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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old female with Down's syndrome presents with a systolic murmur on clinical examination. What is the most prevalent cardiac anomaly observed in individuals with Down's syndrome that could account for this murmur?
Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:Endocardial Cushion Defects
Endocardial cushion defects, also referred to as atrioventricular (AV) canal or septal defects, are a group of abnormalities that affect the atrial septum, ventricular septum, and one or both of the AV valves. These defects occur during fetal development when the endocardial cushions, which are responsible for separating the heart chambers and forming the valves, fail to develop properly. As a result, there may be holes or gaps in the septum, or the AV valves may not close properly, leading to a mix of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the heart. This can cause a range of symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, poor growth, and heart failure. Treatment for endocardial cushion defects typically involves surgery to repair the defects and improve heart function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP and mentions her diagnosis of heart failure. She expresses interest in learning about medications that can potentially decrease mortality in heart failure. Which drug has been proven to have this effect?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Common Medications for Heart Failure: Benefits and Limitations
Heart failure is a chronic condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there is no cure for heart failure, medications can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Here are some common medications used in the treatment of heart failure, along with their benefits and limitations.
Spironolactone: Recent trials have shown that spironolactone can reduce mortality in severe heart failure. This drug works by antagonizing the deleterious effects of aldosterone on cardiac remodeling, rather than its diuretic effect.
Simvastatin: While statins are effective in reducing morbidity and mortality in patients with coronary artery disease, their beneficial effects in heart failure remain inconclusive.
Atenolol: Atenolol has not been shown to be effective in reducing mortality in heart failure and is not used as part of the condition’s management. However, certain beta-blockers like carvedilol, metoprolol, or bisoprolol are recommended in patients who have been stabilized on diuretic and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE-I) therapy.
Furosemide: Furosemide is a mainstay in the treatment of both acute and long-term heart failure, particularly for relieving symptoms of fluid overload. However, there is little data to prove that it improves long-term mortality in patients with chronic congestive cardiac failure (CCF).
Digoxin: Digoxin does not decrease mortality in heart failure. Its use is reserved for patients in atrial fibrillation and those who cannot be controlled on an ACE-I, beta-blocker, and loop diuretic. Some studies suggest a decreased rate in CHF-related hospital admissions.
In conclusion, while these medications can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life in heart failure patients, their limitations should also be considered. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man who is a known alcoholic is brought to the Emergency Department after being found unconscious. Over several hours, he regains consciousness. His blood alcohol level is high and a head computerised tomography (CT) scan is negative, so you diagnose acute intoxication. A routine chest X-ray demonstrated an enlarged globular heart. An echocardiogram revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 45%.
What is the most likely cause of his cardiac pathology, and what might gross examination of his heart reveal?Your Answer: Alcohol and concentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle
Correct Answer: Alcohol and dilation of all four chambers of the heart
Explanation:Alcohol and its Effects on Cardiomyopathy: Understanding the Relationship
Alcohol consumption has been linked to various forms of cardiomyopathy, a condition that affects the heart muscle. One of the most common types of cardiomyopathy is dilated cardiomyopathy, which is characterized by the dilation of all four chambers of the heart. This condition results in increased end-diastolic volume, decreased contractility, and depressed ejection fraction. Chronic alcohol use is a significant cause of dilated cardiomyopathy, along with viral infections, toxins, genetic mutations, and trypanosome infections.
Chagas’ disease, caused by trypanosomes, can lead to cardiomyopathy, resulting in the dilation of all four chambers of the heart. On the other hand, alcoholic cardiomyopathy leads to the dilation of all four chambers of the heart, including the atria. Alcohol consumption can also cause concentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle, which is commonly seen in long-term hypertension. Asymmetric hypertrophy of the interventricular septum is another form of cardiomyopathy that can result from alcohol consumption. This condition is known as hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, a genetic disease that can lead to sudden cardiac death in young athletes.
In conclusion, understanding the relationship between alcohol consumption and cardiomyopathy is crucial in preventing and managing this condition. It is essential to limit alcohol intake and seek medical attention if any symptoms of cardiomyopathy are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man with valvular heart disease is urgently admitted with fever, worsening shortness of breath and a letter from his GP confirming the presence of a new murmur. During examination, a harsh pansystolic murmur and early diastolic murmur are detected, along with a temperature of 38.3 °C and bilateral fine basal crepitations. Initial blood cultures have been collected.
What is the most pressing concern that needs to be addressed immediately?Your Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Correct Answer: Administration of intravenous antibiotics
Explanation:Prioritizing Interventions in Suspected Infective Endocarditis
When dealing with suspected infective endocarditis, time is of the essence. The following interventions should be prioritized in order to limit valve destruction and improve patient outcomes.
Administration of Intravenous Antibiotics
Prompt initiation of intravenous antibiotics is crucial. An empirical regime of gentamicin and benzylpenicillin may be used until microbiological advice suggests any alternative.Electrocardiogram (ECG)
An ECG provides important diagnostic information and should be performed as part of the initial work-up. However, it does not take priority over antibiotic administration.Echocardiogram (ECHO)
An ECHO should be performed in all patients with suspected infective endocarditis, but it does not take priority over administration of antibiotics. A transoesophageal ECHO is more sensitive and should be considered if necessary.Throat Swab
While a throat swab may be useful in identifying the causative organism of infective endocarditis, it should not take precedence over commencing antibiotics. Careful examination of a patient’s dentition is also crucial to evaluate for a possible infectious source.Administration of Paracetamol
Symptomatic relief is important, but administration of paracetamol should not take priority over antibiotic delivery. Both interventions should be given as soon as possible to improve patient outcomes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia experienced severe central chest pain lasting one hour. His electrocardiogram (ECG) in the ambulance reveals anterolateral ST segment elevation. Although his symptoms stabilized with medical treatment in the ambulance, he suddenly passed away while en route to the hospital.
What is the probable reason for his deterioration and death?Your Answer: Myocardial wall rupture
Correct Answer: Ventricular arrhythmia
Explanation:Complications of Myocardial Infarction
Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious medical condition that can lead to various complications. Among these complications, ventricular arrhythmia is the most common cause of death. Malignant ventricular arrhythmias require immediate direct current (DC) electrical therapy to terminate the arrhythmias. Mural thrombosis, although it may cause systemic emboli, is not a common cause of death. Myocardial wall rupture and muscular rupture typically occur 4-7 days post-infarction, while papillary muscle rupture is also a possibility. Pulmonary edema, which can be life-threatening, is accompanied by symptoms of breathlessness and orthopnea. However, it can be treated effectively with oxygen, positive pressure therapy, and vasodilators.
Understanding the Complications of Myocardial Infarction
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with palpitations that have been ongoing for 4 hours. He reports no chest pain, has a National Early Warning Score (NEWS) of 0, and the only physical finding is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms that the patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation. The patient has no notable medical history.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Anticoagulation therapy with warfarin
Correct Answer: Medical cardioversion (amiodarone or flecainide)
Explanation:Management of Atrial Fibrillation: Treatment Options and Considerations
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt management to prevent complications. The following are the treatment options and considerations for managing AF:
Investigations for Reversible Causes
Before initiating any treatment, the patient should be investigated for reversible causes of AF, such as hyperthyroidism and alcohol. Blood tests (TFTs, FBC, U and Es, LFTs, and coagulation screen) and a chest X-ray should be performed.Medical Cardioversion
If no reversible causes are found, medical cardioversion is the most appropriate treatment for haemodynamically stable patients who present within 48 hours of the onset of AF. Amiodarone or flecainide can be used for this purpose.DC Cardioversion
DC cardioversion is indicated for haemodynamically unstable patients, including those with shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. It is also appropriate if medical cardioversion fails.Anticoagulation Therapy with Warfarin
Patients who remain in persistent AF for over 48 hours should have their CHA2DS2 VASc score calculated. If the score is equal to or greater than 1 for men or equal to or greater than 2 for women, anticoagulation therapy with warfarin should be initiated.Radiofrequency Ablation
Radiofrequency ablation is not a suitable treatment for acute AF.24-Hour Three Lead ECG Tape
Sending the patient home with a 24-hour three lead ECG tape and reviewing them in one week is not necessary as the diagnosis of AF has already been established.In summary, the management of AF involves investigating for reversible causes, considering medical or DC cardioversion, initiating anticoagulation therapy with warfarin if necessary, and avoiding radiofrequency ablation for acute AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital after collapsing while shopping. During her inpatient investigations, she underwent cardiac catheterisation. The results of the procedure are listed below, including oxygen saturation levels, pressure measurements, and end systolic/end diastolic readings at various anatomical sites.
- Superior vena cava: 75% oxygen saturation, no pressure measurement available
- Right atrium: 73% oxygen saturation, 6 mmHg pressure
- Right ventricle: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/8 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Pulmonary artery: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/12 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 18 mmHg
- Left ventricle: 98% oxygen saturation, 219/18 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Aorta: 99% oxygen saturation, 138/80 mmHg pressure
Based on these results, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Aortic Stenosis
There is a significant difference in pressure (81 mmHg) between the left ventricle and the aortic valve, indicating a critical case of aortic stenosis. Although hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) can also cause similar pressure differences, the patient’s age and clinical information suggest that aortic stenosis is more likely.
To determine the severity of aortic stenosis, the valve area and mean gradient are measured. A valve area greater than 1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient less than 25 mmHg indicate mild aortic stenosis. A valve area between 1.0-1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient between 25-50 mmHg indicate moderate aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 1.0 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 50 mmHg indicate severe aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 0.7 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 80 mmHg indicate critical aortic stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An adolescent with Down's syndrome is being seen at the cardiology clinic due to a heart murmur detected during a routine check-up. It is known that approximately half of infants with Down's syndrome have congenital heart defects, and the prevalence remains high throughout their lifespan. What are the five most frequent types of congenital heart disease observed in individuals with Down's syndrome? Please list them in order of decreasing incidence, starting with the most common cause and ending with the least common cause.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect, ventricular septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation:Congenital Heart Defects in Down’s Syndrome
Congenital heart defects are common in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with five specific pathologies accounting for approximately 99% of cases. Atrioventricular septal defects and ventricular septal defects occur in roughly a third of cases each, while the remaining third is accounted for by the other three defects. Chromosomal abnormalities, such as trisomy 21, which is commonly associated with Down’s syndrome, can predispose individuals to congenital heart disease. Around 50% of people with Down’s syndrome have one of the five cardiac defects listed above, but the exact cause for this is not yet known.
The development of endocardial cushions is often impaired in individuals with Down’s syndrome, which can lead to defects in the production of the atrial and ventricular septae, as well as the development of the atrioventricular valves. This explains why atrioventricular septal defects are a common congenital defect in Down’s syndrome, as they involve a common atrioventricular orifice and valve. The severity of the defect depends on its size and the positioning of the leaflets of the common atrioventricular valve, which contribute to defining the degree of shunt. Additionally, the type of ventricular septal defects and atrial septal defects that commonly occur in Down’s syndrome can be explained by the impaired development of endocardial cushions. VSDs are usually of the inlet type, while ASDs are more commonly of the prium type, representing a failure of the endocardial cushion to grow in a superior direction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Accident and Emergency department. He is visibly distressed but gives a history of sudden onset central compressive chest pain radiating to his left upper limb. He is also nauseous and very sweaty. He has had previous myocardial infarctions (MI) in the past and claims the pain is identical to those episodes. ECG reveals an anterior ST elevation MI.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to thrombolysis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brain neoplasm
Explanation:Relative and Absolute Contraindications to Thrombolysis
Thrombolysis is a treatment option for patients with ongoing cardiac ischemia and presentation within 12 hours of onset of pain. However, there are both relative and absolute contraindications to this treatment.
Absolute contraindications include internal or heavy PV bleeding, acute pancreatitis or severe liver disease, esophageal varices, active lung disease with cavitation, recent trauma or surgery within the past 2 weeks, severe hypertension (>200/120 mmHg), suspected aortic dissection, recent hemorrhagic stroke, cerebral neoplasm, and previous allergic reaction.
Relative contraindications include prolonged CPR, history of CVA, bleeding diathesis, anticoagulation, blood pressure of 180/100 mmHg, peptic ulcer, and pregnancy or recent delivery.
It is important to consider these contraindications before administering thrombolysis as they can increase the risk of complications. Primary percutaneous coronary intervention is the preferred treatment option, but if not available, thrombolysis can be a viable alternative. The benefit of thrombolysis decreases over time, and a target time of <30 minutes from admission for commencement of thrombolysis is typically recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman came to the Heart Failure Clinic complaining of shortness of breath. During the examination, a loud pansystolic murmur was heard throughout her chest. The murmur was more audible during inspiration than expiration, and it was difficult to determine where it was loudest. Additionally, she had distended neck veins and an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation (TR)
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs: A Guide
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here is a guide to differentiating some common heart murmurs:
Tricuspid Regurgitation (TR)
TR presents with a loud pan-systolic murmur audible throughout the chest, often loudest in the tricuspid area. The most common cause is heart failure, with regurgitation being functional due to myocardial dilation. Patients may have raised JVPs, distended neck veins, and signs of right-sided heart failure.Aortic Sclerosis
Aortic sclerosis is a loud murmur early in systole, with normal S1 and S2. It does not affect pulse pressure, and there is no radiation to the right carotid artery. Right-sided murmurs are louder on inspiration.Aortic Stenosis
Aortic stenosis is a mid-systolic ejection murmur, heard best over the aortic area or right second intercostal space, with radiation into the right carotid artery. It may reduce pulse pressure to <40 mmHg, and S2 may be diminished. Pulmonary Stenosis
Pulmonary stenosis gives a crescendo-decrescendo ejection systolic murmur, loudest over the pulmonary area. It is not pan-systolic, and S2 splitting is widened due to prolonged pulmonic ejection.Mitral Regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation is a pan-systolic murmur heard best over the mitral area, radiating to the axilla. It is not increased on inspiration.Remember to listen carefully to S1 and S2, check for radiation, and consider associated symptoms to differentiate heart murmurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man comes in with bilateral ankle swelling. During the examination, an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) of 7 cm above the sternal angle and large V waves are observed. Upon listening to the heart, a soft pansystolic murmur is heard at the left sternal edge. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:Common Heart Murmurs and Their Characteristics
Tricuspid Regurgitation: This condition leads to an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) with large V waves and a pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Other features include pulsatile hepatomegaly and left parasternal heave.
Tricuspid Stenosis: Tricuspid stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur.
Pulmonary Stenosis: This condition produces an ejection systolic murmur.
Mitral Regurgitation: Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex, which radiates to the axilla.
Aortic Stenosis: Aortic stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the neck.
Mitral Stenosis: Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex, and severe cases may have secondary pulmonary hypertension (a cause of tricuspid regurgitation).
These common heart murmurs have distinct characteristics that can aid in their diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents with pyrexia, night sweats and has recently noticed changes to his fingernails. He has no past medical history except he remembers that as a child he was in hospital with inflamed, painful joints, and a very fast heartbeat following a very sore throat.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pyrexia and Splinter Haemorrhages
The patient’s past medical history suggests a possible case of rheumatic fever, which can lead to valvular damage and increase the risk of infective endocarditis later in life. The current symptoms of pyrexia, night sweats, and splinter haemorrhages point towards a potential diagnosis of infective endocarditis. There are no clinical signs of septic arthritis, hepatitis, or pneumonia. Aortic regurgitation may present with different symptoms such as fatigue, syncope, and shortness of breath, but it is less likely in this case. Overall, the differential diagnosis for this patient includes infective endocarditis as the most probable diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is seen at cardiology outpatients 6 weeks after an anterior myocardial infarction. His wife complains that she cannot sleep at night due to his constant coughing and throat clearing.
Which medication is likely causing these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perindopril
Explanation:Common Side-Effects of Cardiovascular Medications
Cardiovascular medications are commonly prescribed to manage various heart conditions. However, they can also cause side-effects that can affect a patient’s quality of life. Here are some common side-effects of popular cardiovascular medications:
Perindopril: This medication can cause a dry, persistent cough, as well as hyperkalaemia, fatigue, dizziness, and hypotension.
Amiodarone: Side-effects of this medication include dizziness, visual disturbance, unco-ordination, tremors, paraesthesia, deranged liver function tests (LFTs), deranged thyroid function tests (TFTs), and lung fibrosis.
Atenolol: β-blockers like atenolol can cause fatigue, Raynaud’s phenomenon, bronchospasm, change in bowel habit, and sexual dysfunction.
Atorvastatin: Statins like atorvastatin can cause myopathy/myositis, derangement of glucose control, and deranged LFTs.
Candesartan: Angiotensin receptor blockers like candesartan can cause dizziness, headache, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose orthostatic hypotension. They are often prescribed to patients who are intolerant of ACE inhibitors due to dry cough.
In conclusion, patients taking cardiovascular medications should be aware of these potential side-effects and report any concerns to their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man comes to his doctor for a regular check-up after experiencing a heart attack 6 weeks ago. During the examination, he appears unwell, sweaty, and clammy, and mentions feeling constantly feverish. His recent blood work reveals an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and anemia. What is the most probable post-heart attack complication that this man is experiencing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dressler’s syndrome
Explanation:Complications Following Myocardial Infarction
One of the complications that can occur 2-6 weeks after a myocardial infarction (MI) is Dressler’s syndrome. This autoimmune reaction happens as the myocardium heals and can present with pyrexia, pleuritic chest pain, and an elevated ESR. Pulmonary embolism is not suggested by this presentation. Another complication is myomalacia cordis, which occurs 3-14 days post-MI and involves the softening of dead muscles leading to rupture and death. Ventricular aneurysm may also form due to weakened myocardium, resulting in persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure. Anticoagulation is necessary to prevent thrombus formation within the aneurysm and reduce the risk of stroke. Heart failure is unlikely to cause the above presentation and blood test results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male with a nine year history of type 2 diabetes is currently taking metformin 1 g twice daily and gliclazide 160 mg twice daily. He has gained weight over the past year and his HbA1c has worsened from 59 to 64 mmol/mol (20-42). The doctor is considering treating him with either insulin or pioglitazone. The patient is curious about the potential side effects of pioglitazone.
What is a common side effect of pioglitazone therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluid retention
Explanation:Common Side Effects of Diabetes Medications
Pioglitazone, a medication used to treat diabetes, can lead to fluid retention in approximately 10% of patients. This side effect can be worsened when taken with other drugs that also cause fluid retention, such as NSAIDs and calcium antagonists. Additionally, weight gain associated with pioglitazone is due to both fat accumulation and fluid retention. It is important to note that pioglitazone is not recommended for patients with cardiac failure.
Metformin, another commonly prescribed diabetes medication, can cause lactic acidosis as a side effect. This is a known risk and should be monitored closely by healthcare providers.
Sulphonylureas, a class of medications used to stimulate insulin production, may cause a rash that is sensitive to sunlight.
Finally, statins and fibrates, medications used to lower cholesterol levels, have been associated with myositis, a condition that causes muscle inflammation and weakness. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a two hour history of central crushing chest pain. She has a history of ischaemic heart disease and poorly controlled diabetes. The ECG shows ST-elevation in V1, V2 and V3, and her serum troponin levels are elevated. What is the most suitable definitive management approach?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
Explanation:Treatment Options for ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI)
ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI) is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. The diagnosis of STEMI is confirmed through cardiac sounding chest pain and evidence of ST-elevation on the ECG. The primary treatment option for STEMI is immediate revascularization through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and placement of a cardiac stent.
Therapeutic alteplase, a thrombolytic agent, used to be a common treatment option for STEMI, but it has been largely replaced by primary PCI due to its superior therapeutic outcomes. Aspirin is routinely given in myocardial infarction, and clopidogrel may also be given, although many centers are now using ticagrelor instead.
High-flow oxygen and intravenous morphine may be used for adequate analgesia and resuscitation, but the primary treatment remains primary PCI and revascularization. Routine use of high flow oxygen in non-hypoxic patients with an acute coronary syndrome is no longer advocated.
It is crucial to avoid delaying treatment for STEMI, as it can lead to further deterioration of the patient and increase the risk of cardiac arrhythmia or arrest. Therefore, waiting for troponin results before further management is not an appropriate option. The diagnosis of STEMI can be made through history and ECG findings, and immediate intervention is necessary for optimal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has been admitted for treatment of lower extremity cellulitis. During your examination, you hear three heart sounds present across all four auscultation sites. You observe that the latter two heart sounds become more distant from each other during inspiration.
What is the physiological explanation for this phenomenon?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased return to the right heart during inspiration, which prolongs closure of the pulmonary valve
Explanation:Interpretation of Heart Sounds
Explanation: When listening to heart sounds, it is important to understand the physiological and pathological factors that can affect them. During inspiration, there is an increased return of blood to the right heart, which can prolong the closure of the pulmonary valve. This is a normal physiological response. Right-to-left shunting, on the other hand, can cause cyanosis and prolong the closure of the aortic valve. A stiff left ventricle, often seen in long-standing hypertension, can produce a third heart sound called S4, but this sound does not vary with inspiration. An atrial septal defect will cause fixed splitting of S2 and will not vary with inspiration. Therefore, understanding the underlying causes of heart sounds can aid in the diagnosis and management of cardiovascular conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has been suffering from significant pain in her lower limbs when walking more than 200 meters for the past six months. During physical examination, her legs appear pale and cool without signs of swelling or redness. The palpation of dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial pulses is not possible. The patient has a body mass index of 33 kg/m2 and has been smoking for 25 pack years. What is the most probable vascular abnormality responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atherosclerosis
Explanation:Arteriosclerosis and Related Conditions
Arteriosclerosis is a medical condition that refers to the hardening and loss of elasticity of medium or large arteries. Atherosclerosis, on the other hand, is a specific type of arteriosclerosis that occurs when fatty materials such as cholesterol accumulate in the artery walls, causing them to thicken. This chronic inflammatory response is caused by the accumulation of macrophages and white blood cells, and is often promoted by low-density lipoproteins. The formation of multiple plaques within the arteries characterizes atherosclerosis.
Medial calcific sclerosis is another form of arteriosclerosis that occurs when calcium deposits form in the middle layer of walls of medium-sized vessels. This condition is often not clinically apparent unless it is severe, and it is more common in people over 50 years old and in diabetics. It can be seen as opaque vessels on radiographs.
Lymphatic obstruction, on the other hand, is a blockage of the lymph vessels that drain fluid from tissues throughout the body. This condition may cause lymphoedema, and the most common reason for this is the removal or enlargement of the lymph nodes.
It is important to understand these conditions and their differences to properly diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with increasing shortness of breath on exertion and swelling of her ankles and lower legs. During examination, she appears alert and oriented, but has significant erythema of her malar area. Her cardiovascular system shows an irregular heart rate of 92-104 beats per minute with low volume, and a blood pressure of 145/90 mmHg lying and standing. Her jugular venous pressure is raised with a single waveform, and her apex beat is undisplaced and forceful in character. There is a soft mid-diastolic murmur heard during heart sounds 1 + 2. Bibasal crackles are present in her chest, and she has pitting peripheral edema to the mid-calf. Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of her collapse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Distinguishing Mitral Stenosis from Other Valvular Diseases: Exam Findings
Mitral stenosis is a condition that presents with symptoms of left and right ventricular failure, atrial fibrillation, and its complications. When examining a patient suspected of having mitral stenosis, there are several significant signs to look out for. These include a low-volume pulse, atrial fibrillation, normal pulse pressure and blood pressure, loss of ‘a’ waves and large v waves in the jugular venous pressure, an undisplaced, discrete/forceful apex beat, and a mid-diastolic murmur heard best with the bell at the apex. Additionally, patients with mitral stenosis often have signs of right ventricular dilation and secondary tricuspid regurgitation.
It is important to distinguish mitral stenosis from other valvular diseases, such as mixed mitral and aortic valve disease, aortic stenosis, aortic regurgitation, and mitral regurgitation. The examination findings for these conditions differ from those of mitral stenosis. For example, mixed mitral and aortic valve disease would not present with the same signs as mitral stenosis. Aortic stenosis presents with symptoms of left ventricular failure, angina, and an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids. Aortic regurgitation causes an early diastolic murmur and a collapsing pulse on examination. Finally, mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur radiating to the axilla. By understanding the unique examination findings for each valvular disease, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old with cystic fibrosis was evaluated for cor pulmonale to determine eligibility for a deceased donor double-lung transplant.
What is the surface landmark used to identify right ventricular hypertrophy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fourth intercostal space, left parasternal area
Explanation:Anatomical Landmarks for Cardiac Examination
When examining the heart, it is important to know the anatomical landmarks for locating specific valves and ventricles. Here are some key locations to keep in mind:
1. Fourth intercostal space, left parasternal area: This is the correct location for examining the tricuspid valve and the right ventricle, particularly when detecting a right ventricular heave.
2. Second intercostal space, left parasternal area: The pulmonary valve can be found at this location.
3. Second intercostal space, right parasternal area: The aortic valve is located here.
4. Fourth intercostal space, right parasternal area: In cases of true dextrocardia, the tricuspid valve and a right ventricular heave can be found at this location.
5. Fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line: This is the location of the apex beat, which can be examined for a left ventricular heave and the mitral valve.
Knowing these landmarks can help healthcare professionals accurately assess and diagnose cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old salesman is found to have a blood pressure (BP) of 141/91 mmHg on a routine medical check. Two months later, his BP was 137/89 mmHg. He leads a physically active life, despite being a heavy smoker. He is not diabetic and his cholesterol levels are low. There is no past medical history of note.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice and reassess every year
Explanation:Hypertension Management and Lifestyle Advice
Managing hypertension requires careful consideration of various factors, including cardiovascular risk, age, and other risk factors. The 2011 NICE guidelines recommend further investigation and assessment for those with a BP of 140/90 mmHg or higher and for those at high risk. Once diagnosed, lifestyle advice and annual reassessment are recommended, with drug therapy considered based on the number of risk factors present.
For patients with cardiovascular risk factors, lifestyle advice and education on reducing cardiovascular risk are crucial. This includes support for smoking cessation, as smoking is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Patients with high risk, such as the elderly or heavy smokers, should be monitored annually.
While pharmacological treatment may be necessary, thiazide diuretics are no longer used first-line for hypertension management. For patients over 55, calcium channel blockers are recommended as first-line treatment. ACE inhibitors would not be used first-line in patients over 55.
In summary, managing hypertension requires a comprehensive approach that considers various factors, including cardiovascular risk, age, and other risk factors. Lifestyle advice and annual reassessment are crucial for patients with hypertension, with drug therapy considered based on the number of risk factors present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest tightness. His blood pressure is 200/105 mmHg and heart rate is 70 bpm. His femoral pulses cannot be felt. Echocardiography reveals cardiomegaly and a left-ventricular ejection fraction of 34%. The patient also has a N-terminal pro-brain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) of 25,000 pg/mL. As a result of the patient’s hypertension and high levels of NT-proBNP, he undergoes coronary angiography to exclude cardiac ischaemia. There is no evidence of myocardial ischaemia, but there are significant arterial findings.
Which of the following is most likely to be seen on coronary angiography of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stenotic arteries
Explanation:Differentiating Arterial Conditions: Understanding the Symptoms and Causes
When it comes to arterial conditions, it is important to understand the symptoms and causes in order to make an accurate diagnosis. Here, we will explore several potential conditions and how they may present in a patient.
Stenotic Arteries:
Coarctation of the aorta is a potential condition to consider in younger adults with poorly controlled hypertension. Symptoms may include weak or absent femoral pulses, heart failure, and left-ventricular hypertrophy. Angiography may reveal stenosis in the middle and proximal segments of the left anterior descending artery, as well as in the left circumflex artery.Thickened Arteries:
Atherosclerosis, or the build-up of plaque in the arteries, is a risk factor for heart attacks and stroke. However, it is unlikely to explain persistently high blood pressure or an absent femoral pulse.Aortic Aneurysm:
While chronic high blood pressure can increase the risk of an aortic aneurysm, sudden, intense chest or back pain is a more common symptom. Additionally, a patient with an aneurysm would likely have low blood pressure and an elevated heart rate, which is inconsistent with the vitals seen in this presentation.Calcified Arteries:
Calcification of arteries is caused by elevated lipid content and increases with age. While it can increase the risk of heart attack and stroke, it would not explain the absence of a femoral pulse or extremely high blood pressure.Patent Foramen Ovale:
This condition, which predisposes patients to paradoxical emboli, is typically diagnosed on an echocardiogram and is unlikely to cause hypertension. It should be considered in patients who have had a stroke before the age of 50.In summary, understanding the symptoms and causes of arterial conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
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You are fast-bleeped to the ward where you find a 46-year-old woman in ventricular tachycardia. She had a witnessed syncopal episode while walking to the toilet with nursing staff and currently has a blood pressure of 85/56 mmHg. She is orientated to time, place and person but is complaining of feeling light-headed.
How would you manage this patient’s ventricular tachycardia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ventricular Tachycardia: Synchronised Cardioversion and Amiodarone
Ventricular tachycardia is a serious condition that requires immediate treatment. The Resuscitation Council tachycardia guideline recommends synchronised electrical cardioversion as the first-line treatment for unstable patients with ventricular tachycardia who exhibit adverse features such as shock, myocardial ischaemia, syncope, or heart failure. Synchronised cardioversion is timed to coincide with the R or S wave of the QRS complex, reducing the risk of ventricular fibrillation or cardiac arrest.
Administering an unsynchronised shock could coincide with the T wave, triggering fibrillation of the ventricles and leading to a cardiac arrest. If three attempts of synchronised cardioversion fail to restore sinus rhythm, a loading dose of amiodarone 300 mg iv should be given over 10–20 minutes, followed by another attempt of cardioversion.
Amiodarone is the first-line treatment for uncompromised patients with tachycardia. A loading dose of 300 mg is given iv, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. Digoxin and metoprolol are not recommended for the treatment of ventricular tachycardia. Digoxin is used for atrial fibrillation, while metoprolol should be avoided in patients with significant hypotension, as it can further compromise the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
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A 72-year-old man has been hospitalized with crushing chest pain. An ECG trace shows ischaemia of the inferior part of the heart. What is the term that best describes the artery or arterial branch that provides blood supply to the inferior aspect of the heart?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior interventricular branch
Explanation:Coronary Artery Branches and Circulation Dominance
The coronary artery is responsible for supplying blood to the heart muscles. It branches out into several smaller arteries, each with a specific area of the heart to supply. Here are some of the main branches of the coronary artery:
1. Posterior Interventricular Branch: This branch supplies the inferior aspect of the heart, with ischaemic changes presenting in leads II, III and aVF. In 90% of the population, it arises as a branch of the right coronary artery, while in 10%, it arises as a branch of the left coronary artery.
2. Circumflex Branch: This branch supplies the anterolateral area of the heart.
3. Left Coronary Artery: This artery gives off two branches – the left anterior descending artery supplying the anteroseptal and anteroapical parts of the heart, and the circumflex artery supplying the anterolateral heart. In 10% of the population, the left coronary artery gives off a left anterior interventricular branch that supplies the inferior part of the heart.
4. Marginal Branch: This branch is a branch of the right coronary artery supplying the right ventricle.
5. Right Coronary Artery: This artery branches out into the marginal artery and, in 90% of the population, the posterior interventricular branch. These individuals are said to have a right dominant circulation.
Understanding the different branches of the coronary artery and the circulation dominance can help in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are called to see a 62-year-old man who has suddenly deteriorated after pacemaker insertion. He has sudden-onset shortness of breath and is cold and clammy. On examination, his blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, pulse 100 bpm and regular. His jugular venous pressure (JVP) is markedly elevated and his heart sounds are muffled. You give him oxygen and plasma volume expanders intravenously (iv).
Which of the following is the next most appropriate intervention?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prepare for pericardiocentesis
Explanation:Management of Cardiac Tamponade
Cardiac tamponade is a medical emergency that requires urgent intervention. The condition is characterized by a large amount of fluid in the pericardial sac, which can lead to compression of the heart and subsequent haemodynamic instability.
The first step in managing cardiac tamponade is to perform pericardiocentesis, which involves draining the fluid from the pericardial sac. Delaying this procedure can result in cardiac arrest and death.
While echocardiography can aid in diagnosis, it should not delay the initiation of pericardiocentesis. Similarly, a chest X-ray is not necessary for management. Swann-Ganz catheter insertion and inotropic support are also not recommended as they do not address the underlying cause of the condition.
In summary, prompt recognition and treatment of cardiac tamponade is crucial for patient survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man comes for his 6-week post-myocardial infarction (MI) follow-up. He was discharged without medication. His total cholesterol is 9 mmol/l, with triglycerides of 1.2 mmol/l. He is a non-smoker with a blood pressure of 145/75. His father passed away from an MI at the age of 43.
What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High-dose atorvastatin
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Hypercholesterolemia and Recent MI
When treating a patient with hypercholesterolemia and a recent myocardial infarction (MI), it is important to choose the most appropriate treatment option. In this case, high-dose atorvastatin is the best choice due to the patient’s high cholesterol levels and family history. It is crucial to note that medication should have been prescribed before the patient’s discharge.
While dietary advice can be helpful, it is not the most urgent treatment option. Ezetimibe would only be prescribed if a statin were contraindicated. In this high-risk patient, low-dose atorvastatin is not sufficient, and high-dose atorvastatin is required, provided it is tolerated. If cholesterol control does not improve with high-dose atorvastatin, ezetimibe can be added at a later check-up. Overall, the priority is to control the patient’s high cholesterol levels with medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 27
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraception options, specifically the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has no medical history, is a non-smoker, and reports no health concerns. During her check-up, her GP measures her blood pressure and finds it to be 168/96 mmHg, which is consistent on repeat testing and in both arms. Upon examination, her BMI is 24 kg/m2, her pulse is 70 bpm, femoral pulses are palpable, and there is an audible renal bruit. Urinalysis is normal, and blood tests reveal no abnormalities in full blood count, urea, creatinine, electrolytes, or thyroid function. What is the most conclusive test to determine the underlying cause of her hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium contrast of renal arteries
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
Secondary hypertension is a condition where high blood pressure is caused by an underlying medical condition. To diagnose the cause of secondary hypertension, various diagnostic tests are available. Here are some of the tests that can be done:
Magnetic Resonance Imaging with Gadolinium Contrast of Renal Arteries
This test is used to diagnose renal artery stenosis, which is the most common cause of secondary hypertension in young people, especially young women. It is done when a renal bruit is detected. Fibromuscular dysplasia, a vascular disorder that affects the renal arteries, is one of the most common causes of renal artery stenosis in young adults, particularly women.Echocardiogram
While an echocardiogram can assess for end-organ damage resulting from hypertension, it cannot provide the actual cause of hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta is unlikely if there is no blood pressure differential between arms.24-Hour Urine Cortisol
This test is done to diagnose Cushing syndrome, which is unlikely in this case. The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is exogenous steroid use, which the patient does not have. In addition, the patient has a normal BMI and does not have a cushingoid appearance on examination.Plasma Metanephrines
This test is done to diagnose phaeochromocytoma, which is unlikely in this case. The patient does not have symptoms suggestive of it, such as sweating, headache, palpitations, and syncope. Phaeochromocytoma is also a rare tumour, causing less than 1% of cases of secondary hypertension.Renal Ultrasound
This test is a less accurate method for assessing the renal arteries. Renal parenchymal disease is unlikely in this case as urinalysis, urea, and creatinine are normal.Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old patient visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath when climbing stairs. She reports no other health issues. During the examination, the GP notes a slow-rising pulse, a blood pressure reading of 130/100 mmHg, and detects a murmur on auscultation.
What is the most probable type of murmur heard in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur (ESM)
Explanation:Common Heart Murmurs and Their Associations
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat. They can be innocent or pathological, and their characteristics can provide clues to the underlying condition. Here are some common heart murmurs and their associations:
1. Ejection systolic murmur (ESM): This murmur is associated with aortic stenosis and is related to the ventricular outflow tract. It may be innocent in children and high-output states, but pathological causes include aortic stenosis and sclerosis, pulmonary stenosis, and hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy.
2. Mid-diastolic murmur: This murmur is commonly associated with tricuspid or mitral stenosis and starts after the second heart sound and ends before the first heart sound. Rheumatic fever is a common cause of mitral valve stenosis.
3. Pansystolic murmur: This murmur is associated with mitral regurgitation and is of uniform intensity that starts immediately after S1 and merges with S2. It is also found in tricuspid regurgitation and ventricular septal defects.
4. Early diastolic murmur (EDM): This high-pitched murmur occurs in pulmonary and aortic regurgitation and is caused by blood flowing through a dysfunctional valve back into the ventricle. It may be accentuated by asking the patient to lean forward.
5. Continuous murmur: This murmur is commonly associated with a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), a connection between the aorta and the pulmonary artery. It causes a continuous murmur, sometimes described as a machinery murmur, heard throughout both systole and diastole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman with a history of two episodes of pneumothorax over the last 12 months was found to have ectopia lentis, during a recent examination by an ophthalmologist. It is noted that she has pectus excavatum, pes planus, a high arched palate and a positive wrist and thumb sign.
What is the likely finding from her echocardiogram?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dilated aortic root
Explanation:Cardiovascular Conditions and Marfan Syndrome
Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue and can lead to various cardiovascular conditions. One of the most common complications is aortic aneurysm, which occurs when the ascending aorta becomes dilated and can result in acute aortic dissection. Additionally, the stretching of the aortic valve annulus can cause aortic regurgitation. Marfan syndrome is caused by a mutation in the FBN1 gene and can be differentiated from other connective tissue disorders such as Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, pseudoxanthoma elasticum, and homocystinuria.
Aortic valve stenosis, on the other hand, is not associated with Marfan syndrome and is caused by either senile calcific degeneration or a congenital bicuspid aortic valve. Coarctation of the aorta is associated with Turner syndrome and presents with hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities. Ventricular septal defects and Ebstein’s anomaly are also not associated with Marfan syndrome.
In summary, Marfan syndrome can lead to various cardiovascular complications, and it is important to differentiate it from other connective tissue disorders and understand the associated conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to the hospital with complaints of shortness of breath, extreme weakness, and epigastric pain that started 30 minutes ago while she was using the restroom. She is still experiencing these symptoms and is sweating profusely. Her heart rate is 150 bpm, and her blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg. An ECG is ordered, which shows elevated ST segments in consecutive leads and Q waves. What is the most probable cause of this woman's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Completely occlusive thrombus
Explanation:Causes of Chest Pain: Understanding Myocardial Infarction and Other Conditions
Chest pain can be a symptom of various conditions, including myocardial infarction, coronary artery stenosis, coronary vasospasm, partially occlusive thrombus, and pulmonary embolism. Understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
Myocardial Infarction
Myocardial infarction, or heart attack, is a serious condition that occurs when a completely occlusive thrombus blocks blood flow to the heart. Women are more likely to experience atypical symptoms such as shortness of breath, weakness, and fatigue, rather than the typical substernal chest pain. However, heart rate, blood pressure, and ECG changes indicate a myocardial infarction.
Coronary Artery Stenosis
Coronary artery stenosis causes stable angina, which subsides with rest. It is characterized by a narrowing of the coronary arteries that supply blood to the heart.
Coronary Vasospasm
Coronary vasospasm is the cause of Prinzmetal’s angina, which presents as intermittent chest pain at rest. It is caused by the sudden constriction of the coronary arteries.
Partially Occlusive Thrombus
A partially occlusive thrombus may present similarly to a completely occlusive thrombus, but it does not usually cause an elevation in the ST segment.
Pulmonary Embolism
A pulmonary embolism is an occlusion of circulation in the lungs and presents as severe shortness of breath. However, it does not typically cause the specific ECG changes seen in myocardial infarction.
Understanding the differences between these conditions can help healthcare professionals accurately diagnose and treat chest pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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