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  • Question 1 - A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she...

    Incorrect

    • A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is 39+6 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes. What is the likelihood of spontaneous labour starting within 24 hours?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 60%

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, term refers to the gestational period from 37 0 to 41 6 weeks. Preterm births occur between 24 0 and 36 6 weeks. 60% of the women will go into labour with in 24 hours in PPROM. After 24 hours have past without any contraction and the gestation age is more than 34 week than prostaglandins can be used to augment labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following statements regarding hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women at...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women at the age of 55 is incorrect?

      Your Answer: It is not recommended for treating postmenopausal women presenting with osteoporosis who are older than 60 to 65 years and where the management of osteoporosis is the only concern

      Correct Answer: Combination with Alendronate is usually encouraged

      Explanation:

      Taking hormone replacement therapy for more than 5 years can increase the risk of developing breast cancer. HRT is not recommended as treatment for osteoporosis alone in postmenopausal women older than 60. Raloxifene reduces risk of vertebral fracture in post menopausal women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In evaluating a reproductive age woman who presents with amenorrhea, which of the...

    Correct

    • In evaluating a reproductive age woman who presents with amenorrhea, which of the following conditions will result in a positive (withdrawal) progesterone challenge test?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum followed by the placenta- Exogenous progesterone will not lead to withdrawal bleeding. In ovarian failure as well as pituitary failure, no oestrogen stimulation of the endometrium exists, and progesterone cannot cause withdrawal bleeding. With Mullerian agenesis, there is no endometrium. Polycystic ovarian syndrome has an abundance of circulating oestrogen, so the endometrium will proliferate.

      → In pregnancy progesterone withdrawal will not occur since the corpus luteum is producing progesterone- The placenta will take over, starting at 7 weeks, and will be the sole producer of progesterone by 12 weeks.
      → In ovarian failure no oestrogen will be produced; no proliferation of the endometrium will occur.
      → Pituitary failure is an incorrect answer because without gonadotropin stimulation, there will not be enough oestrogen to stimulate the endometrial lining.
      → Mullerian agenesis is an incorrect answer – there is no uterus, thus no bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG) is structurally similar to which of the following hormones?...

    Correct

    • Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG) is structurally similar to which of the following hormones?

      Your Answer: Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

      Explanation:

      TSH, FSH, LH and HCG are all similar glycoproteins. These hormones consist of a common α-subunit and specific β-subunit. All are glycosylated, which determines their bioactivity and half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Rhesus D immunoglobin treatment utilises what class of antibody? ...

    Correct

    • Rhesus D immunoglobin treatment utilises what class of antibody?

      Your Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      It utilizes the IgG class of the antibody.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan...

    Correct

    • You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan at 13 weeks following a positive pregnancy test. The patient has had 2 previous pregnancies for which she opted for termination on both occasions. The scan shows no identifiable fetal tissue or gestational sac and you note the radiologist has reported a 'bunch of grapes sign'. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Complete molar pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disorder is abnormal conception that is characterised by swollen and oedematous villi with proliferation of the trophoblasts. In a complete mole there is absence of fetal tissue, there is diffuse proliferation of trophoblastic tissue around hydropic villi and on USG it appears as a bunch of grapes or snow storm appearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman presented to the emergency department after developing a fever, lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presented to the emergency department after developing a fever, lower abdominal pain, and uterine tenderness following a vaginal delivery. Upon observation, it was noted that she remains alert, and her blood pressure and urine output are good. A cervical smear was ordered and results revealed the presence of large, Gram-positive rods suggestive of Clostridia. Which of the following is to be considered before proceeding with hysterectomy?

      Your Answer: Immediate radiographic examination for hydrosalpinx

      Correct Answer: Gas gangrene

      Explanation:

      Gas gangrene is synonymous with myonecrosis and is a highly lethal infection of deep soft tissue, caused by Clostridium species, with Clostridium perfringens being the most common. This organism has also had increased incidence as the cause of deep tissue infections associated with childbirth and infections after gynaecologic procedures including septic abortions, which can cause gas gangrene of the uterus.
      Health care workers should suspect gas gangrene if anaerobic gram-positive bacilli are present in a wound with necrosis of soft tissue and muscle. The organisms produce a gas identifiable on x-ray or CT scans.
      Patients with gas gangrene (myonecrosis) present with signs of infection such as fever, chills, pain, and less superficial inflammation at the site of infection than one would expect given the deep penetrating nature of these infections. The condition of the patient can rapidly progress to sepsis and death if not treated aggressively. The wound discharge is often dishwater looking with a musty order.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old female patient complained of two months of painless vaginal bleeding. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female patient complained of two months of painless vaginal bleeding. The endometrial thickness is 6mm, according to transvaginal ultrasound. To rule out endometrial cancer, you plan to send this patient to a gynaecologist for an endometrial biopsy with or without hysteroscopy. Which of the following characteristics in your medical history is linked to a higher risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Multiparity

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome associated with chronic anovulation

      Explanation:

      Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) have a 2.7-fold increased risk for developing endometrial cancer. A major factor for this increased malignancy risk is prolonged exposure of the endometrium to unopposed oestrogen that results from anovulation.

      Additionally, secretory endometrium of some women with PCOS undergoing ovulation induction or receiving exogenous progestin exhibits progesterone resistance accompanied by dysregulation of gene expression controlling steroid action and cell proliferation.

      Other risk factors include nulliparity, early menarche and late menopause, obesity and family history of endometrial cancer. Which rules out all the other options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer: Pudendal Nerve

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve arises from the S2-S4 nerve roots and it lies medial to the internal pudendal artery while exiting the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen. It curves around the sacrospinous ligament and re-enters the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen and from there it runs medial to the ischial tuberosity over the obturator internus in the pudendal canal to the deep perineal pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding female urinary tract infections, which organism is the most common causative agent?...

    Correct

    • Regarding female urinary tract infections, which organism is the most common causative agent?

      Your Answer: Escherichia Coli

      Explanation:

      The most common causative agent found in female urinary tract infections is Escherichia Coli. E. Coli is a bacteria found in the environment and the human gastrointestinal system. Other common causes of UTI include Klebsiella sp, Proteus sp and various Enterococci.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 37 year old lady attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 37 year old lady attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The histology shows mucin vacuoles. What type of tumour would this be consistent with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mucinous

      Explanation:

      Mucinous tumours are cystic masses which are indistinguishable from the serous tumours on gross examination except by its contents. On histology it is lined with mucin producing epithelium – mucin vacuoles whereas serous tumours have psammoma bodies. Malignant tumours are characterised by the presence of architectural complexity, cellular stratification, stromal invasion and cytological atypia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which one of the following features indicates fetal asphyxia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features indicates fetal asphyxia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II (late) decelerations with tachycardia

      Explanation:

      A type II deceleration is due to placental insufficiency which can result in fetal distress and asphyxia. The fetal heart rate is lowest at the start of the contraction and returns to normal after the contraction is complete.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old nulliparous woman admitted for term pregnancy with spontaneous labour shows no...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old nulliparous woman admitted for term pregnancy with spontaneous labour shows no changes after a six-hour observation period despite membrane rupture, syntocinon infusion, and epidural anaesthesia. Pelvic examination shows failure of the cervix to dilate beyond 4cm and fetal head palpated at level of ischial spine (IS). The patient is diagnosed with obstructed labour. Which of the following clinical features is mostly associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is 4crn of head palpable abdominally.

      Explanation:

      The most consistent finding in obstructed labour is a 4cm head that is palpable on the abdomen. The bony part is usually palpated at the level of the ischial spine on pelvic examination.
      When prolonged labour is suspected, a pelvic vaginal examination helps to differentiate obstructed labour from inefficient/incoordinate labour.

      Findings in a pelvic examination:
      Obstructed labour
      moulding of fetal head ++
      caput formation on the fetal head ++
      cervical oedema – anterior lip oedema
      fetal tachycardia ++
      station of the head (relation to lowest part of ischial spines) – just at or above the IS
      amount of head palpable above the pelvic brim when the lowest point of the head is at the IS – > 2 finger breadths (FB)

      Inefficient or incoordinate labour
      moulding of fetal head usually none
      caput formation on fetal head +
      absent cervical oedema
      fetal tachycardia +
      station of the head (relation to lowest part of ischial spines) – can be above or below IS
      amount of head palpable above the pelvic brim when the lowest point of the head is at the IS – < 1 finger breadth (FB).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin levels increase during stress

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyperprolactinemia: Prolactinomas, Medication (phenothiazines, metoclopramide, risperidone, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, oestrogens, verapamil), Stress, Pregnancy, Hypothyroidism, Kidney disease, Chest trauma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following best describes the muscles assessed by urodynamic testing? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the muscles assessed by urodynamic testing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Detrusor and urethral sphincter muscles

      Explanation:

      Urodynamics is a broad term that comprises cytometry, urethral pressure measurement, leak point pressure, pressure flow studies, EMG and videourodynamics. They assess the function of the bladder and urethra as a functional unit. This may provide information such as the site of bladder outlet obstruction, overactivity of the detrusor and sphincter weakness. In muscular terms the detrusor and sphincter muscles are being assessed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You review a patient who is 34 weeks pregnant. She complains of gradually...

    Incorrect

    • You review a patient who is 34 weeks pregnant. She complains of gradually worsening itching over the past 6 weeks particularly to the hands and feet which is worse at night. You order some bloods. Which of the following would you normally expect to increase in the 3rd trimester?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ALP

      Explanation:

      ALP can rise to up to 3 times the normal non-pregnant value in the 3rd trimester. All of the other tests above typically decrease during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which one of the following statements regarding fetal blood pH is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding fetal blood pH is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can be measured during labour

      Explanation:

      A sample for fetal blood pH can be taken during the labour. The mother should be lying in a left lateral position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to a sudden onset of dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. She is known to have a previous history of deep venous thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate examination for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventilation/perfusion scan

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a treatable disease caused by thrombus formation in the lung-vasculature, commonly from the lower extremity’s deep veins compromising the blood flow to the lungs.
      Computed tomography of pulmonary arteries (CTPA) and ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan are the two most common and widely practiced testing modalities to diagnose pulmonary embolism.

      Pulmonary ventilation (V) and Perfusion (Q) scan, also known as lung V/Q scan, is a nuclear test that uses the perfusion scan to delineate the blood flow distribution and ventilation scan to measure airflow distribution in the lungs. The primary utilization of the V/Q scan is to help diagnose lung clots called pulmonary embolism. V/Q scan provides help in clinical decision-making by evaluating scans showing ventilation and perfusion in all areas of the lungs using radioactive tracers.

      Ventilation-perfusion V/Q scanning is mostly indicated for a patient population in whom CTPA is contraindicated (pregnancy, renal insufficiency CKD stage 4 or more, or severe contrast allergy) or relatively inconclusive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - DHEA is synthesized from which molecule? ...

    Incorrect

    • DHEA is synthesized from which molecule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Dehydroepiandrosterone is an androgen precursor produced primarily by the adrenal glands in women. The steroid hormone is produced from cholesterol at birth by the fetal adrenal glands, after which its output reduces. DHEA production picks up again from the age of 5-7 years and peaks between the ages of 20-30.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old menopausal woman complained of regular hot flushes that interfered with her...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old menopausal woman complained of regular hot flushes that interfered with her sleep and job. She had a ten-year history of oestrogen-dependent breast cancer. What is the most effective treatment for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine is an SSRI used for hot flushes in women with contraindication for hormonal therapy.

      Hormonal or other pharmacotherapy is usually needed for women with bothersome hot flashes. For most women with moderate to very severe hot flashes and no contraindications, we suggest MHT. Women with an intact uterus need both oestrogen and a progestin, while those who have undergone hysterectomy can receive oestrogen only. For women interested in MHT, the first step is to determine the potential risks for the specific individual.

      The majority of perimenopausal and recently menopausal women are good candidates for short-term hormone therapy for symptom relief. However, for women with a history of breast cancer, coronary heart disease (CHD), a previous venous thromboembolic event (VTE) or stroke, or those at moderate or high risk for these complications, alternatives to hormone therapy should be suggested. For women with moderate to severe hot flashes who are not candidates for hormone therapy based upon their breast cancer, CHD, or VTE risk and for those who choose not to take MHT, we suggest nonhormonal agents. The agents most commonly used include SSRIs, serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), antiepileptics, and centrally acting drugs.

      Black Cohosh is found to be no more significant than placebo.
      Long-term use of mefenamic acid is controversial and not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Physiological changes in the reproductive system include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Physiological changes in the reproductive system include:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The uterus 1st enlarges by hyperplasia then by hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Although uterine growth during the first few weeks of pregnancy is accomplished by increased numbers of smooth muscle cells (i.e. hyperplasia) and a smaller contribution from increased cell size (i.e. hypertrophy), the predominant growth of the uterus during pregnancy is by way of stretch‐induced myometrial hypertrophy. This ongoing process of stretch‐induced tissue remodelling and smooth muscle hypertrophy is accompanied by the lack of uterine contractions during most of gestation to accommodate the developing foetus (phase 0 of parturition). Phase 1 of parturition represents myometrial activation. The final stages of pregnancy are characterized by increases in spontaneous low‐amplitude contractions that gradually increase in frequency, rhythmicity and strength, normally culminating in labour and delivery of the foetus at term (phase 2 of parturition).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Lidocaine works by blocking which of the following ion channels? ...

    Incorrect

    • Lidocaine works by blocking which of the following ion channels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: fast voltage gated sodium channels

      Explanation:

      It blocks the voltage gated sodium channels and reduce the influx of sodium ions preventing depolarization of the membrane and blocking the conduction of the action potential. The affinity of the receptor site in the sodium channels depends on whether it is resting, open or inactive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the target INR in a patient who has just been started...

    Incorrect

    • What is the target INR in a patient who has just been started on warfarin therapy due to a pulmonary embolism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.0-3.0

      Explanation:

      Warfarin can be useful for management of thromboembolism. The target INR range for this medication is between 2.0-3.0 in patients with venous thromboembolism, pulmonary embolism etc. The INR range may increase to 3.0-4.0 in patients with mechanical valves. However, warfarin is not recommended in pregnancy, and Low Molecular Weight Heparin should be used for thromboprophylaxis instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with: ...

    Incorrect

    • The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Multiple studies have identified several risk factors for uterine atony such as polyhydramnios, fetal macrosomia, twin pregnancies, use of uterine inhibitors, history of uterine atony, multiparity, or prolonged labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Your 64-year-old patient has come to you with a uterine prolapse complaint. Which...

    Incorrect

    • Your 64-year-old patient has come to you with a uterine prolapse complaint. Which of the following ligaments plays the most critical role in uterine prolapse pathophysiology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterosacral ligament

      Explanation:

      The uterus needs support in order to remain centered inside the pelvic cavity. The support it receives comes in two forms: dynamic and passive. The ligaments of the uterus have an important role in both.

      Dynamic support is provided by the pelvic diaphragm through tonic contractions while standing and sitting and active contractions during moments of increased abdominal pressure, such as coughing or sneezing. During these moments, the ligaments of the uterus transmit the force of the diaphragm towards the organ itself, maintaining its position.

      The ligaments are also crucial in providing passive support. By minimizing movement of the body and the cervix, they maintain the uterus in the typical anteverted and anteflexed position directly on top of the bladder. This provides a support for the uterus when the abdominal pressure increases.

      Hence, even though the broad ligament, round ligament and ovarian ligament have some role in the suspension of the uterus, the uterosacral ligament plays the most significant role. It is also the ligament used for surgical suspension of POP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Polyhydramnios is associated with which one of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Polyhydramnios is associated with which one of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia/TE fistula may be suspected prenatally with ultrasound findings of polyhydramnios, absence of fluid in the stomach, small sized abdomen, or the presence of a dilated proximal oesophageal pouch. An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the half life of Ergometrine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the half life of Ergometrine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30-120 minutes

      Explanation:

      Ergometrine has a half life of 30-120 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She is in the 26th week of gestation and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her second child was born macrosomic with shoulder dystocia, which was a very difficult labour. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Watchful waiting till she goes in labour

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication associated with fetal macrosomia and may result in neurological dysfunction. Fetal macrosomia is generally defined as birth weight – 4,000 g. It occurs in about 10% of pregnancies and one of the most important predictors of fetal macrosomia is previous macrosomic infant(s). The recurrence rate of fetal macrosomia is above 30%. Other risk factors are maternal diabetes, multiparity, prolonged gestation, maternal obesity, excessive weight gain, male foetus, and parental stature- Not all cases of fetal macrosomia lead to shoulder dystocia and the occurrence of this complication is only 0.5%-1% of all pregnancies.

      To make clinical decision regarding management of the patient, it is important to understand that there are other factors that lead to shoulder dystocia, such as the mother’s anatomy. While statistics suggest that there’s a tendency to choose elective Caesarean delivery for suspected macrosomia, it is believed that most of procedures are unnecessary, as evidence has shown the number of complications are not reduce- Also while it is logical to consider induction of labour at the 37th week of pregnancy, it is associated with increased Caesarean deliveries because of failed inductions. The recommended course of action is watchful waiting till the patient goes in labour.

      → Induce labour at the 37th week of gestation is not the best course of action, as it is associated with high failure rate, which often leads to Caesarean delivery.
      → Schedule elective Caesarean delivery is considered unnecessary in patients who do not have diabetes. Statistics have shown no evidence that Caesarean delivery reduces the rate of complications.
      → Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation is incorrect. The strategies used to predict fetal macrosomia are risk factors, Leopold’s manoeuvres, and ultrasonography. Even when they are combined, they are considered inaccurate; much less ultrasonography alone.
      → At this point, blood glucose control in pregnancies associated with diabetes seems to have desired results in preventing macrosomia- A weight loss program is usually not recommended- Instead, expectant management should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You see a patient who is 32 weeks pregnant. She complains of tingling...

    Incorrect

    • You see a patient who is 32 weeks pregnant. She complains of tingling to the right buttock and shooting pain down the leg. You suspect Piriformis syndrome. Regarding Piriformis which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insertion is onto the greater trochanter

      Explanation:

      Nerve Supply: L5 to S2 via Nerve to Piriformis
      Origin: Sacrum
      Insertion: Greater trochanter
      Action: External rotation of hip
      Blood Supply: Superior and Inferior gluteal arteries and lateral sacral arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Bladder neck closure and relaxation of the bladder is mediated by? ...

    Incorrect

    • Bladder neck closure and relaxation of the bladder is mediated by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sympathetic Fibres L1,L2

      Explanation:

      Remember SYMPATHETIC is STORAGE PARASYMPATHETIC is PEEING

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Management (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed