure (due to ductus runoff or steal)Hypotension (especially in the most premature infants)
      Bounding pulses
      Increased serum creatinine concentration or oliguria
      Hepatomegaly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value? (TP =...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value? (TP = true positive; FP = false positive; TN = true negative; FN = false negative)

      Your Answer: TP / (TP + FN )

      Correct Answer: TP / (TP + FP)

      Explanation:

      Positive predictive value is the probability that subjects with a positive screening test truly have the disease.

      Positive predictive value = true positive / ( true positive + false positive)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are a ST1 doctor working on a medical ward. You are struggling...

    Correct

    • You are a ST1 doctor working on a medical ward. You are struggling to cope with the workload and often leave the ward late. Who is the most appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer: Speak to your consultant

      Explanation:

      Speaking to your consultant is the most appropriate first action to take in this scenario. They are best placed to be able to take action to try and amend the situation. The consultant is also ultimately responsible for patient care and hterefore have a right to know if you are struggling, as this may affect patient care.
      Arriving early and taking time off sick do not address the problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 38-year-old female is referred to the dermatologist for a rash on both...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female is referred to the dermatologist for a rash on both her elbows. The rash is red, is papulovesicular in nature, and looks like it has many small blisters. The dermatologist diagnoses her with dermatitis herpetiformis. Which HLA haplotype is this associated with?

      Your Answer: HLA-B5

      Correct Answer: HLA-DR3

      Explanation:

      Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH), or Duhring’s disease, is a chronic blistering skin condition,characterised by blisters filled with a watery fluid. Despite its name, it is neither related to nor caused by herpes virus: the name means that it is a skin inflammation having an appearance similar to herpes.
      Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterized by intensely itchy, chronic papulovesicular eruptions, usually distributed symmetrically on extensor surfaces (buttocks, back of neck, scalp, elbows, knees, back, hairline, groin, or face)
      Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune condition associated with HLA-DR3.
      HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis. HLA-B5 is most commonly associated with Behcet’s disease. HLA-DR4 is associated with both type 1 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis. HLA-B27 is most commonly associated with several diseases, most commonly ankylosing spondylitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the oncologist clinic for further investigations. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the oncologist clinic for further investigations. She has experienced fever, sometimes glandular and night sweats. Clinical examination reveals lymphadenopathy and a biopsy is performed. The biopsy reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, confirming what was suspected to be a Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which cell surface marker is associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD15

      Explanation:

      The CD15 antigen, also known as Lewis (hapten)X, serves as an immuno-phenotypic marker for Reed-Sternberg cells and its expression has diagnostic, but also prognostic significance in Hodgkin Lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 54-year-old female patient presents with a one week history of bloody diarrhoea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old female patient presents with a one week history of bloody diarrhoea, fever and abdominal pain. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis which she controls with methotrexate. Her stool sample shows Campylobacter jejuni. What is the single most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluids + clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      This woman is receiving methotrexate, an immunosuppressant, to control her rheumatoid arthritis. In such immunocompromised patients, BNF suggests clarithromycin as first-line management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the A&E with breathlessness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the A&E with breathlessness, fatigue and palpitations. Anamnesis does not reveal any syncope or chest pain in the past. on the other hand, these symptoms were present intermittently for a year. Clinical examination reveals a pan-systolic murmur associated with giant V waves in the jugular venous pulse. Chest auscultation and resting ECG are normal. 24 hour ECG tape shows a short burst of supraventricular tachycardia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Ebstein’s anomaly is characterised by apical displacement and adherence of the septal and posterior leaflets of the tricuspid valve to the underlying myocardium, thereby displacing the functional tricuspid orifice apically and dividing the right ventricle into two portions. The main haemodynamic abnormality leading to symptoms is tricuspid valve incompetence. The clinical spectrum is broad; patients may be asymptomatic or experience right-sided heart failure, cyanosis, arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death (SCD). Many Ebstein’s anomaly patients have an interatrial communication (secundum atrial septal defect (ASD II) or patent foramen ovale). Other structural anomalies may also be present, including a bicuspid aortic valve (BAV), ventricular septal defect (VSD), and pulmonary stenosis. The morphology of the tricuspid valve in Ebstein anomaly, and consequently the clinical presentation, is highly variable. The tricuspid valve leaflets demonstrate variable degrees of failed delamination (separation of the valve tissue from the myocardium) with fibrous attachments to the right ventricular endocardium.
      The displacement of annular attachments of septal and posterior (inferior) leaflets into the right ventricle toward the apex and right ventricular outflow tract is the hallmark finding of Ebstein anomaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 8 - You want to compare a new oral hypoglycaemic drug with an existing treatment,...

    Incorrect

    • You want to compare a new oral hypoglycaemic drug with an existing treatment, which would also lower HbA1c. Which study design would you choose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superiority trial

      Explanation:

      When the aim of the randomized controlled trial (RCT) is to show that one treatment is superior to another, a statistical test is employed and the trial (test) is called a superiority trial (test).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old woman has multiple non-healing leg ulcers. She reports feeling unwell for...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has multiple non-healing leg ulcers. She reports feeling unwell for several months. Examination findings include a normal blood pressure, pulse 90 bpm, pale conjunctivae and poor dentition associated with bleeding gums. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Explanation:

      Severe vitamin C deficiency results in scurvy, a disorder characterized by hemorrhagic manifestations and abnormal osteoid and dentin formation.
      Vitamin C plays a role in collagen, carnitine, hormone, and amino acid formation. It is essential for bone and blood vessel health and wound healing and facilitates recovery from burns. Vitamin C is also an antioxidant, supports immune function, and facilitates the absorption of iron (see table Sources, Functions, and Effects of Vitamins).
      Dietary sources of vitamin C include citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, broccoli, strawberries, and sweet peppers. (See also Overview of Vitamins.)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Choose the karyotype associated with short stature: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the karyotype associated with short stature:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 45,XO

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome (TS) is one of the most common genetic disorders; occurs with an incidence of I: 2,500 female live births. It results from complete or partial chromosome X monosomy. TS is associated with abnormalities of the X chromosome and characteristic clinical features of short stature, gonadal dysgenesis, sexual developmental deficiencies, cardiac and/or renal defects, webbed neck, low-set ears, skeletal deformities including cubitus valgus, a propensity to ear infections and hearing deficits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 23-year-old male patient with a downward dislocation of the lens in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male patient with a downward dislocation of the lens in his right eye is experiencing visual problems. The ophthalmologist notes a constellation of symptoms resembling those of Marfan Syndrome. The patient's history reveals learning disabilities and a diagnosis of homocystinuria is suspected. What is the pathophysiology of homocystinuria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of cystathionine beta synthase

      Explanation:

      Inherited metabolic disorders are often characterized by the lack of an essential enzyme and are currently treated by dietary restriction and other strategies to replace the substrates or products of the missing enzyme. Patients with homocystinuria lack the enzyme cystathionine β-synthase (CBS), and many of these individuals do not respond to current treatment protocols.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Choose the hormone secreted only by the adrenal medulla: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the hormone secreted only by the adrenal medulla:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      The major endocrine functions of adrenal gland are to produce catecholamines and steroids. Catecholamine, synthesized by the adrenal medulla, is responsible for blood pressure and blood flow regulation whereas steroids produced by the cortex control energy and water homeostasis and immune responses. Glucocorticoids, a major group of adrenal steroids, have a stimulatory effect on catecholamine synthesis in the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A study is developed to assess a new anti-hypertensive drug and two groups...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to assess a new anti-hypertensive drug and two groups of patients are randomly chosen. The first group takes an established anti-hypertensive drug for 3 months and the second group receives the new drug, again for 3 months. To assess the efficacy of the new drug, blood pressure is measured before and after taking the drug in both groups of patients. After a period of 1 month off medication, the groups swap medication and blood pressure is measured again, finally the difference in blood pressure after receiving each drug is calculated. Which of the following significance tests would you apply to assess the results of the study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Student's paired t-test

      Explanation:

      A t test is a type of statistical test that is used to compare the means of two groups. It is one of the most widely used statistical hypothesis tests in pain studies. There are two types of statistical inferences: parametric and nonparametric methods. Parametric methods refer to a statistical technique in which one defines the probability distribution of probability variables and makes inferences about the parameters of the distribution. In cases in which the probability distribution cannot be defined, nonparametric methods are employed. T tests are a type of parametric method; they can be used when the samples satisfy the conditions of normality, equal variance, and independence. In this case the data is parametric, and they belong to the same patients, so a paired t test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Choose the correct statement regarding relative risk: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding relative risk:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is the usual outcome measure of cohort studies

      Explanation:

      Relative Risk = (Probability of event in exposed group) / (Probability of event in not exposed group). The relative risk is mistaken by some, with the odds ratio and absolute risk. Relative risk is the ratio of the probability of an event occurring with an exposure versus the probability of the event occurring without the exposure. Thus to calculate the relative risk, we must know the exposure status of all individuals (either exposed or not exposed). This implies that relative risk is only appropriate for cases where the exposure status and incidence of disease can be accurately determined such as prospective cohort studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which one of the following statements regarding epidemiological measures is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding epidemiological measures is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cross-sectional surveys can be used to estimate the prevalence of a condition in the population

      Explanation:

      The incidence rate is the number of new cases per population at risk in a given time period. For example, if a population initially contains 1,000 non-diseased persons and 28 develop a condition over two years of observation, the incidence proportion is 28 cases per 1,000 persons per two years, i.e. 2.8% per two years.
      Prevalence is the proportion of a particular population found to be affected by a medical condition (typically a disease or a risk factor such as smoking or seat-belt use). It is derived by comparing the number of people found to have the condition with the total number of people studied, and is usually expressed as a fraction, as a percentage, or as the number of cases per 10,000 or 100,000 people.
      Incidence should not be confused with prevalence, which is the proportion of cases in the population at a given time rather than rate of occurrence of new cases. Thus, incidence conveys information about the risk of contracting the disease, whereas prevalence indicates how widespread the disease is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old lady presents with severe morning headaches associated with nausea. Head MRI...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old lady presents with severe morning headaches associated with nausea. Head MRI reveals a large compressive tumour arising from the falx cerebri. The tumour is well delineated. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningioma

      Explanation:

      Meningiomas are the most common benign tumours of the brain. Their name is derived from the fact that they arise from the dura mater which together with the pia matter and arachnoid mater form the meninges. The chances that a meningioma is benign are almost 98%. They are non-invasive and well delineated, causing sign and symptoms of brain compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum rather than chickenpox?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum rather than chickenpox?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of erythema surrounding lesions

      Explanation:

      Molluscum contagiosum (MC), is a viral infection of the skin that results in small, raised, pink lesions with a dimple in the center with little to no surrounding erythema. They may occasionally be itchy or sore. They may occur singularly or in groups. Any area of the skin may be affected, with abdomen, legs, arms, neck, genital area, and face being most common. Onset of the lesions is around 7 weeks after infection. It usually goes away within a year without scarring.
      Chickenpox lesions in the early stages may be mistaken for molluscum. However, the presence of associated macules and later vesicles and pustules help to differentiate them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 18 - Which one of the following best describes the main action of the polymerase...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following best describes the main action of the polymerase chain reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DNA amplification

      Explanation:

      Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a method widely used in molecular biology to make several copies of a specific DNA segment. Using PCR, copies of DNA sequences are exponentially amplified to generate thousands to millions of more copies of that particular DNA segment.The main advantage of PCR is its sensitivity: only one strand of sample DNA is needed to detect a particular DNA sequence. It now has many uses including prenatal diagnosis, detection of mutated oncogenes and diagnosis of infections. PCR is also extensively used in forensics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 19 - A study is done on 1000 patients to assess the specificity of a...

    Incorrect

    • A study is done on 1000 patients to assess the specificity of a new rapid finger-prick blood test developed to help diagnose deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The new test was positive on 200 patients with DVT and on 100 patients without DVT. It was also negative on 20 patients with DVT and 680 without DVT. What is the specificity of the new test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 680/780

      Explanation:

      Specificity (negative in health)
      The ability of a test to correctly classify an individual as disease- free is called the test′s specificity. [Table 2]

      Specificity = d / b+d

      = d (true negative) / b+d (true negative + false positive)

      = Probability of being test negative when disease absent.

      Example: One hundred persons with normal angles (diagnosed by ′gold standard′: gonioscopy) are examined by peripheral angle chamber depth examination. Eighty-five persons had normal peripheral angle chamber depth [Table 3]. The specificity of the peripheral angle chamber depth examination to PACG is therefore –

      85 / 100 = 85%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 29-year-old male patient with a history of three previous chest infections in...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male patient with a history of three previous chest infections in the past seven months presents with fever, pleuritic pain and productive cough. Chest x-ray shows lobar consolidation and the diagnosis of a fourth chest infection is established, after sputum culture reveals Haemophilus influenzae. The previous chest infections were due to Streptococcus pneumoniae. After a period of six weeks, a full blood count, urea, CRP, electrolytes and chest x-ray turn out as normal. What is the investigation you would choose next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum immunoglobulins

      Explanation:

      Hypogammaglobulinemia occurs due to a variety of underlying primary or secondary immunodeficient states, including HIV which is suspected in this case. The most commonly recognised clinical feature is recurrent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxoplasma gondii

      Explanation:

      The common congenital infections encountered are rubella, toxoplasmosis and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK. Maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
      Congenital toxoplasmosis is associated with fetal death and abortion, and in infants, it is associated with neurologic deficits, neurocognitive deficits, and chorioretinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 22 - From which cells is somatostatin secreted? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which cells is somatostatin secreted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: D cells in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      The somatostatin-secreting D-cells comprise ,5% of the cells of the pancreatic islets. The D-cells have a complex morphology and may, via cellular process, interact with many more islet cells than suggested by their low number. D-cells are equipped with ATP-sensitive potassium channels (KATP channels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 23 - Which one of the following statements regarding nitric oxide is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding nitric oxide is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Promotes platelet aggregation

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide, known as an endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF), is biosynthesized endogenously from L-arginine, oxygen, and NADPH by various nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enzymes and is a signaling molecule in many physiological and pathological processes in humans.
      One of the main enzymatic targets of nitric oxide is guanylyl cyclase. The binding of nitric oxide to the haem region of the enzyme leads to activation, in the presence of iron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old male patient presents with central chest pain and associated flushing. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male patient presents with central chest pain and associated flushing. He claims the pain is crushing in character. ECG reveals T wave inversion in II, III and AVF. Blood exams are as follows: Troponin T = 0.9 ng/ml. Which substance does troponin bind to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tropomyosin

      Explanation:

      Troponin T is a 37 ku protein that binds to tropomyosin, thereby attaching the troponin complex to the thin filament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following is caused by vitamin D? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is caused by vitamin D?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased plasma phosphate

      Explanation:

      Intestinal phosphate absorption is mediated by both transcellular and paracellular routes. The 1,25(OH)2D increases intestinal transcellular phosphate absorption at least in part by enhancing expression of type 2b sodium–phosphate cotransporter, thus increasing plasma phosphate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 26 - A 52-year-old man presents with numbness and tingling in his left hand. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man presents with numbness and tingling in his left hand. On examination he has weakness of elbow extension, metacarpophalangeal joint flexion and extension and distal interphalangeal joint flexion. All other movements and reflexes are normal. Sensation is normal apart from reduced pin-prick sensation over the medial aspect of the hand. An MRI scan of the cervical spine is performed due to suspicion of a nerve lesion. Which of the following pathologies is most likely to be found on the scan based on the clinical findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Disc herniation between C7 and T1

      Explanation:

      The C8 nerve forms part of the radial and ulnar nerves via the brachial plexus, and therefore has motor and sensory function in the upper limb. It originates from the spinal column from below the cervical vertebra 7 (C7).
      The C8 nerve receives sensory afferents from the C8 dermatome. This consists of all the skin on the little finger, and continuing up slightly past the wrist on the palmar and dorsal aspects of the hand and forearm.
      The other options available correspond to the C6 or C7 roots and these are unaffected as evidenced by normal elbow flexion and thumb sensation (C6) and normal sensation over the middle finger (C7). Elbow extension is weak as it has roots from both C7 and C8 and so cannot be used alone to decide between the two levels clinically.
      The C8 nerve contributes to the motor innervation of many of the muscles in the trunk and upper limb. Its primary function is the flexion of the fingers, and this is used as the clinical test for C8 integrity, in conjunction with the finger jerk reflex.

      Trunk:
      – Pectoralis major – Medial and lateral pectoral nerves (C5, C6, C7, C8, T1)
      – Pectoralis minor – Medial pectoral nerve (C5, C6, C7,C8, T1)
      – Latissimus dorsi – Thoracodorsal nerve (C6, C7, C8)
      Upper arm:
      – Triceps brachii – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
      Forearm
      – Flexor carpi ulnaris – Ulnar nerve (C7, C8, T1)
      – Palmaris longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
      – Flexor digitorum superficialis – Median nerve (C8, T1)
      – Flexor digitorum profundus – Median and Ulnar nerves (C8, T1)
      – Flexor pollicis longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
      – Pronator quadratus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor carpi radialis brevis – Deep branch of the radial nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor digitorum – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor digiti minimi – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor carpi ulnaris – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Anconeus – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
      – Abductor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor pollicis brevis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor indicis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      Hand
      – Palmaris brevis – Superficial branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Dorsal interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Palmar interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Adductor pollicis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Lumbricals – Deep branch of ulnar, Digital branches of median nerve
      – Opponens pollicis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
      – Abductor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
      – Flexor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
      – Opponens digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Abductor digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Flexor digiti minimi brevis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old male patient presents with haematemesis. Gastroscopy and biopsy reveal a carcinoma....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male patient presents with haematemesis. Gastroscopy and biopsy reveal a carcinoma. Who is the one to inform the patient of his diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The consultant in-charge of his care

      Explanation:

      One of the questions the therapist poses himself while informing a patient is: whom shall I inform about the diagnosis, treatment and prognosis? If we unconditionally accepted the view that information belongs to the patient from an ethical and legal standpoint, we would automatically exclude the partner and the family. Therefore, the therapist should raise another question: what is the benefit to the patient? To answer the question and the resulting dilemma, we have to leverage the long experience of family therapy and tailor it to the cases we are dealing with. It should be taken into consideration that patient and family are a dynamic system which was balanced before the onset of the disease, but is now disrupted, entering into crisis. Therefore, the denial mechanisms and personality characteristics we have previously elaborated on, and communication among members play a crucial role in determining the information strategy and the way family should be approached. In this particular case, the most appropriate person to inform the patient is the consultant, meaning the one currently responsible for the patient’s care. The patient most probably has already developed some form of close and trustful relationship with his consultant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 28 - Primarily, funnel plots are used to do what? ...

    Incorrect

    • Primarily, funnel plots are used to do what?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Demonstrate the existence of publication bias in meta-analyses

      Explanation:

      Funnel plots are graphical tools to assess and compare clinical performance of a group of care professionals or care institutions on a quality indicator against a benchmark. Incorrect construction of funnel plots may lead to erroneous assessment and incorrect decisions potentially with severe consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 29 - Choose the part of the antibody to which immune cells bind: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the part of the antibody to which immune cells bind:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fc region

      Explanation:

      Fc Receptors include the IgG receptors (FcγR), high-affinity IgE receptor (FcεRI), IgA and IgA/IgM receptors, and neonatal Fc receptor for IgG (FcRn). In particular, the FcγRs have been well known to play an important role in many biologic processes including those associated with the response to infection and cancer as well as in the pathogenesis of immune-mediated diseases. Fc receptors, the receptors for the Fc region of immunoglobulins, play an essential role in antibody-dependent immune responses. Fc receptors are detected on many types of hematopoietic cells including macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, and NK cells. Plasma cells produce five classes of antibodies, IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG and IgM. Fc receptors with an Ig superfamily related structure exist that correspond to each of these classes of immunoglobulins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 30 - Which one of the following cardiac tissue types has the highest conduction velocity?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following cardiac tissue types has the highest conduction velocity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres

      Explanation:

      Nerve conduction velocity is an important aspect of nerve conduction studies. It is the speed at which an electrochemical impulse propagates down a neural pathway. Ultimately, conduction velocities are specific to each individual and depend largely on an axon’s diameter and the degree to which that axon is myelinated.
      The cardiac action potential is a brief change in voltage (membrane potential) across the cell membrane of heart cells. Conduction speed varies:
      Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec
      AV node conduction 0.05 m/sec
      Ventricular conduction Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec (this allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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