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  • Question 1 - Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity?

      Your Answer: Herpes labialis

      Correct Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria

      Explanation:

      Sunlight, especially its ultraviolet radiation component, can cause increased or additional types of damage in predisposed individuals, such as those taking certain phototoxic drugs, or those with certain conditions associated with photosensitivity, including:
      – Psoriasis
      – Atopic eczema
      – Erythema multiforme
      – Seborrheic dermatitis
      – Autoimmune bullous diseases (immunobullous diseases)
      – Mycosis fungoides
      – Smith–Lemli–Opitz syndrome
      – Porphyria cutanea tarda
      Also, many conditions are aggravated by strong light, including:
      – Systemic lupus erythematosus
      – Sjögren’s syndrome
      – Sinear Usher syndrome
      – Rosacea
      – Dermatomyositis
      – Darier’s disease
      – Kindler-Weary syndrome
      Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) belongs to the group inborn errors of metabolism and most patients with AIP are not light sensitive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 77-year-old female has been admitted in the psychiatric ward for the past...

    Incorrect

    • An 77-year-old female has been admitted in the psychiatric ward for the past 6 months with a fixed belief that her insides are rotting as she is deceased. Which of the following terms best describe this type of delusion?

      Your Answer: Ekbom syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cotard delusion

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis of this patient is Cotard syndrome.

      Cotard syndrome is a rare mental disorder where the affected patient believes that they (or in some cases just a part of their body) is either dead or non-existent. This delusion is often difficult to treat and can result in significant problems due to patients stopping eating or drinking as they deem it not necessary. Cotard syndrome is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders.

      Other options:
      – Othello syndrome is a delusional belief that a patients partner is committing infidelity despite no evidence of this. It can often result in violence and controlling behaviour.
      – De Clerambault syndrome (otherwise known as erotomania), is where a patient believes that a person of higher social or professional standing is in love with them. Often this presents with people who believe celebrities are in love with them.
      – Ekbom syndrome is also known as delusional parasitosis and is the belief that they are infected with parasites or have ‘bugs’ under their skin. This can vary from the classic psychosis symptoms in narcotic use where the user can ‘see’ bugs crawling under their skin or can be a patient who believes that they are infested with snakes.
      – Capgras delusion is the belief that friends or family members have been replaced by an identical-looking imposter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      102
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 60 yr. old previously well male was admitted with a suspected pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old previously well male was admitted with a suspected pulmonary embolism. On examination his BP was 130/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 88 bpm. His CXR was normal. He was treated with low molecular weight heparin. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial lung investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ventilation-perfusion scan

      Correct Answer: Computed tomographic pulmonary angiography

      Explanation:

      Computed tomographic pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the standard investigative tool, used for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary angiography is indicated if CTPA is not available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      76.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 66 year-old marketing analyst presents to the respiratory clinic with a 2-month...

    Incorrect

    • A 66 year-old marketing analyst presents to the respiratory clinic with a 2-month history of progressive weakness and shortness of breath. He finds it difficult to stand from sitting, and struggles climbing stairs. He is an ex-smoker with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He had a recent exacerbation one month ago for which he was treated by the GP with a course of oral prednisolone, during which time his weakness transiently improved. On examination, you note a left-sided monophonic wheeze and reduced breath sounds at the left lung base. Blood tests and a chest x-ray are requested. Hb 145 g/L WCC10.5 109/L, Na+136 mmol/L, K+ 4.3 mmol/L, Urea 6.8 mmol/L, Creatinine 93 mmol/L, Calcium 2.62 mmol/L, Phosphate 1.44 mmol/L, Chest x-ray shows hyperinflated lungs, left lower lobe collapse and a bulky left hilum What is the most likely cause of this patient's weakness?

      Your Answer: Steroid-induced myopathy

      Correct Answer: Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

      Explanation:

      This man has a small-cell lung cancer (SCLC) and associated Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome – a well-recognized paraneoplastic manifestation of SCLC. This classically affects the proximal muscles, especially in the legs, causing difficulty in standing from a seated position and climbing stairs. In contrast to myasthenia gravis, eye involvement is uncommon. Treatment with steroids is often helpful, which explains his transient symptomatic improvement during treatment for his COPD exacerbation. Steroid myopathy does not fit as the symptoms started well before his course of prednisolone. Although the patient is mildly hypercalcaemic, this would not be sufficient to produce his presenting symptoms, although it does reinforce the suspicion of lung malignancy. Motor neurone disease would be unlikely in this context and would not improve with steroids. Myasthenia gravis could produce these symptoms, but in the context of a new lung mass is a less viable diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      219
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin acts?

      Your Answer: Luteinising hormone receptor antagonist

      Correct Answer: GnRH agonist

      Explanation:

      Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) for prostate cancer:

      Goserelin (Zoladex) is a synthetic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogue; chronic stimulation of goserelin results in suppression of LH, FSH serum levels thereby preventing a rise in testosterone.

      Dosage form: 3.6 mg/10.8mg implants.

      Adverse effects include flushing, sweating, diarrhoea, erectile dysfunction, less commonly, rash, depression, hypersensitivity, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old man presented with bloody diarrhoea and weight loss. Which one of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presented with bloody diarrhoea and weight loss. Which one of the following would favour the diagnosis of Crohn’s disease on rectal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Superficial ulceration

      Correct Answer: Patchy inflammation

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is patchy inflammation. Superficial ulceration as well as non-patchy inflammation are seen in ulcerative colitis (UC) in the colon and rectum; you would expect to see transmural inflammation in Crohn’s disease and it can be patchy and located anywhere from mouth to anus. Crypt distortion and crypt abscesses are seen in both UC and Crohn’s, however they are more common in ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      96.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70 year old male complained of poor vision at night which has...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old male complained of poor vision at night which has gradually worsened with time. He has changed his glasses several times but there has been no improvement. On examination his pupils and cornea were normal. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Cataract

      Explanation:

      Senile cataract is an age-related, vision-impairing disease characterized by gradual progressive clouding and thickening of the lens of the eye. Patients with senile cataracts often present with a history of gradual progressive visual deterioration and disturbance in night and near vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 60 yr. old man presented with difficulty in breathing. On examination he...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old man presented with difficulty in breathing. On examination he was severely dyspnoeic and tachycardic. What is the clinical sign that would favour the diagnosis of cardiac tamponade over constrictive pericarditis?

      Your Answer: Hypotension

      Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus

      Explanation:

      Pulsus paradoxus is defined as the exaggerated fall in systolic blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mmHg. Cardiac tamponade is the classic cause of pulsus paradoxus. Kussmaul’s sign (a rise in the jugular venous pressure on inspiration) is mostly seen in constrictive pericarditis. Hypotension, muffled heart sounds and raised JVP can be seen in both conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old man presents with haematemesis. His consumption of alcohol has been estimated...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with haematemesis. His consumption of alcohol has been estimated to be 120 units per week. Following alcohol withdrawal, when is the peak incidence of seizures expected in this patient?

      Your Answer: 6 hours

      Correct Answer: 36 hours

      Explanation:

      The peak incidence of seizures is expected 36 hours following the onset of alcohol withdrawal.

      Pathophysiology:
      Chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA mediated inhibition in the CNS (similar to benzodiazepines) and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. Alcohol withdrawal is thought to lead to the opposite (decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission).

      Clinical course in alcohol withdrawal:
      Symptoms begin 6-12 hours following the onset of alcohol withdrawal
      Seizures occur 36 hours following the onset of withdrawal
      Delirium tremens (coarse tremor, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, tachycardia) occurs approximately 72 hours after the onset of alcohol withdrawal.

      Management
      First-line: benzodiazepines e.g. lorazepam, chlordiazepoxide.
      Carbamazepine is also effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.
      Phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      78.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old patient that has just returned from India, complains of dyspnoea. On...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient that has just returned from India, complains of dyspnoea. On examination, you notice grey membranes on the uvula and tonsils and a low-grade fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diphtheria

      Explanation:

      Characteristic findings on patients suffering from diphtheria are the grey membrane on the uvula and tonsils together with the low grade fever and dyspnoea. It’s of great importance that the patient has recently been to India where there is a know prevalence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3 month history of pain and stiffness in the joints of his hands and feet. He also complains of dyspnoea occurring for the past 6 weeks. On examination there is a right pleural effusion and swollen hand joints. The clinician makes a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is most characteristic of a rheumatoid pleural effusion?

      Your Answer: It is a transudate

      Correct Answer: It has a low glucose level

      Explanation:

      The typical “rheumatoid effusion” is a sterile exudative fluid with low pH (<7.3), low glucose (<60 mg. dL−1) and elevated lactate dehydrogenase (may be >700 IU). It should initially be treated with NSAIDs. Decortication should be reserved in patients with thickened pleura who have symptomatic dyspnoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      167.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following statements is true concerning gastrin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true concerning gastrin?

      Your Answer: It is secreted by the parietal cells in the stomach

      Correct Answer: Release is triggered by GI luminal peptides

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is released by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. It stimulates secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells of the stomach and also aids in gastric motility. It is released in response to the following stimuli: vagal stimulation, antrum distention, hypercalcemia. It is inhibited by the following: presence of acid in stomach, SST, secretion, GIP, VIP, glucagon, calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      114.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - From which cells is somatostatin secreted? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which cells is somatostatin secreted?

      Your Answer: S cells in upper small intestine

      Correct Answer: D cells in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      The somatostatin-secreting D-cells comprise ,5% of the cells of the pancreatic islets. The D-cells have a complex morphology and may, via cellular process, interact with many more islet cells than suggested by their low number. D-cells are equipped with ATP-sensitive potassium channels (KATP channels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness in her right knee. Her medical history is significant for osteoarthritis affecting her hand joints and diet controlled diabetes mellitus. On examination, the right knee is swollen, erythematous and tender. Which of the following tests would be most useful in the diagnosis of this case?

      Your Answer: X-ray of the knee

      Correct Answer: Aspiration and examination of the synovial fluid

      Explanation:

      Arthrocentesis should usually be done when there is a suspicion of pseudogout or septic arthritis as in this case which leads to an early diagnosis and prompt treatment. Polarized microscopy demonstrates weakly positively birefringent rhomboid crystals which are blue when parallel to light and yellow when perpendicular to light. Elevated serum uric acid levels that cause gout are usually found after large consumption of alcohol or meat, or post surgery. Autoimmune diseases like SLE, RA etc require an autoimmune screen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation?

      Your Answer: Left posterior hemiblock

      Correct Answer: Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome with right-sided accessory pathway

      Explanation:

      Causes for right axis deviation:
      -Right ventricular hypertrophy and Left posterior fascicular block
      -Lateral myocardial infarction.
      -Acute or chronic lung diseases: Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), cor pulmonale.
      -Congenital heart disease (e.g., dextrocardia, secundum atrial septal defect).
      -Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
      -Ventricular ectopic rhythms (e.g., ventricular tachycardia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      69.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 34-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and weight loss. History reveals he suffers...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and weight loss. History reveals he suffers from night sweats and upon auscultation you notice reduced breath sounds over the apex of his right lung and significant nail clubbing. You refer him to a pneumologist who administers the following antibiotics: rifampicin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide and isoniazid. What is the mechanism of action of the first drug?

      Your Answer: Inhibit DNA synthesis

      Correct Answer: Inhibit RNA synthesis

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin specifically inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase, the enzyme responsible for DNA transcription, by forming a stable drug-enzyme complex with a binding constant of 10(-9) M at 37 C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      95.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 24-year-old male is admitted with worsening shortness of breath with signs of...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male is admitted with worsening shortness of breath with signs of left ventricular failure. He has a known genetic condition. On examination, there is an ejection systolic murmur loudest over the aortic area radiating to the carotids, bibasal crepitations and pitting oedema to the knees bilaterally. On closer inspection of the patient, you note a wide vermillion border, small spaced teeth and a flat nasal bridge. The patient also has a disinhibited friendly demeanour. What is the likely precipitating valvular issue?

      Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Supravalvular aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Supravalvular aortic stenosis, is associated with a condition called William’s syndrome.
      William’s syndrome is an inherited neurodevelopmental disorder caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 7. The most common symptoms of Williams syndrome are heart defects and unusual facial features. Other symptoms include failure to gain weight appropriately in infancy (failure to thrive) and low muscle tone. Individuals with Williams syndrome tend to have widely spaced teeth, a long philtrum, and a flattened nasal bridge.
      Most individuals with Williams syndrome are highly verbal relative to their IQ, and are overly sociable, having what has been described as a cocktail party type personality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old male presents to the ER allegedly claiming that he consumed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents to the ER allegedly claiming that he consumed a bottle of antifreeze. Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be associated with this kind of poisoning?

      Your Answer: Acute renal failure

      Correct Answer: Loss of vision

      Explanation:

      Loss of vision after consumption of antifreeze is a characteristic presentation of methanol poisoning.

      Pathophysiology of methanol toxicity:
      When ingested, methanol is absorbed rapidly via the gastrointestinal tract in less than 10 minutes. Methanol is not protein-bound and is absorbed directly into the total body water compartment.
      Metabolism occurs mainly in the liver through serial oxidation via alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase but begins with alcohol dehydrogenase present in the gastric mucosa.
      Alcohol dehydrogenase oxidizes methanol to formaldehyde, and aldehyde dehydrogenase subsequently oxidizes formaldehyde to formic acid.
      Formic acid is the primary toxic metabolite that accounts for the associated anion gap metabolic acidosis and end-organ damage.

      Clinical presentation:
      Patients who present within the first 12 to 24 hours following ingestion may appear normal, and this is described as the latent period.
      Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain subsequently ensue, followed by CNS depression and hyperventilation due to metabolic acidosis.
      Ocular symptoms associated with retinal toxicity are often evident in the form of blurry vision, decreased visual acuity, photophobia, and “halo vision.”

      Treatment:
      Treatment options for methanol toxicity include supportive care, fomepizole (Antizole, 4-Methylpyrazole or 4MP), ethanol, dialysis, and folate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect...

    Correct

    • The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect on which of the following components of the coagulation cascade?

      Your Answer: Factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH):
      It inhibits coagulation by activating antithrombin III. Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factor Xa. In doing so it prevents activation of the final common path; Xa inactivation means that prothrombin is not activated to thrombin, thereby not converting fibrinogen into fibrin for the formation of a clot.

      LMHW is a small fragment of a larger mucopolysaccharide, heparin. Heparin works similarly, by binding antithrombin III and activating it. Heparin also has a binding site for thrombin, so thrombin can interact with antithrombin III and heparin, thus inhibiting coagulation.
      Heparin has a faster onset of anticoagulant action as it will inhibit not only Xa but also thrombin, while LMWH acts only on Xa inhibition.

      Compared to heparin, LMWHs have a longer half-life, so dosing is more predictable and can be less frequent, most commonly once per day.

      Dosage and uses:
      LMWH is administered via subcutaneous injection. This has long-term implications on the choice of anticoagulant for prophylaxis, for example, in orthopaedic patients recovering from joint replacement surgery, or in the treatment of DVT/PE.

      Adverse effects:
      The main risk of LMWH will be bleeding. The specific antidote for heparin-induced bleeding is protamine sulphate.
      Less commonly it can cause:
      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
      Osteoporosis and spontaneous fractures
      Hypoaldosteronism
      Hypersensitivity reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A study is developed to look at the potential of hip protectors to...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to look at the potential of hip protectors to reduce femoral neck fractures in elderly nursing home patients. The study included 800 patients randomly selected with an average age of 82 years of age. The data was collected over a two year period and the patients were randomly put in the standard care group or the hip protector group. From the 400 patients assigned to the hip protector group, 10 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. From the 400 patients assigned to the standard care group, 20 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. What is the correct value regarding the absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer: 2

      Correct Answer: 0.025

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. In this example, the ARR is 8 per cent (20 per cent – 12 per cent = 8 per cent). This means that, if 100 children were treated, 8 would be prevented from developing bad outcomes. Another way of expressing this is the number needed to treat (NNT). If 8 children out of 100 benefit from treatment, the NNT for one child to benefit is about 13 (100 ÷ 8 = 12.5). CER = 20 / 400 = 1 / 20 = 0.05, EER = 10 / 400 = 0.025, ARR =CER – EER = 0.025

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old woman presents for her first cervical smear. What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents for her first cervical smear. What is the most important aetiological factor causing cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill use

      Correct Answer: Human papilloma virus 16 & 18

      Explanation:

      It has been determined that HPV infection is the most powerful epidemic factor. This virus is needed, but not sufficient for the development of cervical cancer.
      The WHO’s International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) classified HPV infection as carcinogenic to humans (HPV types 16 and 18), probably carcinogenic (HPV types 31 and 33) and possibly carcinogenic (other HPV types except 6 and 11).
      Tobacco smoking, the use of contraceptives, and the number of births are factors that showed no statistically significant deviations in the studied population compared to other countries in the region, as well as European countries. They have an equal statistical significance in all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 47-year-old male with type II diabetes mellitus presents to your clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old male with type II diabetes mellitus presents to your clinic with a history suggestive of erectile dysfunction. You decide to start him on sildenafil citrate. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Nitric oxide synthetase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.

      Contraindications:
      – Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil
      – Hypotension
      – Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)

      Side-effects:
      Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic Neuropathy
      Nasal congestion
      Flushing
      Gastrointestinal side-effects
      Headache

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of recurrent pulmonary emboli (PE) has been...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of recurrent pulmonary emboli (PE) has been identified as having factor V Leiden. How does this particular inherited thrombophilia increase her risk of venous thromboembolic events?

      Your Answer: Activated factor V is inactivated much more slowly by activated protein C

      Explanation:

      In patients with factor V Leiden, inactivation of the active factor V (a clotting factor) by active protein C occurs 10x more slowly than normal. Therefore, this condition is also called activated protein C resistance.

      Factor V Leiden is the most commonly inherited thrombophilia, being present in around 5% of the UK’s population. It occurs due to gain-of-function mutation in the Factor V Leiden protein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for 2 weeks. On examination his blood pressure was 145/80 mmHg. On auscultation reversed splitting of the second heart sound and bibasal crepitations were detected. What would be the most likely finding on his ECG?

      Your Answer: Right bundle branch block

      Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      When closure of the pulmonary valve occurs before the aortic valve, reversed splitting occurs. The causes of reversed splitting are aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, left bundle branch block (LBBB), and a ventricular pacemaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning?

      Your Answer: Is associated with a macrocytic anaemia

      Correct Answer: Causes a peripheral neuropathy due to demyelination

      Explanation:

      Lead can be absorbed through the skin and by inhalation. It is associated with iron deficiency and a microcytic anaemia. The most common gastrointestinal symptoms are abdominal colic and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are epileptiform. Her mother reports that she appears to just 'stop', sometimes even in mid conversation, for several seconds at random times during the day. During these episodes, she can be unresponsive to questioning and has no recollection of them. Which of these drugs is contraindicated in this condition?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history points to absence seizures. Carbamazepine has been shown to aggravate generalized seizure types, especially absence seizures, because it acts directly on the ventrobasal complex of the thalamus which is critical to the neurophysiology of absence seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 60-year old female suddenly started seeing a curtain-like shadow in her field...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year old female suddenly started seeing a curtain-like shadow in her field of vision with flashes of lights and subsequent loss of vision, which prompted her to visit her ophthalmologist. What do you think is the most appropriate treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: Peripheral iridectomy

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Flashes of light, presence of floaters and loss of vision (often described as a black curtain closing in on the visual field) are symptoms that strongly indicate retinal detachment. The fundoscopy findings of retinal tears support this diagnosis. Therefore, surgery of retina must be done to treat this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 65 yr. old male patient admitted with myocardial infarction received thrombolysis, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old male patient admitted with myocardial infarction received thrombolysis, which lead to full resolution of the ST elevations on his ECG. He was on aspirin, clopidogrel, atorvastatin and enalapril. The next day he complained of pain in his legs and there was a diffuse petechial rash over his lower legs, especially in the feet. All his peripheral pulses were palpable. His FBC revealed neutrophilia with eosinophilia. His IgE antibodies were 3 kU/L (<2). What is the most likely reason for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Allergic reaction to thrombolysis

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol emboli

      Explanation:

      He has a consequence of atherosclerotic disease (MI). The most probable diagnosis is cutaneous cholesterol emboli as it is more common after anticoagulation or thrombolytics, the skin involvement, eosinophilia and raised IgE. It is more common above 60 yrs. of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 23 year old female is admitted with acute severe asthma. Treatment is...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old female is admitted with acute severe asthma. Treatment is initiated with 100% oxygen, nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and IV hydrocortisone. There is no improvement despite initial treatment. What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer: IV magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate is safe and may improve lung function and reduce intubation rates in patients with acute severe asthma. Intravenous magnesium sulphate may also reduce hospital admissions in adults with acute asthma who have had little or no response to standard treatment.

      Consider giving a single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate to patients with acute severe asthma (PEF <50% best or predicted) who have not had a good initial response to inhaled bronchodilator therapy. Magnesium sulphate (1.2–2 g IV infusion over 20 minutes) should only be used following consultation with senior medical staff.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old man was referred for abnormal liver biochemistry. Investigations showed he had...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man was referred for abnormal liver biochemistry. Investigations showed he had an ALT of 98 U/l and was Hep B surface antigen positive. Which of the following is true of chronic active hepatitis due to the hepatitis B virus?

      Your Answer: It is commoner in women than in men

      Correct Answer: It carries an increased risk of subsequent hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Chronic hepatitis B patients have an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma. In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have+HBsAg, + anti-HBc, + IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. In immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, +anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. It is important to remember these serologies, it will get you a lot of points on the test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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