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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old primigravida presents for her 9-week antenatal appointment. She recently had a private ultrasound which revealed dichorionic, diamniotic twins. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and a BMI of 38 kg/m². Although she has been smoking during her pregnancy, she has reduced her intake from 20 to 5 cigarettes per day and is interested in trying nicotine replacement therapy. Her main concern is that both her mother and sister suffered from hyperemesis gravidarum. What factor in her history is linked to a lower likelihood of developing this condition?
Your Answer: Obesity
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Smoking has been found to decrease the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum, which is believed to occur due to rapidly rising levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) and oestrogen. This is because smoking is considered to be anti-oestrogenic. Therefore, despite having other risk factors, the fact that the patient is a smoker may decrease her incidence of hyperemesis gravidarum. On the other hand, hypothyroidism is not a risk factor, but hyperthyroidism increases the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum. Obesity and underweight are associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but women with these conditions who smoked before pregnancy have been found to have no increased risk. Primigravida status is also associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but the reason for this is not clear. Finally, twin pregnancies carry an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum due to higher levels of beta-hCG released from the placenta.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman, 3 weeks postpartum, is brought in by her sister after claiming her baby is possessed by demons. She has been experiencing insomnia and conversing with imaginary individuals. Her sister reports that she has been exhibiting extreme mood changes over the past few weeks and is worried about the safety of the baby. The patient has no significant medical or psychiatric history, and there is no family history of mental illness. What is the recommended course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Hospitalisation in Mother & Baby Unit
Explanation:Women with postpartum psychosis require hospitalisation, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit, for close monitoring. This is a serious mental illness that should be treated as a medical emergency, and electroconvulsive therapy is not the next step in management.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old G3P2 woman at 16 weeks gestation visits her doctor with concerns about a new rash on her 6-year-old daughter's arm that appeared 2 days ago. The rash looks vesicular, and the mother reports that there is a chickenpox outbreak at school. The patient is unsure if she had chickenpox in her childhood.
What should be the next step in managing this situation?Your Answer: Check the patient's varicella-zoster antibodies
Explanation:The first step in managing chickenpox exposure during pregnancy is to confirm the patient’s immunity by checking her varicella-zoster antibodies. If the woman is unsure about her past exposure to chickenpox, this test will determine if she has antibodies to the virus. If the test confirms her immunity, no further action is necessary. Administering the varicella-zoster vaccine or IV immunoglobulin is not appropriate in this situation. Neglecting to check the patient’s immunity status can put her and her unborn child at risk.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A woman who is 34 weeks pregnant is being assessed for her first pregnancy. Her baby is currently in a breech presentation. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Refer for external cephalic version
Explanation:Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman has a vaginal delivery of her first child. Although the birth was uncomplicated, she suffers a tear which extends from the vaginal mucosa into the submucosal tissue, but not into the external anal sphincter. Which degree tear is this classed as?
Your Answer: Second degree
Explanation:– First degree: a tear that only affects the vaginal mucosa
– Second degree: a tear that extends into the subcutaneous tissue
– Third degree: a laceration that reaches the external anal sphincter
– Fourth degree: a laceration that goes through the external anal sphincter and reaches the rectal mucosaPerineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.
There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 30-year-old G1P0 woman in her 12th week of pregnancy presents to the emergency department with severe nausea and vomiting that has been worsening over the past week. She reports difficulty keeping any food down over the past 24 hours and noticed a small amount of fresh blood in her vomit. She denies any abdominal pain or change in bowel habits. Despite using cyclizine tablets, her symptoms have not improved. The patient has no significant medical history.
The following blood tests were taken and revealed abnormal results: Na+ 140 mmol/l (reference range 135-145 mmol/l), K+ 3.3 mmol/l (reference range 3.5-5.0 mmol/l), Cl- 100 mmol/l (reference range 95-105 mmol/l), HCO3- 23 mmol/l (reference range 22-28 mmol/l), urea 13 mmol/l (reference range 2.0-7.0 mmol/l), creatinine 80 mmol/l (reference range 55-120 umol/l), and blood glucose 6.0 mmol/l (reference range 4.0-7.8 mmol/l). A urine dipstick revealed 4+ ketonuria but no white or red cells.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Admit for IV fluid and electrolyte replacement, anti-emetics and trial of bland diet
Explanation:In cases where pregnant women experience severe nausea and vomiting leading to ketonuria and dehydration, admission to the hospital should be considered. This is especially true if they have already tried oral anti-emetics without success. Such symptoms are indicative of hyperemesis gravidarum, which can be confirmed by urine dipstick and increased blood urea levels. While pyridoxine is not recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG), ondansetron is effective as a second-line option. However, inpatient treatment is necessary. Gastroscopy is unlikely to be helpful at this stage, even if there is a small amount of blood in the vomit, which is likely due to a Mallory-Weiss tear caused by constant retching. Low K+ levels due to vomiting need to be replaced, and anti-emetics are necessary. Therefore, admission to the hospital for IV fluids, anti-emetics, and a trial of a bland diet is the appropriate course of action.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP seeking guidance on conceiving. She has a medical history of epilepsy and is currently taking lamotrigine. Her last seizure occurred 1 year ago. She is worried about the safety of epilepsy medications during pregnancy and wonders if there are any supplements she should take. What are the key counseling points to address her concerns?
Your Answer: Folic acid 400mcg, continue lamotrigine
Correct Answer: Folic acid 5mg, continue lamotrigine
Explanation:When women who are taking antiepileptic medication plan to conceive, they should be given a higher dose of folic acid (5mg) instead of the usual 400 mcg once daily. Folic acid is recommended during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects, and a higher dose is necessary for women with epilepsy due to their increased risk of low serum folate levels. It is important to note that certain antiepileptic medications can interfere with folate metabolism, and switching to sodium valproate is not recommended as it is a known teratogen. It is also important for women to continue taking their medication during pregnancy to avoid an increased risk of seizures.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following foods should be avoided during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Cottage cheese
Correct Answer: Cooked liver
Explanation:During pregnancy, it is recommended to avoid consuming liver due to its high levels of vitamin A, which is a teratogen.
Antenatal Care: Lifestyle Advice for Pregnant Women
During antenatal care, healthcare providers should provide pregnant women with lifestyle advice to ensure a healthy pregnancy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has made several recommendations regarding the advice that pregnant women should receive. These recommendations include nutritional supplements, alcohol consumption, smoking, food-acquired infections, work, air travel, prescribed medicines, over-the-counter medicines, complimentary therapies, exercise, and sexual intercourse.
Nutritional supplements such as folic acid and vitamin D are recommended for pregnant women. However, iron supplementation should not be offered routinely, and vitamin A supplementation should be avoided as it may be teratogenic. Pregnant women should also avoid alcohol consumption as it can lead to long-term harm to the baby. Smoking should also be avoided, and women who have stopped smoking may use nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) after discussing the risks and benefits with their healthcare provider.
Pregnant women should also be cautious of food-acquired infections such as listeriosis and salmonella. They should avoid certain foods such as unpasteurized milk, ripened soft cheeses, pate, undercooked meat, raw or partially cooked eggs, and meat, especially poultry. Women should also be informed of their maternity rights and benefits at work, and the Health and Safety Executive should be consulted if there are any concerns about possible occupational hazards during pregnancy.
Air travel during pregnancy should also be approached with caution. Women who are over 37 weeks pregnant with a singleton pregnancy and no additional risk factors should avoid air travel. Women with uncomplicated, multiple pregnancies should avoid air travel once they are over 32 weeks pregnant. Pregnant women should also avoid certain activities such as high-impact sports where there is a risk of abdominal trauma and scuba diving. However, sexual intercourse is not known to be associated with any adverse outcomes during pregnancy.
Overall, pregnant women should be informed of these lifestyle recommendations to ensure a healthy pregnancy and reduce the risk of harm to the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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You are working at a prenatal care center. A couple comes in who are 28 weeks pregnant. They had difficulty getting pregnant naturally but were able to conceive through their second attempt at IVF. This is their first child. During their 14 week ultrasound, the sonographer expressed concern about the placement of the placenta and they have returned for a follow-up scan today, which confirms the initial finding. What is the probable anomaly?
Your Answer: Placenta praevia
Explanation:A study conducted in Norway in 2006 revealed that singleton pregnancies conceived through assisted fertilization had a six-fold higher risk of placenta praevia compared to naturally conceived pregnancies. The risk of placenta previa was also nearly three-fold higher in pregnancies following assisted fertilization for mothers who had conceived both naturally and through assisted fertilization. This abnormal placental placement is believed to be linked to the abnormal ovarian stimulation hormones that occur during IVF. Additionally, the incidence of placenta praevia is associated with previous caesarean sections, multiparity, and previous gynaecological surgeries, while the incidence of other options given increases with the number of previous caesarean sections.
Understanding Placenta Praevia
Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.
There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.
Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.
In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman has experienced difficulty with lactation during the first week after giving birth to her second child. She successfully breastfed her first child for nine months. She delivered at full term and suffered from a significant postpartum hemorrhage six hours after delivery. She received an IV oxytocin infusion and a blood transfusion. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer: Anterior pituitary
Explanation:Understanding Pituitary Lesions and their Symptoms
The pituitary gland is a small gland located at the base of the brain that produces and releases hormones that regulate various bodily functions. Lesions in different parts of the pituitary gland can cause a range of symptoms.
Anterior Pituitary: Ischaemic necrosis of the anterior pituitary can occur following post-partum haemorrhage, leading to varying symptoms of hypopituitarism. The most common initial symptom is low or absent prolactin, resulting in failure to commence lactation. Other symptoms may include amenorrhoea, hypothyroidism, glucocorticoid deficiency, and loss of genital and axillary hair. Treatment requires hormone supplementation and involvement of an endocrinologist.
Hypothalamus: Lesions in the hypothalamus can cause hyperthermia/hypothermia, aggressive behaviour, somnolence, and Horner syndrome.
Cerebral Cortex: Lesions in the cerebral cortex are associated with stroke or multiple sclerosis and affect different functions such as speech, movement, hearing, and sight.
Posterior Pituitary: Lesions in the posterior pituitary are associated with central diabetes insipidus.
Pituitary Stalk: Lesions in the pituitary stalk are associated with diabetes insipidus, hypopituitarism, and hyperprolactinaemia. The patient presents with galactorrhoea, irregular menstrual periods, and other symptoms related to hyperprolactinaemia due to the lifting of dopamine neurotransmitter release inhibition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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