00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the Neurology Clinic with a complaint of droopy...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the Neurology Clinic with a complaint of droopy eyelids that have been present for the past 6 months. She reports experiencing intermittent double vision that varies in severity. She has also noticed difficulty swallowing her food at times. Upon examination, she displays mild weakness in eyelid closure bilaterally and mild lower facial weakness. Additionally, there is mild weakness in neck flexion and bilateral shoulder abduction. Reflexes are normal throughout, and the remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Electromyography is performed, revealing a 30% decrease in the compound motor action potential (CMAP) upon repetitive nerve stimulation (right abductor pollicis brevis muscle). Single-fibre electromyography shows normal fibre density and jitter. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Myasthenia Gravis from Other Neuromuscular Disorders

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue. It occurs when antibodies block the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to impaired muscle function. This can be detected through electromyographic testing, which measures fatigability. However, other neuromuscular disorders can present with similar symptoms, making diagnosis challenging.

      Congenital myasthenia gravis is a rare form that occurs in infants born to myasthenic mothers. Guillain-Barré syndrome, although typically presenting with ophthalmoplegia, can also cause muscle weakness and reflex abnormalities. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is caused by autoantibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels and is characterized by absent reflexes. Polymyalgia rheumatica, an inflammatory disorder of the soft tissues, can cause pain and weakness in the shoulder girdle but does not affect nerve conduction or facial muscles.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation and diagnostic testing are necessary to differentiate MG from other neuromuscular disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      57.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 36-year-old man is discharged from hospital after an episode of meningitis. The...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man is discharged from hospital after an episode of meningitis. The organism was diagnosed as being Streptococcus pneumoniae after a lumbar puncture and the patient was treated with ceftriaxone. On discharge, his observations were normal. He has a past medical history of asthma treated with salbutamol and low-dose inhaled corticosteroids. He has no known drug allergies.
      A few days following his discharge, he started experiencing postural headaches that were worse when sitting upright. He grades his pain as 7/10. He has been feeling nauseated, although has had no vomiting episodes. He also has some minor neck stiffness and is not confused. He attends A&E, as he is worried about his new symptoms. There is evidence of extrathecal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Diagnosis is confirmed on a computed tomography (CT) myelogram.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient’s headache?

      Your Answer: Spontaneous intracranial hypotension

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Spontaneous Intracranial Hypotension from Other Conditions

      Spontaneous intracranial hypotension (SIH) is a condition that affects around 5 per 100,000 of the general population, with a peak age at diagnosis of 40 years. It is more common in women and develops due to a weakness in the spinal dura, which could be congenital, iatrogenic, or due to calcification of spinal discs. Lumbar punctures, which are commonly performed to aid the diagnosis of meningitis, are a common cause of SIH.

      Clinically, SIH causes a postural headache that worsens when standing or sitting and improves when lying down. It is associated with leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and can be diagnosed with a CT myelogram. Interestingly, CSF opening pressure is often normal, making diagnosis by repeat lumbar puncture unhelpful. Treatment typically involves an epidural blood patch.

      It is important to distinguish SIH from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. A subdural hematoma, for example, would be diagnosed on a CT head by the presence of concave opacity and typically has a slow onset with fluctuating confusion. Aseptic meningitis, which presents with symptoms similar to meningitis, would be confirmed on microscopy of lumbar puncture. Insufficiently treated meningitis would not cause a postural headache, and a subarachnoid hemorrhage would cause a sudden-onset thunderclap headache.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      52.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old female comes to the clinic with sudden onset of left foot...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female comes to the clinic with sudden onset of left foot drop. Upon examination, it is found that she has weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and eversion. There is also a loss of sensation over the dorsum of her foot. All reflexes are present and plantars flexor. Which nerve is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Peroneal Neuropathy

      Peroneal neuropathy is a condition that typically manifests as sudden foot drop. When a patient is examined, the weakness in the foot and ankle is limited to dorsiflexion of the ankle and toes, as well as eversion of the ankle. However, the ankle reflex (which is mediated by the tibial nerve) and the knee reflex (which is mediated by the femoral nerve) remain intact. In terms of sensory involvement, the lower two-thirds of the lateral leg and the dorsum of the foot may be affected.

      It is important to note that peroneal neuropathy is distinct from other nerve issues that may affect the lower leg and foot. For example, sciatic nerve problems may result in impaired knee flexion, while tibial nerve lesions may lead to weakness in foot flexion and pain on the plantar surface. By the specific symptoms and signs of peroneal neuropathy, healthcare providers can make an accurate diagnosis and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 51-year-old man is admitted at the request of his concerned family due...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man is admitted at the request of his concerned family due to increased confusion. This has occurred over the past 3 months and has become steadily worse. He was living independently and had been an active local councillor. Now he is unable to identify his family members.
      Examination findings: pleasantly confused, intermittent jerky movements of both upper arms.
      The following investigations were performed:
      CT brain: normal
      Dementia screen: normal
      Which one of the following diagnostic tests will assist most in diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain

      Correct Answer: Electroencephalogram

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Rapid Cognitive Decline in a Middle-Aged Patient: A Case of Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

      When a patient in their 60s presents with rapid cognitive decline and myoclonic jerks, the possibility of sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (sCJD) should be considered. Despite negative findings from other investigations, a lumbar puncture and electroencephalogram (EEG) can support the diagnosis of sCJD. The EEG will show generalised bi- or triphasic periodic sharp wave complexes, while definitive diagnosis can only be made from biopsy. Doppler ultrasound of carotids is relevant for vascular dementia, but the steady decline in this case suggests sCJD. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain is unlikely to aid diagnosis, and muscle biopsy is unnecessary as myoclonic jerks are a symptom of sCJD. Bone marrow biopsy is only useful if myelodysplastic syndrome is suspected, which is not the case here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 49-year-old man with a long history of sarcoidosis presents for review. He...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man with a long history of sarcoidosis presents for review. He has been intermittently treated with varying doses of oral prednisolone and chloroquine. On this occasion, he complains of drooping and weakness affecting the left-hand side of his face, blurred vision, thirst and polyuria. On examination, he has a left facial nerve palsy.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 119 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 195 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 149 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 15.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 195 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Ca2+ corrected 2.21 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Random glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 36 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Which of the following diagnoses fit best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Neurosarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Neurological Symptoms: Neurosarcoidosis, Bacterial Meningitis, Bell’s Palsy, Viral Meningitis, and Intracerebral Abscess

      A man with a history of sarcoidosis presents with neurological symptoms, including polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision. These symptoms suggest the possibility of cranial diabetes insipidus, a consequence of neurosarcoidosis. Hypercalcemia and hyperglycemia are ruled out as potential causes based on normal glucose and calcium levels. Treatment for neurosarcoidosis typically involves oral corticosteroids and immunosuppressant agents.

      Bacterial meningitis, which presents with headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia, is ruled out as there is no evidence of infection. Bell’s palsy, an isolated facial nerve palsy, does not explain the patient’s other symptoms. Viral meningitis, which also presents with photophobia, neck stiffness, and headache, is unlikely as the patient’s white blood cell count is normal. An intracerebral abscess, which typically presents with headache and fever, is unlikely to produce the other symptoms experienced by the patient.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis for this patient’s neurological symptoms includes neurosarcoidosis, bacterial meningitis, Bell’s palsy, viral meningitis, and intracerebral abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      119.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A middle-aged man is brought into the Emergency Department in an unresponsive state....

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man is brought into the Emergency Department in an unresponsive state. He was found lying in the street by a passer-by who called the ambulance. Upon initial assessment, he is not communicating with you meaningfully, only muttering swear words occasionally. He is not responding to commands but reaches up to push your hand away when you squeeze his trapezius muscle. When you do this, he does not open his eyes.
      What is this patient’s Glasgow Coma Score (GCS)?

      Your Answer: 8

      Correct Answer: 9

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a widely used tool for assessing a patient’s level of consciousness, particularly in cases of head injury. It consists of three components: eye response, verbal response, and motor response. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to a maximum value (4 for eye response, 5 for verbal response, and 6 for motor response), with a total possible score of 15.

      To remember the components and their values, use the acronym EVM (eyes, verbal, motor) and the fact that eyes has 4 letters, V represents 5 in Roman numerals, and M6 is a famous motorway in the UK.

      A patient’s GCS score can help determine the severity of their condition and guide treatment decisions. A score of less than 8 indicates the need for intubation to maintain the patient’s airway. It’s important to note that the minimum possible score is 3, not zero.

      When assessing a patient’s GCS, evaluate their eye response (spontaneous, to verbal command, to painful stimulus, or none), verbal response (oriented speech, confused speech, inappropriate words, incomprehensible sounds, or none), and motor response (obeys commands, localizes to pain, withdraws from pain, flexes in response to pain, extends in response to pain, or none). By understanding the GCS and its components, healthcare providers can better assess and manage patients with altered levels of consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old man develops a wrist drop after suffering a spiral fracture of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man develops a wrist drop after suffering a spiral fracture of the humerus while playing football. As a result, he is unable to extend his wrist and his hand hangs flaccidly. Which nerve is the most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Ulnar

      Correct Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originate from the spinal cord in the neck and supply the upper limb. Damage to these nerves can occur due to trauma or compression at various points along their course. The radial nerve, which carries fibres from C5 to C8 and a sensory component from T1, can be injured in the axilla, upper arm, elbow or wrist. A lesion at the spiral groove of the humerus can result in a wrist drop. The musculocutaneous nerve, which arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus, can be affected by damage to the shoulder and brachial plexus or compression by the biceps aponeurosis and tendon. The axillary nerve, which supplies the deltoid, teres minor and triceps brachii, can be injured in dislocations of the shoulder joint, compression of the axilla with a crutch or fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus. The median nerve, which innervates all of the flexors in the forearm except the flexor carpi ulnaris and that part of the flexor digitorum profundus that supplies the medial two digits, can be compressed in the carpal tunnel. The ulnar nerve, which supplies the little finger and the adjacent half of the ring finger, can be trapped in the cubital tunnel on the medial side of the elbow. Pinching of the ulnar nerve can cause paraesthesiae in the fourth and fifth digits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading, which she has noticed over the past two weeks. She has never worn glasses and is not taking any medications.

      Upon examination, her pupils are of normal size but react sluggishly to light. Both optic discs appear sharp, without signs of haemorrhages or exudates. However, her visual acuity is significantly impaired and remains so even when using a pinhole card. Additionally, she exhibits five-beat nystagmus and double vision when looking to the left.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Drug toxicity

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis in a Young Woman

      This young woman shows signs of retrobulbar neuritis, which is characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve behind the eye. Additionally, she exhibits some cerebellar features such as nystagmus, which is an involuntary eye movement. These symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of Multiple sclerosis (MS), a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system.

      Further diagnostic tests can support this diagnosis. Visual evoked responses can measure the electrical activity in the brain in response to visual stimuli, which can be abnormal in MS. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can reveal demyelinating plaques, or areas of damage to the protective covering of nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cord. Finally, oligoclonal bands can be detected in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of MS patients, indicating an immune response in the central nervous system.

      In summary, this young woman’s symptoms and diagnostic tests suggest a possible diagnosis of MS. Further evaluation and treatment by a healthcare professional are necessary to confirm this diagnosis and manage her symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side of her mouth and inability to raise the left corner of her mouth when she smiles. During the examination, the doctor observes dryness and scaling on her left cornea. Which nerve is likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The Facial Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The facial nerve is a crucial nerve responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. It originates from the pons as two separate motor and sensory roots before joining to form the facial nerve. Along its path, it gives off branches that provide parasympathetic fibers to glands, motor fibers to muscles, and sensory fibers to the tongue. The nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and branches into various muscles of the face, controlling facial expression. A lesion to the facial nerve can result in loss of motor control of facial muscles. It is important to differentiate the facial nerve from other nerves, such as the trigeminal nerve, maxillary nerve, occipital nerve, and lacrimal nerve, which have different functions and innervations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his right eye that lasted for about half an hour. He experienced initial blurring of vision followed by cloudiness and inability to see out of the eye. The patient has a recent history of hypertension and takes atenolol, but is otherwise generally healthy. He drinks modest amounts of alcohol and smokes five cigarettes per day. On examination, his vision is now normal in both eyes with visual acuities of 6/12 in both eyes. His pulse is regular at 72 beats per minute, blood pressure is 162/88 mmHg, and BMI is 30. Cardiovascular examination, including auscultation over the neck, is otherwise unremarkable. What investigations would you order for this patient?

      Your Answer: CT head scan

      Correct Answer: Carotid Dopplers

      Explanation:

      Amaurosis Fugax

      Amaurosis fugax is a condition that occurs when an embolism blocks the right carotid distribution, resulting in temporary vision loss. To diagnose this condition, doctors should look for an embolic source and scan the carotids for atheromatous disease. It’s important to note that significant carotid disease may still be present even if there is no bruit. If stenosis greater than 70% of diameter are present, carotid endarterectomy is recommended. Additionally, echocardiography may be used to assess for cardiac embolic sources. To better understand this condition, resources such as a diagnostic flow chart and medical articles can be helpful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 54-year-old man with a history of acromegaly presents for a check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with a history of acromegaly presents for a check-up. He reports experiencing pins and needles in his hands in the early morning hours, and a positive Tinel's sign. Which muscle is most likely to be weak?

      Your Answer: Abductor pollicis longus

      Correct Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis

      Explanation:

      Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Median Nerve Innervation

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that can cause weakness in the abductor pollicis brevis muscle, which is innervated by the median nerve. This muscle, along with the opponens pollicis, is controlled by the median nerve. The flexor pollicis brevis muscle may also be innervated by either the median or ulnar nerve. In this case, the symptoms suggest carpal tunnel syndrome, which is often associated with acromegaly. Early intervention is crucial in treating carpal tunnel syndrome, as permanent nerve damage can occur if decompression is delayed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old patient presents after trauma and exhibits a lack of sensation in...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents after trauma and exhibits a lack of sensation in the anatomical snuff box. Which nerve is likely responsible for this sensory loss?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and Their Effects

      Radial nerve injury causes a condition known as wrist drop, which is characterized by the inability to extend the wrist and fingers. This injury also results in varying degrees of sensory loss, with the anatomical snuffbox being a common area affected.

      On the other hand, median nerve injury leads to the loss of sensation in the thumb, index, middle, and lateral half of the ring finger. This condition can also cause weakness in the muscles that control the thumb, leading to difficulty in grasping objects.

      Lastly, ulnar nerve injury results in a claw hand deformity, where the fingers are flexed and cannot be straightened. This injury also causes a loss of sensation over the medial half of the ring finger and little finger.

      In summary, nerve injuries can have significant effects on the function and sensation of the hand. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are experienced to prevent further damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 16-year-old girl was stabbed with a knife during a robbery attempt and...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl was stabbed with a knife during a robbery attempt and taken to the Emergency Department of a local hospital. Physical examination revealed a single horizontal stab wound located on the skin 4 mm to the right of the umbilicus.
      In which dermatome was the stab wound located?

      Your Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Dermatomes and Pain Referral in the Abdomen

      The human body is divided into dermatomes, which are areas of skin that are mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve. In the abdomen, the T8-T12 dermatomes are important to understand as they can help identify the source of pain referral.

      T8 dermatome is located at the epigastrium, which is approximately at the level of the subcostal margin. T9 dermatome lies just superior to the umbilicus, while T10 dermatome lies at the level of the umbilicus. Pain originating from the small bowel may be referred to the T10 dermatome.

      T11 dermatome lies just inferior to the umbilicus, and pain originating from the large bowel may be referred to the T11-T12 area. T12 dermatome lies at the suprapubic level, and pain originating from the large bowel may also be referred to the T11-T12 area.

      It is important to note that confusion between the dermatomes and the spinal vertebrae level at which structures lie should be avoided. Understanding the dermatomes and pain referral patterns in the abdomen can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP), complaining of bleeding gums...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP), complaining of bleeding gums every time she brushes her teeth. She reports that this is very concerning to her and has gotten to the point where she has stopped brushing her teeth.
      Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, for which she takes lisinopril. She takes no anticoagulants or antiplatelet medication.
      Her observations are as follows:
      Temperature 37.1°C
      Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
      Heart rate 68 bpm
      Respiratory rate 16 breaths/min
      Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 98% (room air)
      Examination of the oral cavity reveals red, swollen gingiva, with bleeding easily provoked with a periodontal probe.
      Which of the following is the next best step?

      Your Answer: Referral to a neurologist

      Explanation:

      Medical Recommendations for Gingival Overgrowth

      Gingival overgrowth is a condition where the gum tissues grow excessively, leading to the formation of pockets that can harbor bacteria and cause inflammation. This condition can be caused by certain medications like phenytoin, calcium channel blockers, and ciclosporin. Here are some medical recommendations for managing gingival overgrowth:

      Referral to a Neurologist: If the patient is taking antiepileptic medication, a neurologist should review the medication to determine if it is causing the gingival overgrowth.

      Avoid Brushing Teeth: Although brushing can exacerbate bleeding, not brushing can lead to poor oral hygiene. The cause of the gingival overgrowth needs to be addressed.

      Epstein–Barr Virus Testing: Patients with oral hairy leukoplakia may benefit from Epstein–Barr virus testing.

      Pregnancy Test: A pregnancy test is not indicated in patients with gingival overgrowth unless medication is not the likely cause.

      Vitamin K: Vitamin K is indicated for patients who require warfarin reversal for supratherapeutic international normalized ratios (INRs). It is not necessary for patients who are clinically stable and not actively bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      44.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old man presents with symptoms including poor sleep. He reports an itching...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with symptoms including poor sleep. He reports an itching and crawling sensation affecting his legs with an overwhelming urge to move them. His wife reports that he tosses and turns all night, often pacing the room, and constantly rubs his legs. Things only improve with the break of dawn. He seems tired all day as a consequence of the disturbed sleep at night. The only past medical history of note is diverticular disease, from which he has been troubled by periodic iron deficiency anaemia. Neurological examination is unremarkable.

      Bloods:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 101 g/l (microcytic) 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 285 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 124 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/l < 7 mmol/l
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Primary restless legs syndrome

      Correct Answer: Secondary restless legs syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Restless Legs Syndrome

      Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a neurological disorder characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs, often accompanied by unpleasant sensations. Here, we discuss the differential diagnosis for RLS in a patient with iron deficiency anaemia.

      Secondary Restless Legs Syndrome:
      In this case, the patient’s RLS is secondary to iron deficiency anaemia. Iron deficiency can cause RLS, and correcting the anaemia with iron supplementation may improve symptoms. Other causes of secondary RLS include peripheral neuropathy.

      Primary Restless Legs Syndrome:
      Primary RLS is a central nervous system disorder without known underlying cause. However, since this patient has a known precipitant for his RLS, it is more likely to be secondary.

      Alcohol Related Neuropathy:
      Alcohol-related neuropathy typically causes pain and motor loss, which is not seen in this patient.

      Nocturnal Cramps:
      Nocturnal cramps are unlikely to cause problems for the whole night and are typically short-lived.

      Diabetic Neuropathy:
      Diabetic neuropathy can cause burning or stinging sensations, but this patient’s fasting glucose level makes a diagnosis of diabetic neuropathy unlikely.

      In conclusion, RLS can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying etiology. Treatment options include medications such as sedatives, anti-epileptic agents, and dopaminergic agents, as well as addressing any underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 20-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with an ‘ape hand’ deformity...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with an ‘ape hand’ deformity after being stabbed in his arm. Upon examination, he is found to have median nerve damage and is unable to abduct his thumb. What other function is likely to be impaired in this patient?

      Your Answer: Sensation to the second and third digits

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nerve Injuries: Implications for Sensation and Movement

      Nerve injuries can have significant implications for both sensation and movement. One common example is the ape hand deformity, which occurs following a median nerve injury and results in an inability to abduct the thumb. In addition to this motor deficit, the median nerve also provides sensation to the dorsal aspect of the distal first two digits, the volar aspect of the thumb, index, middle, and lateral half of the fourth digit, as well as the palm and medial aspect of the forearm.

      Other nerve injuries can affect different aspects of movement and sensation. For example, the radial nerve innervates the extensor muscles of the wrist, while the ulnar nerve provides sensation to the fifth digit and controls the palmar interossei muscles responsible for finger adduction. Abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint is controlled by the axillary nerve (deltoid muscle) and suprascapular nerve (supraspinatus muscle).

      Understanding the specific nerve involved in an injury can help clinicians predict the potential deficits a patient may experience and develop appropriate treatment plans to address them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty swallowing, and unsteadiness of gait. Upon neurological assessment, he is found to have nystagmus with the quick phase towards the right side and ataxia of the right upper and lower limbs. He reports no hearing loss. There is a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the face, and the left side of the limbs and trunk. The patient exhibits drooping of the right side of the palate upon eliciting the gag reflex, as well as right-sided ptosis and miosis.

      Which vessel is most likely to be affected by thromboembolism given these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      Arterial Territories and Associated Syndromes

      The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery is commonly associated with lateral medullary syndrome, which presents with symptoms such as palatal drooping, dysphagia, and dysphonia. The right anterior choroidal artery, which supplies various parts of the brain, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, loss of sensation, and homonymous hemianopia when occluded. Similarly, occlusion of the left anterior choroidal artery can result in similar symptoms. The right labyrinthine artery, a branch of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, can cause unilateral deafness and vertigo when ischemia occurs. Finally, the right anterior inferior cerebellar artery can lead to ipsilateral facial paresis, vertigo, nystagmus, and hearing loss, as well as facial hemianaesthesia due to trigeminal nerve nucleus involvement. Understanding these arterial territories and associated syndromes can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      72.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 63-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of unilateral facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of unilateral facial droop. Upon examination, it is noted that she is unable to fully close her left eye. She has no significant medical history but reports having a recent viral upper respiratory tract infection. Her husband is worried that she may have had a stroke, but there are no other focal neurological deficits found except for the isolated left-sided facial nerve palsy.
      What clinical finding would you anticipate during the examination?

      Your Answer: Left-sided facial weakness with forehead sparing

      Correct Answer: Loss of lacrimation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy: Symptoms and Differences from a Stroke

      Bell’s palsy is a condition that affects the facial nerve, causing facial weakness and loss of lacrimation. It is important to distinguish it from a stroke, which can have similar symptoms but different underlying causes. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      Loss of lacrimation: Bell’s palsy affects the parasympathetic fibers carried in the facial nerve, which are responsible for tear formation. This leads to a loss of lacrimation on the affected side.

      Loss of sensation: The trigeminal nerve carries the nerve fibers responsible for facial sensation, so there will be no sensory deficit in Bell’s palsy.

      Mydriasis: Bell’s palsy does not affect the fibers that supply the pupil, so there will be no mydriasis (dilation of the pupil).

      Facial weakness: Bell’s palsy is a lower motor neuron lesion, which means that innervation to all the facial muscles is interrupted. This leads to left-sided facial weakness without forehead sparing.

      Ptosis: Bell’s palsy affects the orbicularis oculi muscle, which prevents the eye from fully closing. This can lead to ptosis (drooping of the eyelid) and the need for eye patches and artificial tears to prevent corneal ulcers.

      By understanding these symptoms and differences from a stroke, healthcare professionals can provide accurate diagnoses and appropriate treatment for patients with Bell’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in the right eye. He intermittently loses vision in the right eye, which he describes as a curtain vertically across his visual field. Each episode lasts about two or three minutes. He denies eye pain, eye discharge or headaches.
      His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.
      On examination, his pupils are of normal size and reactive to light. There is no scalp tenderness. Blood test results are pending, and his electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes.
      A provisional diagnosis of amaurosis fugax (AG) is being considered.
      Given this diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Transient Vision Loss: Aspirin, Prednisolone, Warfarin, High-Flow Oxygen, and Propranolol

      Transient vision loss can be a symptom of various conditions, including giant-cell arthritis (temporal arthritis) and transient retinal ischaemia. The appropriate treatment depends on the underlying cause.

      For transient retinal ischaemia, which is typically caused by atherosclerosis of the ipsilateral carotid artery, antiplatelet therapy with aspirin is recommended. Patients should also be evaluated for cardiovascular risk factors and considered for ultrasound of the carotid arteries.

      Prednisolone is used to treat giant-cell arthritis, which is characterised by sudden mononuclear loss of vision, jaw claudication, and scalp tenderness. However, if the patient does not have scalp tenderness or jaw claudication, oral steroids would not be indicated.

      Warfarin may be considered in patients with underlying atrial fibrillation and a high risk of embolic stroke. However, it should typically be bridged with a heparin derivative to avoid pro-thrombotic effects in the first 48-72 hours of use.

      High-flow oxygen is used to treat conditions like cluster headaches, which present with autonomic manifestations. If the patient does not have any autonomic features, high-flow oxygen would not be indicated.

      Propranolol can be used in the prophylactic management of migraines, which can present with transient visual loss. However, given the patient’s atherosclerotic risk factors and description of visual loss, transient retinal ischaemia is a more likely diagnosis.

      In summary, the appropriate treatment for transient vision loss depends on the underlying cause and should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of cough, blood in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of cough, blood in his sputum, and a 3- to 4-cm right-sided supraclavicular lymph node. During the examination, you observe that the right side of his face is dry, and his right eyelid is drooping. What is the most probable location of the patient's pathology?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Correct Answer: Sympathetic chain

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Nerves Involved in Horner Syndrome

      Horner syndrome is a condition characterized by drooping of the eyelids (ptosis) and dryness of the face (anhidrosis), which is caused by interruption of the sympathetic chain. When a patient presents with these symptoms, an apical lung tumor should always be considered. To better understand this condition, it is important to know which nerves are not involved.

      The phrenic nerve, which supplies the diaphragm and is essential for breathing, does not cause symptoms of Horner syndrome when it is affected. Similarly, injury to the brachial plexus, which supplies the nerves of the upper limbs, does not cause ptosis or anhidrosis. The trigeminal nerve, responsible for sensation and muscles of mastication in the face, and the vagus nerve, which regulates heart rate and digestion, are also not involved in Horner syndrome.

      By ruling out these nerves, healthcare professionals can focus on the sympathetic chain as the likely culprit in cases of Horner syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      60.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the mechanism by which a neuron controls its membrane potential? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism by which a neuron controls its membrane potential?

      Your Answer: By regulating opening and closing ion channels

      Explanation:

      The Role of Ion Channels in Regulating Membrane Potential

      The membrane potential of a cell is the voltage difference between the inside and outside of the cell membrane. This potential is influenced by the movement of ions across the membrane, which is determined by their valence and concentration gradient. However, the permeability of ions also plays a crucial role in regulating membrane potential. This is achieved through the presence of ion channels that can open and close in response to various stimuli, such as action potentials.

      Neurons, for example, are able to regulate their membrane potential by controlling the opening and closing of ion channels. This allows them to maintain a stable resting potential and respond to changes in their environment. The permeability of ions through these channels is carefully regulated to ensure that the membrane potential remains within a certain range. This is essential for proper neuronal function and communication.

      In summary, the regulation of membrane potential is a complex process that involves the movement of ions across the membrane and the opening and closing of ion channels. This process is critical for maintaining proper cellular function and communication, particularly in neurons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      83.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves playing basketball, but is worried because her teammates have been teasing her about her appearance. They have been making fun of her in the locker room because of the spots she has under her armpits and around her groin. They have also been teasing her about her height, as she is the tallest girl on the team. During a skin examination, the doctor notices evidence of inguinal and axillary freckling, as well as 9 coffee-colored spots on her arms, legs, and chest. An eye exam reveals iris hamartomas.

      What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; de novo presentations are rare

      Correct Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; de novo presentations are common

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1) is caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17 and is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. De novo presentations are common, meaning that around 50% of cases occur in individuals without family history. To make a diagnosis, at least two of the seven core features must be present, with two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma being one of them. Other features associated with NF-1 include short stature and learning difficulties, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An epileptic teenager is seeking advice regarding their ability to drive following a...

    Correct

    • An epileptic teenager is seeking advice regarding their ability to drive following a seizure six months ago. On further enquiry, you discover that the seizure was in response to a medication change, which also took place six months ago and since being put back on their original medication, they have been seizure-free.
      What advice is appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: She can apply to the DVLA to reinstate her licence now

      Explanation:

      Clarifying Misconceptions about Driving Eligibility for Patients with Epilepsy

      There are several misconceptions about driving eligibility for patients with epilepsy. One common misconception is that a patient must wait another six months before being eligible to drive after a medication-induced seizure. However, according to DVLA guidance, if the patient has been seizure-free for six months on their working medication, they can apply to reinstate their licence.

      Another misconception is that the patient must trial the new medication again to determine if they can drive. This is not true, as reverting back to the previous medication that did not work would not be helpful.

      Additionally, some believe that the patient must wait another 12 months due to the medication change resulting in the seizure. However, the time a patient must be seizure-free is not increased because the seizure was medication-induced.

      It is important to note that if a patient with epilepsy has been seizure-free for a certain period of time, depending on certain circumstances, they will be eligible to drive again in most cases. It is crucial for patients and healthcare professionals to have accurate information about driving eligibility for patients with epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, headache, and...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, headache, and feeling generally unwell for the past two days. She denies having a rash, neck stiffness, photophobia, or vomiting. Her vital signs are within normal limits. The medical team suspects she may have viral encephalitis and orders a computed tomography head scan and lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis.

      The initial CSF results confirm the suspected diagnosis, showing a normal opening pressure and CSF glucose level, with a slightly elevated white cell count, mostly lymphocytes, and a protein level of 0.6 g/l (normal value < 0.45 g/l). While waiting for the CSF culture results, what is the most appropriate management for this 20-year-old woman?

      Your Answer: acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Suspected Encephalitis or Meningitis

      Encephalitis is a condition where the brain parenchyma is infected, while meningitis is characterized by inflammation of the meninges. A patient with symptoms of fever, headache, and altered mental state may have viral encephalitis, which is commonly caused by herpes simplex virus type I. In such cases, acyclovir should be started immediately, as it has been proven to improve morbidity and mortality. On the other hand, empirical ceftriaxone is often used for suspected bacterial meningitis, while benzylpenicillin is recommended for patients with a non-blanching rash. Dexamethasone is used to reduce inflammation in certain cases of bacterial meningitis. However, supportive management alone with analgesia is not appropriate for suspected encephalitis or meningitis. It is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and initial CSF results before deciding on the appropriate treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the name of the neuron that sends signals from the peripheral...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the neuron that sends signals from the peripheral nervous system to the central nervous system?

      Your Answer: Efferent

      Correct Answer: Afferent

      Explanation:

      Afferent Neurones

      Afferent neurones are responsible for transmitting sensory signals from the periphery, such as receptors, organs, and other neurones, to the central nervous system, which includes the brain and spinal cord. These neurones are often referred to as sensory neurones. It is important to note that afferent neurones are not the same as bipolar, efferent, interneurone, or multipolar neurones.

      Bipolar neurones are simply neurones that have only two extensions, such as those found in the retina or the ganglia of the vestibulocochlear nerve. Efferent neurones, on the other hand, transmit impulses from the central nervous system to the periphery, which is the opposite action of afferent neurones. Interneurones are neurones that connect afferent and efferent neurones in neural pathways. Finally, multipolar neurones are neurones that have a large number of dendrites, usually one long axon, and are found mostly in the brain and spinal cord for the integration of multiple incoming signals.

      In summary, afferent neurones are responsible for transmitting sensory signals from the periphery to the central nervous system. They are distinct from other types of neurones, such as bipolar, efferent, interneurone, and multipolar neurones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 80-year-old retired teacher complains of headache and scalp tenderness. She reports experiencing...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old retired teacher complains of headache and scalp tenderness. She reports experiencing blurred vision for the past three days. What signs suggest a possible diagnosis of giant cell arthritis?

      Your Answer: Temporal artery biopsy demonstrating mononuclear cell infiltration

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Giant Cell arthritis

      Giant cell arthritis is a condition that affects the arteries, particularly those in the head and neck. To diagnose this condition, the American College of Rheumatology has developed criteria that require the fulfillment of at least three out of five criteria. These criteria have a 93% sensitivity of diagnosis.

      The first criterion is age over 50, as this condition is more common in older individuals. The second criterion is the onset of a new type of localized headache, which is often severe and persistent. The third criterion is an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of over 50 mm/hr by the Westergreen method, which indicates inflammation in the body. The fourth criterion is temporal artery tenderness to palpation or decreased pulsation, which can be felt by a doctor during a physical exam. The fifth criterion is an arterial biopsy showing granulomatous inflammation or mononuclear cell infiltration, usually with multinucleated giant cells.

      Overall, the diagnosis of giant cell arthritis requires a combination of clinical and laboratory findings. If a patient meets at least three of these criteria, further testing and treatment may be necessary to manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with worsening right foot...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with worsening right foot drop over two months. He also states that he has begun to drop objects that he was previously able to lift with ease and feels that both of his hands are constantly shaking. He does not have any other medical conditions. He recalls that his brother and father passed away from a neurological disease, of which he does not know the name.
      Examination reveals bilateral lower limb weakness. There is hyperreflexia on examination of the knees and ankles. Plantars are upgoing. Examination of the upper limb is pertinent for left arm weakness, in particular in the median and ulnar nerve-innervated hand muscles. Sensation is normal in both upper and lower limbs. A diagnosis of motor neurone disease (MND) (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) is being considered.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to improve the life expectancy of this patient?

      Your Answer: Carbocisteine

      Correct Answer: Riluzole

      Explanation:

      Riluzole is the only drug that has been proven to increase survival rates in patients with MND, although its exact mechanism of action is not fully understood. Studies have shown that patients who take riluzole have a lower mortality rate compared to those who do not, particularly those with bulbar-onset MND. However, riluzole may cause side effects such as liver damage, gastrointestinal discomfort, and, in rare cases, neutropenia. Baclofen can help manage spasticity in MND patients but does not improve life expectancy. Carbocisteine is a mucolytic that can reduce sputum viscosity and is often used in patients with bulbar symptoms, but it has not been shown to increase life expectancy. Citalopram can treat depression in MND patients but does not affect life expectancy. Memantine, an anti-glutamatergic agent used for severe Alzheimer’s disease, is not recommended for MND patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old university student exhibits involuntary head twitching and flicking of his hands....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old university student exhibits involuntary head twitching and flicking of his hands. He also says that he suffers from embarrassing grunting which can affect him at almost any time. When he is in lectures at the university he manages to control it, but often when he comes home and relaxes the movements and noises get the better of him. His girlfriend who attends the consultation with him tells you that he seems very easily distracted and often is really very annoying, repeating things which she says to him and mimicking her. On further questioning, it transpires that this has actually been a problem since childhood. On examination his BP is 115/70 mmHg, pulse is 74 beats/min and regular. His heart sounds are normal, respiratory, abdominal and neurological examinations are entirely normal.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 129 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White Cell Count (WCC) 8.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 193 × 109 /l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) 23 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gilles de la Tourette syndrome

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Movement Disorders: Gilles de la Tourette Syndrome, Congenital Cerebellar Ataxia, Haemochromatosis, Huntington’s Disease, and Wilson’s Disease

      Gilles de la Tourette syndrome is characterized by motor and vocal tics that are preceded by an unwanted premonitory urge. These tics may be suppressible, but with associated tension and mental exhaustion. The diagnosis is based on clinical presentation and history, with an association with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, behavioural problems, and self-mutilation. The pathophysiology is unknown, but treatments include neuroleptics, atypical antipsychotics, and benzodiazepines.

      Congenital cerebellar ataxia typically presents with a broad-based gait and dysmetria, which is not seen in this case. Haemochromatosis has a controversial link to movement disorders. Huntington’s disease primarily presents with chorea, irregular dancing-type movements that are not repetitive or rhythmic and lack the premonitory urge and suppressibility seen in Tourette’s. Wilson’s disease has central nervous system manifestations, particularly parkinsonism and tremor, which are not present in this case. It is important to distinguish between these movement disorders for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A patient aged 50 presents to the ENT clinic with facial pain. The...

    Incorrect

    • A patient aged 50 presents to the ENT clinic with facial pain. The patient reports experiencing frequent attacks of pain around the left eye and left cheek, with up to 15-20 attacks per day. The attacks are short, lasting 3-4 minutes but can last up to 15 minutes, and can be triggered by neck movements. The patient also experiences watering of the left eye during the attacks. There are no associated symptoms of vomiting, aversion to light or sound, or limb weakness. Both ear, nose, and throat and neurological examinations are normal, and the patient is normotensive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia

      Correct Answer: Paroxysmal hemicrania

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Paroxysmal Hemicrania from Other Headache Syndromes

      Paroxysmal hemicrania is a type of headache syndrome that is characterized by intense pain on one side of the face lasting for 2-25 minutes. Unlike other headache syndromes, the pain never occurs on the opposite side of the face. Autonomic symptoms such as rhinorrhea, ptosis, watering of the eye, and eyelid edema are often present. Neck movements or pressure on the neck can trigger the attacks, and the headache responds well to indomethacin. It is important to distinguish paroxysmal hemicrania from other headache syndromes such as migraine, trigeminal neuralgia, cluster headache, and frontal lobe glioblastoma. Migraine typically presents with intermittent attacks accompanied by photophobia, phonophobia, or nausea. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by shorter electric shock-like pains in response to specific stimuli. Cluster headache consists of fewer but longer attacks per day, occurring at a consistent time, and with minimal response to indomethacin. Frontal lobe glioblastoma is not consistent with the history of paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the definition of Nissl bodies? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of Nissl bodies?

      Your Answer: The neurone's Golgi apparatus

      Correct Answer: Granules of rough endoplasmic reticulum

      Explanation:

      Nissl Bodies: Stacks of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

      Nissl bodies are named after the German neurologist Franz Nissl and are found in neurones following a selective staining method known as Nissl staining. These bodies are composed of stacks of rough endoplasmic reticulum and are a major site of neurotransmitter synthesis, particularly acetylcholine, in the neurone. Therefore, the correct answer is that Nissl bodies are granules of rough endoplasmic reticulum. It is important to note that the other answer options are incorrect as they refer to entirely different organelles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (15/30) 50%
Passmed