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  • Question 1 - Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung?

      Your Answer: In normal subjects the small airways contribute to most of the resistance

      Correct Answer: The medial basal segment is absent in the left lower lobe

      Explanation:

      The right and left lung anatomy are similar but asymmetrical. The right lung consists of three lobes: right upper lobe (RUL), right middle lobe (RML), and right lower lobe (RLL). The left lung consists of two lobes: right upper lobe (RUL) and right lower lobe (RLL). The right lobe is divided by an oblique and horizontal fissure, where the horizontal fissure divides the upper and middle lobe, and the oblique fissure divides the middle and lower lobes. In the left lobe there is only an oblique fissure that separates the upper and lower lobe.

      The lobes further divide into segments which are associated with specific segmental bronchi. Segmental bronchi are the third-order branches off the second-order branches (lobar bronchi) that come off the main bronchus.

      The right lung consists of ten segments. There are three segments in the RUL (apical, anterior and posterior), two in the RML (medial and lateral), and five in the RLL (superior, medial, anterior, lateral, and posterior). The oblique fissure separates the RUL from the RML, and the horizontal fissure separates the RLL from the RML and RUL.

      There are eight to nine segments on the left depending on the division of the lobe. In general, there are four segments in the left upper lobe (anterior, apicoposterior, inferior and superior lingula) and four or five in the left lower lobe (lateral, anteromedial, superior and posterior). The medium sized airways offer the maximum airway resistance, not smaller ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase II metabolism of a drug?

      Your Answer: Deamination

      Correct Answer: Conjugation

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:
      Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.

      Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 23-year-old male patient with a downward dislocation of the lens in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male patient with a downward dislocation of the lens in his right eye is experiencing visual problems. The ophthalmologist notes a constellation of symptoms resembling those of Marfan Syndrome. The patient's history reveals learning disabilities and a diagnosis of homocystinuria is suspected. What is the pathophysiology of homocystinuria?

      Your Answer: Excess of cystathionine beta synthase

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of cystathionine beta synthase

      Explanation:

      Inherited metabolic disorders are often characterized by the lack of an essential enzyme and are currently treated by dietary restriction and other strategies to replace the substrates or products of the missing enzyme. Patients with homocystinuria lack the enzyme cystathionine β-synthase (CBS), and many of these individuals do not respond to current treatment protocols.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 80 yr. old male was found on the floor. His blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • A 80 yr. old male was found on the floor. His blood pressure was 100/60 mmHg. His core temperature was 31ºC. His FBC and serum electrolytes were within normal limits. Which of the following would be found in his ECG?

      Your Answer: U waves

      Correct Answer: Long QT interval

      Explanation:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core body temperature of < 35 °C.
      Hypothermia may produce the following ECG changes:
      -Bradyarrhythmia
      -Osborne Waves (= J waves)
      -Prolonged PR, QRS and QT intervals
      -Shivering artefact
      -Ventricular ectopics
      -Cardiac arrest due to VT, VF or asystole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32 year old Indian male presents to the clinic with fever, cough...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old Indian male presents to the clinic with fever, cough and an enlarged cervical lymph node. Examination reveals a caseating granuloma in the lymph node. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: TB adenitis

      Explanation:

      Tuberculous lymphadenitis is a chronic, specific granulomatous inflammation of the lymph node with caseation necrosis, caused by infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis or a related bacteria. The characteristic morphological element is the tuberculous granuloma (caseating tubercle).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one of the following features is least associated with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is least associated with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia?

      Your Answer: Monoclonal IgM paraproteinaemia

      Correct Answer: Bone pain

      Explanation:

      Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include weight loss and lethargy; monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?

      Your Answer: Reduced insulin secretion

      Correct Answer: Reduced renal reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Throughout pregnancy the tubular reabsorption of glucose is less effective than in the non-pregnant state, this leads to glycosuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a work-up for hypertension. It comes back as 6.5 mmol/l. The test is repeated and reported as 6.7 mmol/l. He says he feels constantly tired but denies any polyuria or polydipsia. How should these results be interpreted?

      Your Answer: Normal

      Correct Answer: Impaired fasting glycaemia

      Explanation:

      A fasting blood glucose level from 110 to 126 mg/dL (5.5 to 6.9 mmol/L) is considered prediabetes. This result is sometimes called impaired fasting glucose.
      Diabetes mellitus (type 2): diagnosis

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made by plasma glucose. If the patient is symptomatic:
      fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l
      random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l (or after 75g oral glucose tolerance test)
      If the patient is asymptomatic the above criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow release tablet (MST) 60mg bd as an analgesic, is reviewed. Recently, he has been unable to take medications orally and, thus, a decision has been made to set up a syringe driver. Out of the following, what dose of diamorphine should be prescribed for the syringe driver?

      Your Answer: 60mg

      Correct Answer: 40mg

      Explanation:

      The dose is calculated, using the conversion factor, as follows:

      (Conversion factor used to convert oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine = Divide the total daily dose of oral morphine by 3)
      Hence,
      60mg*2 = 120mg
      120mg/3 = 40mg

      The side effects of opioids can be transient or persistent, and these include constipation, nausea, and drowsiness. Therefore, all patients taking opioids should also be prescribed a laxative and an anti-emetic (if the nausea is persistent). Dose-adjustment may be necessary in cases of persistent drowsiness. Moreover, strong opioids can also provide quick relief from metastatic bone pain, as compared to NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 33-year-old woman presents to the clinic with chronic fatigue. She has 3...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman presents to the clinic with chronic fatigue. She has 3 children and a full-time job and is finding it very difficult to hold everything together. There is no significant past medical history. On examination, her BP is 145/80 mmHg and her BMI is 28. Investigations show: Hb 12.5 g/dL, WCC 6.7 x109/L, PLT 204 x109/L, Na+ 141 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 120 μmol/L, Total cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L, TSH 7.8 U/l, Free T4 10.0 pmol/l (10-22), Free T3 4.9 pmol/l (5-10). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Elevated TSH (usually 4.5-10.0 mIU/L) with normal free T4 is considered mild or subclinical hypothyroidism.
      Hypothyroidism commonly manifests as a slowing in physical and mental activity but may be asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are often subtle and neither sensitive nor specific.
      The following are symptoms of hypothyroidism:
      – Fatigue, loss of energy, lethargy
      – Weight gain
      – Decreased appetite
      – Cold intolerance
      – Dry skin
      – Hair loss
      – Sleepiness
      – Muscle pain, joint pain, weakness in the extremities
      – Depression
      – Emotional lability, mental impairment
      – Forgetfulness, impaired memory, inability to concentrate
      – Constipation
      – Menstrual disturbances, impaired fertility
      – Decreased perspiration
      – Paraesthesia and nerve entrapment syndromes
      – Blurred vision
      – Decreased hearing
      – Fullness in the throat, hoarseness
      Physical signs of hypothyroidism include the following:
      – Weight gain
      – Slowed speech and movements
      – Dry skin
      – Jaundice
      – Pallor
      – Coarse, brittle, straw-like hair
      – Loss of scalp hair, axillary hair, pubic hair, or a combination
      – Dull facial expression
      – Coarse facial features
      – Periorbital puffiness
      – Macroglossia
      – Goitre (simple or nodular)
      – Hoarseness
      – Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased diastolic blood pressure
      – Bradycardia
      – Pericardial effusion
      – Abdominal distention, ascites (uncommon)
      – Hypothermia (only in severe hypothyroid states)
      – Nonpitting oedema (myxoedema)
      – Pitting oedema of lower extremities
      – Hyporeflexia with delayed relaxation, ataxia, or both.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and...

    Correct

    • A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and empty boxes of prednisolone. He has obvious rheumatoid features on examination and some unilateral consolidation on his chest X-ray. He is given intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics. Which one of the following would be the most useful addition to the current management?

      Your Answer: IV hydrocortisone 100 mg

      Explanation:

      The empty boxes indicate that the patient has run out of his medication.
      Chronic administration of high doses of glucocorticoids (GCs) (e.g., prednisone or prednisolone) and also other hormones such as oestrogens, progestins, androgens and growth hormone induce varying degrees of tolerance, resulting in a progressively decreased response to the effect of the drug, followed by dependence and rarely addiction.
      The glucocorticoid withdrawal syndrome (GWS) has been considered a withdrawal reaction due to established physical dependence on supraphysiological GC levels.
      The severity of GWS depends on the genetics and developmental history of the patient, on his environment, and on the phase and degree of dependence the patient has reached. Its management should include a temporary increase in the dose of GCs followed by gradual, slow tapering to a maintenance dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 69-year-old retired veterinarian with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents as she has...

    Correct

    • A 69-year-old retired veterinarian with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents as she has started to bump into things since this morning. Over the previous two days, she had noticed some 'floating spots in her eyes'. Examination reveals she has no vision in her right eye. The red reflex on the right side is difficult to elicit and you are unable to visualise the retina on the right side during fundoscopy. Examination of the left fundus reveals changes consistent with pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      The history of diabetes, complete loss of vision in the affected eye and inability to visualise the retina, suggest a diagnosis of vitreous haemorrhage (VH). 3 conditions cause 59 to 88.5% of VH cases: proliferative diabetic retinopathy, posterior vitreous detachment (PVD), and ocular trauma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 58-year-old woman has multiple non-healing leg ulcers. She reports feeling unwell for...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman has multiple non-healing leg ulcers. She reports feeling unwell for several months. Examination findings include a normal blood pressure, pulse 90 bpm, pale conjunctivae and poor dentition associated with bleeding gums. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Explanation:

      Severe vitamin C deficiency results in scurvy, a disorder characterized by hemorrhagic manifestations and abnormal osteoid and dentin formation.
      Vitamin C plays a role in collagen, carnitine, hormone, and amino acid formation. It is essential for bone and blood vessel health and wound healing and facilitates recovery from burns. Vitamin C is also an antioxidant, supports immune function, and facilitates the absorption of iron (see table Sources, Functions, and Effects of Vitamins).
      Dietary sources of vitamin C include citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, broccoli, strawberries, and sweet peppers. (See also Overview of Vitamins.)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 2-day-old girl is admitted by her mother because she gets cyanotic upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old girl is admitted by her mother because she gets cyanotic upon feeding and she wouldn't stop crying. The doctors suspect a congenital heart disease. What is the most probable aetiology?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Transposition of the great arteries results in a significant hypoxemic status that is observed clinically by central cyanosis. The bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes is therefore the basic pattern of clinical presentation in transposition. Its onset and severity depend on anatomical and functional variants that influence the degree of mixing between the two circulations. Limited intercirculatory mixing, usually present if the ventricular septum is intact or the atrial septal defect is restrictive, is related to progressive and profound central cyanosis evident within the first hours of life. Tachypnoea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, poor weight gain, a gallop rhythm, and eventually hepatomegaly can be then detected later on during infancy. Heart murmurs associated with left outflow tract obstruction, due to a persistent arterial duct or a septal defect may be heard, but they are not a constant finding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up. She has hypertension, controlled by a combination of Ramipril and indapamide and was diagnosed with 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency since birth when she was found to have clitoromegaly. Which of the following is most likely to be elevated?

      Your Answer: 17-OH pregnenolone

      Correct Answer: 11-Deoxycortisol

      Explanation:

      11-beta hydroxylase is stimulated by ACTH and responsible for conversion of 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol and deoxycorticosterone to corticosterone.

      In 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, the previously mentioned conversions are partially blocked, leading to:
      – Increased levels of ACTH
      – Accumulation of 11-deoxycortisol (which has limited biological activity) and deoxycorticosterone (which has mineralocorticoid activity)
      – Overproduction of adrenal androgens (DHEA, androstenedione, and testosterone)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back,...

    Correct

    • An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back, presents to the outpatient clinic with bilateral shoulder stiffness and generalized myalgia. The ESR was found to be 60mm/1st hour at the time of presentation. Prednisolone therapy was initiated at a daily dose of 15 mg along with Calcium and Vitamin supplementation. She reported resolution of her symptoms in one week. However the symptoms relapsed when the prednisolone dose was reduced below the current dose of 12.5 mg daily. How should she be ideally managed?

      Your Answer: Continue the current dose of prednisolone and start methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica, a syndrome characterized by proximal muscle pain and stiffness in older persons, generally is treated with prednisone. Dosages of 15 to 25 mg of prednisone per day can reduce inflammation considerably, although many patients relapse when therapy is tapered. Long-term (18 to 36 months) steroid treatment has been recommended by several studies, but this can result in multiple side effects, including osteoporosis, hypertension, cataracts, and hyperglycaemia. Methotrexate has been used to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis, systemic vasculitis, and giant cell arteritis, and in some studies has been combined with prednisone to treat polymyalgia rheumatica, decreasing the duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      55.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment (leaving out the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment (leaving out the current NICE guidelines) for a 29 year old man with erythrodermic psoriasis and arthritis mutilans involving several digits of both hands?

      Your Answer: Etanercept

      Explanation:

      TNF-alpha inhibitors are known to ameliorate the symptoms and disease activity of Arthritis mutilans (a rare and severe form of psoriatic arthritis), by disabling the cytokines that are involved in inflammation and joint destruction. From the mentioned choices, this would be the most effective option. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, followed by sulfasalazine used in mild to moderate forms of psoriatic arthritis but has not shown much efficacy in arthritis mutilans. Phototherapy, narrowband UVB light therapy can be very effective in clearing skin lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old man has been unwell for the last 3 weeks and now...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has been unwell for the last 3 weeks and now developed a rash. Chickenpox is diagnosed. What is the appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: No medication

      Correct Answer: Acyclovir

      Explanation:

      You may treat chickenpox with acyclovir if it is commenced within the first 24 hours of the rash’s appearance. Erythromycin, doxycycline, and ampicillin would not help because it’s a viral infection (Varicella) not a bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 40-year-old female is receiving a course of chemotherapy for breast cancer. She...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old female is receiving a course of chemotherapy for breast cancer. She is, however, experiencing troublesome vomiting which is not responding to domperidone. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step of management?

      Your Answer: Add a 5-HT3 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Nausea and vomiting are the common side effects of chemotherapy. Risk factors for the development of these symptoms include age<50 years, anxiety, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy administered. For patients at low risk of these symptoms, drugs such as metoclopramide may be used. For high-risk patients, however, 5-HT3 receptor antagonists such as ondansetron are often effective, especially if combined with dexamethasone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 56-year-old man, on the acute oncology ward, is a known case of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man, on the acute oncology ward, is a known case of colorectal cancer. He was diagnosed one month ago after participating in a screening test—faecal occult blood test. Following the positive test result, colonoscopy was performed demonstrating a malignant lesion in the descending colon. CT staging showed lymph node involvement but no distant metastases. The patient has undergone a left hemicolectomy and is due to start adjuvant chemotherapy with a combination of fluorouracil (5-FU) and oxaliplatin. During his work-up, his consultant had explained that he would need to be monitored for disease recurrence. Which of the following is important in monitoring the disease activity in colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: Mesorectal MRI

      Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)

      Explanation:

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a known tumour marker for colorectal cancer. It is not used diagnostically, but in patients with a known diagnosis of colorectal cancer associated with raised CEA levels, it can be used to monitor disease activity and help with the early identification of disease recurrence.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What does Caplan's syndrome refer to? ...

    Incorrect

    • What does Caplan's syndrome refer to?

      Your Answer: Bronchial cancer secondary to pneumoconiosis

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid lung nodules and pneumoconiosis

      Explanation:

      Caplan’s syndrome is defined as the association between silicosis and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). It is rare and usually diagnosed in an advanced stage of RA. It generally affects patients with a prolonged exposure to silica.

      Caplan’s syndrome presents with rheumatoid lung nodules and pneumoconiosis. Originally described in coal miners with progressive massive fibrosis, it may also occur in asbestosis, silicosis and other pneumoconiosis. Chest radiology shows multiple, round, well defined nodules, usually 0.5 – 2.0 cm in diameter, which may cavitate and resemble tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 80 yr. old male patient with ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and dyslipidaemia...

    Incorrect

    • A 80 yr. old male patient with ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and dyslipidaemia presented with productive cough, fever with chills and loss of appetite for 4 days. On examination he was unwell and febrile with a temperature of 38.3. His blood pressure was 130/80mmHg and pulse rate was 140 bpm. Respiratory rate was 18 breaths per minute. On auscultation there were crepitations over the left lower zone of his chest. His abdomen was soft and non-tender. ECG showed an irregular narrow complex tachycardia. Which of the following is the most appropriate acute management to treat his tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Correct Answer: Antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is acute atrial fibrillation (AF) precipitated by acute pneumonia. History of fever, cough and the auscultation findings support it. So the most appropriate management is treating the pneumonia with antibiotics. Treating the underlying cause will reduce the heart rate. Other responses are helpful in the management of chronic AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is feeling more fatigued than...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is feeling more fatigued than usual. She has not attended the previous three annual check-ups and her blood glucose control has been poor. She has not been compliant with his medications. Blood pressure is 170/90 mmHg. Urinalysis shows microalbuminuria. A blood test reveals her glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 26mL/min. If a renal biopsy was to be performed in this patient, what would be the expected findings?

      Your Answer: Nodular glomerulosclerosis and hyaline arteriosclerosis

      Explanation:

      This patient has a poorly controlled T2DM with an underlying diabetic nephropathy. The histological findings are Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions (nodular glomerulosclerosis) and hyaline arteriosclerosis. This is due to nonenzymatic glycosylation.

      Diabetic nephropathy is the chronic loss of kidney function occurring in those with diabetes mellitus. Protein loss in the urine due to damage to the glomeruli may become massive, and cause a low serum albumin with resulting generalized body swelling (edema) and result in the nephrotic syndrome. Likewise, the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) may progressively fall from a normal of over 90 ml/min/1.73m2 to less than 15, at which point the patient is said to have end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). It usually is slowly progressive over years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An 83-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with increasing oedema and ascites. He...

    Correct

    • An 83-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with increasing oedema and ascites. He is hypertensive, for which he takes amlodipine. There is shortness of breath on exercise. His alcohol history is two cans of stout per day.   ECG is normal, and CXR reveals normal heart size and no signs of cardiac failure. Serum albumin is 23 g/dl; urinary albumin excretion is 7 g/24 h, with no haematuria. He has mild anaemia with a normal MCV. Total cholesterol is elevated.   What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome usually presents with the symptoms in this patient: low albumin, abnormal cholesterol, increased urinary albumin excretion, oedema, and as a consequence, hypertension as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 32 yr. old previously well primigravida in her 16th week of pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 yr. old previously well primigravida in her 16th week of pregnancy came to the antenatal clinic for a routine review. Her blood pressure was 152/90 mmHg. On her last clinic visit 4 weeks ago her blood pressure was 148/86 mmHg. She was put on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring and her mean blood pressure was 148/88 mmHg. Her urine examination was negative for protein. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy-induced hypertension

      Correct Answer: Pre-existing hypertension

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia is excluded from negative proteinuria. White coat hypertension is excluded with ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. Pregnancy induced hypertension develops after 20 weeks of gestation. So the most likely answer is pre-existing hypertension. She should be investigated for a secondary cause for hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan?

      Your Answer: 5-HT1 agonist

      Explanation:

      Triptans are specific 5-HT1 agonists used in the acute treatment of migraine. They are generally used as first-line therapy in combination with an NSAID or paracetamol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A social worker has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection. Which test will...

    Correct

    • A social worker has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection. Which test will conclusively establish the presence of this infection?

      Your Answer: HCV RNA

      Explanation:

      The most sensitive test for detecting Hepatitis C infection (acute) is HCA RNA; it can be detected 1-2 weeks after infection. Anti-HCV antibodies take at least 6 weeks to develop and be positive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?

      Your Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given intravenously is 100%

      Correct Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given orally is often affected by the degree of renal elimination

      Explanation:

      Renal elimination of a drug has no role in altering the bioavailability of a drug.
      The bioavailability of a drug is the proportion of the drug which reaches systemic circulation.
      Mathematically, bioavailability is the AUCoral/AUCiv x 100%, where AUC = area under the concentration-time curve following a single (oral or iv) dose.

      Other options are true:
      By definition, the bioavailability of a drug given intravenously is 100%.
      Drugs given orally that undergo high pre-systemic (first-pass) metabolism in the liver or gut wall have a low bioavailability e.g. lidocaine.
      Bioavailability is also affected by the degree of absorption from the gut and this can change depending on gut motility and administration of other drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 52 yr. old female who was a smoker, with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 52 yr. old female who was a smoker, with a history of asymptomatic atrial septal defect (ASD) presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion and ankle oedema for the past 2 weeks. She has defaulted on her follow up for ASD. On examination she was cyanosed and clubbing was noted. Her pulse rate was 92 and blood pressure was 100/60 mmHg. Echocardiography revealed a dilated right ventricle of the heart. The right ventricular pressure was 90 mmHg. Significant tricuspid and pulmonary regurgitation were also noted. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eisenmenger’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      According to echocardiography findings pulmonary pressure is closer to systemic blood pressure and it is evidence of pulmonary hypertension. Because of the reversal of shunt due to pulmonary hypertension, cyanosis and clubbing have developed. So the most probable diagnosis is Eisenmenger’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except?

      Your Answer: Elevated urinary excretion of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5HIAA) may be associated with nontropical sprue

      Correct Answer: Pharmacological blockade is clinically useful in only 10% of patients

      Explanation:

      For medical management of carcinoid syndrome, there are two somatostatin analogues available, Octreotide and Lanreotide. Somatostatin is an amino acid peptide which is an inhibitory hormone, which is synthesized by paracrine cells located ubiquitously throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Both somatostatin analogues provide symptom relief in 50% to 70% of patients and biochemical response in 40% to 60% patients. Many studies have shown that Octreotide and Lanreotide also inhibit the proliferation of tumour cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Clinical Sciences (2/4) 50%
Cardiology (1/4) 25%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Haematology & Oncology (1/4) 25%
Nephrology (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (2/5) 40%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
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