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  • Question 1 - ...

    Incorrect

    • Your Answer: Over-riding aorta

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Explanation:

      The overall diagnosis is Fallot’s tetralogy. Ventricular septal defect with left to right shunt is indicated by drop of oxygen saturation from left atrium to left ventricle. Pulmonary stenosis is indicated by the pressure difference between the pulmonary artery and the right atrium. There is oxygen saturation drop from the left ventricle to the aorta which can be due to the overriding aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 29 year old male visits the clinic and complains of increased anxiety,...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old male visits the clinic and complains of increased anxiety, dizziness, and headache which started a week after he crashed his motorcycle. A CT scan of his brain showed no abnormality when it was done. His symptoms resolved four months after he had that episode. What did his original symptoms likely represent?

      Your Answer: Post-concussion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Post-concussion syndrome is a complex disorder in which various symptoms, such as headaches and dizziness, last for weeks and sometimes months after the injury that caused the concussion.

      Concussion is a mild traumatic brain injury that usually happens after a blow to the head. It can also occur with violent shaking and movement of the head or body. You don’t have to lose consciousness to get a concussion or post-concussion syndrome. In fact, the risk of post-concussion syndrome doesn’t appear to be associated with the severity of the initial injury.

      Post-concussion symptoms include:
      Headaches
      Dizziness
      Fatigue
      Irritability
      Anxiety
      Insomnia
      Loss of concentration and memory
      Ringing in the ears
      Blurry vision
      Noise and light sensitivity
      Rarely, decreases in taste and smell

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 60 yr. old male presented with ventricular tachycardia which was successfully cardioverted....

    Correct

    • A 60 yr. old male presented with ventricular tachycardia which was successfully cardioverted. To check whether he had prolonged QT interval, which of the following is the most appropriate method to measure the QT interval in ECG?

      Your Answer: Time between the start of the Q wave and the end of the T wave

      Explanation:

      The QT interval is the time from the start of the Q wave to the end of the T wave. It represents the time taken for ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation. The QT interval should be measured in either lead II or V5-6.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      104
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 74-year-old man who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and heart failure...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and heart failure is being started on digoxin. What is the mechanism of action of digoxin?

      Your Answer: inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Digoxin acts by inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
      Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside now mainly used for rate control in the management of atrial fibrillation. As it has positive inotropic properties it is sometimes used for improving symptoms (but not mortality) in patients with heart failure.

      Mechanism of action:
      It decreases the conduction through the atrioventricular node which slows the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter.
      It increases the force of cardiac muscle contraction due to inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump. It also stimulates the vagus nerve.

      Digoxin toxicity:
      Plasma concentration alone does not determine whether a patient has developed digoxin toxicity. The likelihood of toxicity increases progressively from 1.5 to 3 mcg/l.
      Clinical feature of digoxin toxicity include a general feeling of unwell, lethargy, nausea & vomiting, anorexia, confusion, xanthopsia, arrhythmias (e.g. AV block, bradycardia), and gynaecomastia

      Precipitating factors:
      Hypokalaemia
      Increasing age
      Renal failure
      Myocardial ischemia
      Hypomagnesaemia, hypercalcemia, hypernatremia, acidosis
      Hypoalbuminemia
      Hypothermia
      Hypothyroidism
      Drugs: amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, diltiazem, spironolactone (competes for secretion in the distal convoluted tubule, therefore, reduce excretion), ciclosporin. Also, drugs that cause hypokalaemia e.g. thiazides and loop diuretics.

      Management of digoxin toxicity:
      Digibind
      Correct arrhythmias
      Monitor and maintain potassium levels within the normal limits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      76
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department...

    Incorrect

    • A 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?

      Your Answer: t(14;18)

      Correct Answer: t(8;14)

      Explanation:

      Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14).

      Burkitt lymphoma is a rare high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma endemic to west Africa and the mosquito belt. It has a close association with the contraction of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Burkitt lymphoma often presents with symmetrical painless lymphadenopathy, systemic B symptoms (fever, sweats, and weight loss), central nervous system involvement, and bone marrow infiltration. Classically in the textbooks, the patient also develops a large jaw tumour.

      Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:
      1. t(9;22)—Chronic myeloid leukaemia
      2. t(15;17)—Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
      3. t(14;18)—Follicular Lymphoma
      4. t(11;14)—Mantle Cell Lymphoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      51
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene?

      Your Answer: myc

      Explanation:

      Myc is a family of regulator genes and proto-oncogenes that code for transcription factors.

      A tumor suppressor gene, or antioncogene, is a gene that protects a cell from one step on the path to cancer. When this gene mutates to cause a loss or reduction in its function, the cell can progress to cancer, usually in combination with other genetic changes. Tumor suppressor genes can be grouped into categories including caretaker genes, gatekeeper genes, and landscaper genes; the classification schemes are continually evolving.
      Examples include:
      Gene Associated cancers
      p53 Common to many cancers, Li-Fraumeni syndrome
      APC Colorectal cancer
      BRCA1 Breast and ovarian cancer
      BRCA2 Breast and ovarian cancer
      NF1 Neurofibromatosis
      Rb Retinoblastoma
      WT1 Wilm’s tumour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 63-year-old woman visits the diabetes clinic for review. She has had type-2...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman visits the diabetes clinic for review. She has had type-2 diabetes for 9 years and is now on insulin therapy. She has diabetic nephropathy, as exemplified by hypertension and proteinuria (urinary PCR 155); a recent creatinine level was 205 μmol/l and eGFR 24 ml/min.   Which of the following options best fits her prognosis or management?

      Your Answer: Treatment with ARB or ACE-I may slow further deterioration in renal function

      Explanation:

      Treatment with ARB or ACE-I may slow further deterioration in renal function in this patient, as studies have shown that blocking of the RAS in type 2 diabetic patients improve renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She comes from a family of Jehovah's Witnesses. Her haemoglobin on admission is 6.7 g/dl. She consents to a blood transfusion but her mother refuses. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Give the blood transfusion

      Explanation:

      People aged 16 or over are entitled to consent to their own treatment. This can only be overruled in exceptional circumstances. Children under the age of 16 can consent to their own treatment if they’re believed to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what’s involved in their treatment. This is known as being Gillick competent.

      Otherwise, someone with parental responsibility can consent for them.
      This could be:
      the child’s mother or father
      the child’s legally appointed guardian
      a person with a residence order concerning the child
      a local authority designated to care for the child
      a local authority or person with an emergency protection order for the child.
      Giving the blood transfusion is therefore both clinically and ethically the right course of action.
      Jehovah’s Witnesses frequently carry a signed and witnessed Advance Decision Document listing the blood products and autologous procedures that are, or are not, acceptable to them It is appropriate to have a frank, confidential discussion with the patient about the potential risks of their decision and the possible alternatives to transfusion, but the freely expressed wish of a competent adult must always be respected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      72
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 18 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM) as his...

    Incorrect

    • A 18 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM) as his brother had the same condition. What is the echocardiographic finding that is related to the highest risk of sudden cardiac death?

      Your Answer: A gradient of 10 mmHg across the left ventricular outflow tract

      Correct Answer: Significant thickening of the interventricular septum

      Explanation:

      There are five prognostic factors which indicate poor prognosis in HOCM:
      -family history of HOCM-related sudden cardiac death
      -unexplained recent syncope
      -large left ventricular wall thickness (MLVWT ≥ 30 mm)
      -multiple bursts of nsVT on ambulatory electrocardiography
      -hypotensive or attenuated blood pressure response to exercise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 59-year-old scientist is referred to you with a 2-year history of ascending...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old scientist is referred to you with a 2-year history of ascending lower limb numbness and, more recently, foot drop. In the last 6 months he has also developed numbness in his fingers. He has a distal reduction to pinprick and relatively preserved muscle power, except for ankle dorsiflexion and hyporeflexia in his legs. The GP has already organised nerve conduction studies and the report is sent along with the patient. Which of the following would be suggestive of an axonal neuropathy?

      Your Answer: Reduced conduction velocity

      Correct Answer: Reduced compound muscle action potential amplitude

      Explanation:

      Reduced conduction velocity is associated with demyelinating neuropathies. An abnormally slow response is associated with very proximal disease, i.e. radiculopathies. Delayed P100 latency is a feature of performing visual evoked potentials in those with optic nerve disease. Conduction block is usually associated with certain types of demyelinating neuropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      107.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity?

      Your Answer: Herpes labialis

      Correct Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria

      Explanation:

      Sunlight, especially its ultraviolet radiation component, can cause increased or additional types of damage in predisposed individuals, such as those taking certain phototoxic drugs, or those with certain conditions associated with photosensitivity, including:
      – Psoriasis
      – Atopic eczema
      – Erythema multiforme
      – Seborrheic dermatitis
      – Autoimmune bullous diseases (immunobullous diseases)
      – Mycosis fungoides
      – Smith–Lemli–Opitz syndrome
      – Porphyria cutanea tarda
      Also, many conditions are aggravated by strong light, including:
      – Systemic lupus erythematosus
      – Sjögren’s syndrome
      – Sinear Usher syndrome
      – Rosacea
      – Dermatomyositis
      – Darier’s disease
      – Kindler-Weary syndrome
      Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) belongs to the group inborn errors of metabolism and most patients with AIP are not light sensitive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old man is investigated for cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy reveals nodular...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is investigated for cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy reveals nodular sclerosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Which one of the following factors is associated with a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer: Lymphocytes 20% of total white blood cells

      Correct Answer: Night sweats

      Explanation:

      Night sweats are a B symptom in Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and imply a poor prognosis.

      HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.

      Staging of HL is done according to the Ann Arbor staging system:

      Stage
      I: Single lymph node region (I) or one extra lymphatic site (IE)

      II: Two or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (II) or local extra lymphatic extension plus one or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (IIE)

      III: Lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) which may be accompanied by local extra lymphatic extension (IIIE)

      IV: Diffuse involvement of one or more extra lymphatic organs or sites

      Suffix
      A: No B symptoms

      B: Presence of at least one of the following: unexplained weight loss >10% baseline during 6 months before staging; recurrent unexplained fever >38°C; recurrent night sweats—poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results are obtained: TSH < 0.05 mu/l, Free T4 29 pmol/L. Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer: TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperthyroidism and its most common cause is Grave’s Disease.
      Grave’s Disease is an autoimmune disease due to circulating autoantibodies known as TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies or Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSIs) that bind to and activate thyrotropin receptors, causing the thyroid gland to grow and the thyroid follicles to increase the synthesis of thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is the most useful marker of prognosis in multiple...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma?

      Your Answer: ESR

      Correct Answer: B2-microglobulin

      Explanation:

      B2-microglobulin is a useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma (MM). Raised levels imply a poorer prognosis. Low levels of albumin are also associated with a poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - One of your colleagues shares with you the fact that he is HBV...

    Incorrect

    • One of your colleagues shares with you the fact that he is HBV positive. He's a general surgeon in the local hospital and he's afraid that if people know he might lose his job. However, you try to convince him that it's important to inform occupational health but he explicitly refuses. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Keep confidentiality

      Correct Answer: Inform your colleague's employing body

      Explanation:

      According to the updated GMC guidelines, patient safety is more important than anything else, thus the correct thing to do is inform your colleague’s employing body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 63 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a 6-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 63 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a 6-month history of shortness of breath on exertion and a non-productive cough.   On examination there is clubbing, and crepitations heard at the lung bases. Lung function tests show a reduced vital capacity and an increased FEV1/FVC ratio.   What is his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carcinoma of the lung

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a condition in which the lungs become scarred and breathing becomes increasingly difficult.
      The most common signs and symptoms of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis are shortness of breath and a persistent dry, hacking cough. Many affected individuals also experience a loss of appetite and gradual weight loss.

      The clinical findings of IPF are bibasilar reticular abnormalities, ground glass opacities, or diffuse nodular lesions on high-resolution computed tomography and abnormal pulmonary function studies that include evidence of restriction (reduced VC with an increase in FEV1/FVC ratio) and/or impaired gas exchange (increased P(A-a)O2 with rest or exercise or decreased diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide [DLCO]).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 43-year-old police officer is admitted with a history of unsteadiness and slurring...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old police officer is admitted with a history of unsteadiness and slurring of speech. This has worsened over a period of three months. He complains of a tremor affecting his right hand and diplopia on right lateral gaze. He smokes 30 cigarettes a day and takes regular diclofenac for his arthritis. On examination, he is dysarthric and feels nauseated. Fundoscopy is normal, however there is marked horizontal nystagmus and evidence of a right VI nerve palsy. There also appears to be some mild facial weakness on the right side. Upon conducting Weber’s test, a louder tone is heard in the left ear. On conducting the Rinne test, both ears are normal. On examination of the upper limb, there is a right intention tremor and dysdiadochokinesis. Tone, power and reflexes are normal. On examination of the lower limb, tone, power and reflexes are normal, however he appears to walk with a broad-based gait and is leaning to the right. Lumbar puncture: Opening pressure 13 cm H20 (5–18) Protein 0.67 g/l (0.15–0.45) WCC 3 cells/ml (<5) Red cell count (RCC) 2 cells/ml (<5) Glucose 3.2 mmol/l (3.3–4.4) Blood glucose 5.8 mmol/l (3.0–6.0) Oligoclonal bands Present Serum oligoclonal bands Present Magnetic resonance scan shows a calcified lesion broadly attached to the petrous part of the temporal bone. In view of the above history and findings, what is the likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?

      Your Answer: Recurrent breast carcinoma with cerebral metastases

      Correct Answer: Meningioma of the cerebellar pontine angle

      Explanation:

      This patient has a combination of right cerebellar dysfunction with right-sided cranial nerve palsies (VI, VII, and VIII). The magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) shows a calcified meningioma within the right cerebellar pontine area, which would account for these findings. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows oligoclonal bands, however, these are matched in the serum, which reflects a systemic inflammatory response from his rheumatoid arthritis.

      The MRI scan and CSF analysis would not be consistent with progressive multiple sclerosis. The progressive nature of her symptoms would be against a diagnosis of brainstem infarct, and one would expect more pyramidal signs in the peripheral nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old patient that has just returned from India, complains of dyspnoea. On...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient that has just returned from India, complains of dyspnoea. On examination, you notice grey membranes on the uvula and tonsils and a low-grade fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diphtheria

      Explanation:

      Characteristic findings on patients suffering from diphtheria are the grey membrane on the uvula and tonsils together with the low grade fever and dyspnoea. It’s of great importance that the patient has recently been to India where there is a know prevalence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 62year-old manpresents with exertional chest pain and is found to have extensive...

    Incorrect

    • A 62year-old manpresents with exertional chest pain and is found to have extensive coronary artery disease on angiogram. Which of the following cell types is most implicated in the development of coronary artery plaques?

      Your Answer: Platelets

      Correct Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      An atheroma is an accumulation of degenerative material in the tunica intima (inner layer) of artery walls. The material consists of (mostly) macrophage cells, or debris, containing lipids (cholesterol and fatty acids), calcium and a variable amount of fibrous connective tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 60 yr. old man presented with severe central chest pain for the...

    Correct

    • A 60 yr. old man presented with severe central chest pain for the last 2 hours. He was on insulin for diabetes mellitus and he was dependent on haemodialysis because of end stage renal failure. He had undergone haemodialysis 48 hours prior to this presentation. His ECG showed an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Despite thrombolysis and other appropriate treatment, he continued to have chest pain after 6 hours from the initial presentation. His blood pressure was 88/54 mmHg and he had bibasal crepitations. His investigation results are given below. Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (137-144), Serum potassium 6.6 mmol/l (3.5-4.9), Serum urea 50 mmol/l (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 940 μmol/l (60-110), Haemoglobin 10.2g/dl (13.0-18.0), Troponin T >24 g/l (<0.04), Left ventricular ejection fraction was 20%. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Coronary angiography and rescue PCI

      Explanation:

      According to the history the patient has cardiogenic shock and pulmonary oedema. On-going ischaemia is indicated by persisting symptoms. So the most appropriate management is coronary angiography and rescue PCI. There are no indications for blood transfusion at this moment and it will aggravate the pulmonary oedema. Haemodialysis, beta blockers and furosemide cannot be given due to low blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 29-year-old physiotherapist with a history of bilateral vitreous haemorrhage is referred due...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old physiotherapist with a history of bilateral vitreous haemorrhage is referred due to progressive ataxia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberose sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

      Explanation:

      Retinal and cerebellar haemangiomas are key features of Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Retinal haemangiomas are bilateral in 25% of patients and may lead to vitreous haemorrhage. Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition predisposing to neoplasia. It is due to an abnormality in the VHL gene located on short arm of chromosome 3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Correct Answer: Lupus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma, exposure to a causative agents including: molluscum contagiosum, warts and toxicodendron dermatitis or secondary to scratching rather than an infective or chemical cause include vitiligo, psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen nitidus, pityriasis rubra pilaris, and keratosis follicularis (Darier disease).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      62.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old patient presents with inflammatory bowel disease. 5-ASA would be most appropriate...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with inflammatory bowel disease. 5-ASA would be most appropriate in treating which condition?

      Your Answer: Prevention of colon cancer

      Correct Answer: Maintenance therapy for ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      5-ASA is not an acute treatment; it is for maintenance therapy for ulcerative colitis and/or Crohn’s. The most benefit is seen in patients with ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 21 year old university student is taken to the A&E. She lives...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old university student is taken to the A&E. She lives alone in a small apartment. She is normally fit and well but she has been complaining of difficulty concentrating in classes. She is a one pack per day smoker and she has no significant past medical history. She is also not on any medication. She had a pulse of 123 beats per minute and her blood pressure was measured to be 182/101mmHg. She looked flushed. Chest x-ray was normal and her oxygen saturations were normal. She has typical features of carbon monoxide poisoning.   Initial investigations showed: Haemoglobin 13.0 g/dL (11.5-16.5) White cell count 10.3 x109/L (4-11 x109) Platelets 281 x109/L (150-400 x109) Serum sodium 133 mmol/L (137-144) Serum potassium 3.7 mmol/L (3.5-4.9) Serum urea 7.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) Serum creatinine 83 μmol/L (60-110) Drug screen Negative   Arterial blood gases on air: pO2 7.9 kPa (11.3-12.6) pCO2 4.7 kPa (4.7-6.0) pH 7.43 (7.36-7.44) Which test would confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carboxy haemoglobin

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colourless, odourless gas produced by incomplete combustion of carbonaceous material. Clinical presentation in patients with CO poisoning ranges from headache and dizziness to coma and death. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy can significantly reduce the morbidity of CO poisoning, but a portion of survivors still suffer significant long-term neurologic and affective sequelae.

      Complaints:
      Malaise, flulike symptoms, fatigue
      Dyspnoea on exertion
      Chest pain, palpitations
      Lethargy
      Confusion
      Depression
      Impulsiveness
      Distractibility
      Hallucination, confabulation
      Agitation
      Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
      Abdominal pain
      Headache, drowsiness
      Dizziness, weakness, confusion
      Visual disturbance, syncope, seizure
      Faecal and urinary incontinence
      Memory and gait disturbances
      Bizarre neurologic symptoms, coma

      Vital signs may include the following:
      Tachycardia
      Hypertension or hypotension
      Hyperthermia
      Marked tachypnoea (rare; severe intoxication often associated with mild or no tachypnoea)
      Although so-called cherry-red skin has traditionally been considered a sign of CO poisoning, it is in fact rare.

      The clinical diagnosis of acute carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning should be confirmed by demonstrating an elevated level of carboxyhaemoglobin (HbCO). Either arterial or venous blood can be used for testing. Analysis of HbCO requires direct spectrophotometric measurement in specific blood gas analysers. Elevated CO levels of at least 3–4% in non-smokers and at least 10% in smokers are significant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old man is a known case of Waldenström's macroglobulinemia and is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is a known case of Waldenström's macroglobulinemia and is admitted to the hospital with headache, visual disturbances, pale conjunctivae, and breathlessness. While in the assessment unit, he has had an episode of nosebleed that has been difficult to control. On examination, his heart rate is 120bpm, blood pressure is 115/65 mmHg, and he is febrile with a temperature of 37°C. Fundoscopy shows dilated retinal veins with a retinal haemorrhage in the right eye. What is the most appropriate next step of management?

      Your Answer: Urgent ophthalmology referral

      Correct Answer: Plasmapheresis

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying signs and symptoms of hyperviscosity syndrome, secondary to the Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia. Treatment of choice is plasmapheresis.

      Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; weight loss and lethargy; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      90.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following stimulates bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas and liver? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following stimulates bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas and liver?

      Your Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      Secretin stimulates bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas and liver. VIP induces relaxation of the stomach and gallbladder, secretion of water into pancreatic juice/ bile, and inhibits gastric acid secretion/absorption. CCK classically stimulates gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. Gastrin stimulates the secretion of HCl by parietal cells in the stomach. Motilin, as the name suggests, increases motility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      61.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 51 year old smoker was recently diagnosed with non small cell lung...

    Correct

    • A 51 year old smoker was recently diagnosed with non small cell lung carcinoma. Investigations show presence of a 3 x 3 x 2 cm tumour on the left side of the lower lung lobe. the mass has invaded the parietal pleura. Ipsilateral hilar node is also involved but there is no metastatic spread. What is the stage of this cancer?

      Your Answer: T2 N1 M0

      Explanation:

      The tumour has only invaded the visceral pleura and measures 3cm in the greatest dimension. Hence it is designated at T2. Ipsilateral peribronchial and/or hilar lymph node involvement would make it N1. There is no distal metastasis so M would be 0.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      83.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 43 year old female presented with a 5 day history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old female presented with a 5 day history of a productive cough with rusty coloured sputum. Chest X-ray showed lobar consolidation on her left side. The most likely causative organism would be?

      Your Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Streptococcus pneumonia is the chief causative organism for lobar pneumonia in this age group patients. Typically patients present with rusty coloured sputum and a cough. Pneumocystis jiroveci is responsible for causing pneumocystis pneumonia among immunocompromised patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 21-year-old gentleman presents with facial and ankle swelling. This has slowly been...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old gentleman presents with facial and ankle swelling. This has slowly been developing over the past week. During the review of systems, he describes passing ‘frothy’ urine. A urine dipstick shows protein +++.   What is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Minimal change disease

      Explanation:

      Minimal change glomerulonephritis usually presents as nephrotic syndrome wherein the patient (usually a young adult) will present with proteinuria, oedema, and impaired kidney function, which were evident in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 65 year old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history of lethargy associated with dyspnoea. He has never smoked and takes no medication. The chest X-ray shows multiple round lesions increasing in size and numbers at the base. There is no hilar lymphadenopathy.   What condition does he most likely have?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary metastases

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary metastasis is seen in 20-54% of extrathoracic malignancies. The lungs are the second most frequent site of metastases from extrathoracic malignancies. Twenty percent of metastatic disease is isolated to the lungs. The development of pulmonary metastases in patients with known malignancies indicates disseminated disease and places the patient in stage IV in TNM (tumour, node, metastasis) staging systems.
      Chest radiography (CXR) is the initial imaging modality used in the detection of suspected pulmonary metastasis in patients with known malignancies. Chest CT scanning without contrast is more sensitive than CXR.
      Breast, colorectal, lung, kidney, head and neck, and uterus cancers are the most common primary tumours with lung metastasis at autopsy. Choriocarcinoma, osteosarcoma, testicular tumours, malignant melanoma, Ewing sarcoma, and thyroid cancer frequently metastasize to lung, but the frequency of these tumours is low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      22.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (2/4) 50%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Haematology & Oncology (0/4) 0%
Clinical Sciences (2/4) 50%
Nephrology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (0/3) 0%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (2/4) 50%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
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