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  • Question 1 - A 52-year-old female presents with pain in her proximal femur. Imaging demonstrates a...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old female presents with pain in her proximal femur. Imaging demonstrates a bone metastasis from an unknown primary site. CT scanning with arterial phase contrast shows that the lesion is hypervascular. From which of the following primary sites is the lesion most likely to have originated?

      Your Answer: Thyroid

      Correct Answer: Renal

      Explanation:

      In females, the breasts and lungs are the most common primary disease sites; approximately 80% of cancers that spread to bone arise in these locations. In males, cancers of the prostate and lungs make up 80% of the carcinomas that metastasize to bone. The remaining 20% of primary disease sites in patients of both sexes are the kidney, gut, and thyroid, as well as sites of unknown origin.

      On contrast-enhanced CT scans, RCC is usually solid, and decreased attenuation suggestive of necrosis is often present. Sometimes, RCC is a predominantly cystic mass, with thick septa and wall nodularity.
      RCC may also appear as a completely solid and highly enhancing mass

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 34-year-old woman with pelvic inflammatory disease is administered ceftriaxone. The subclass of...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman with pelvic inflammatory disease is administered ceftriaxone. The subclass of antibiotics that ceftriaxone belongs to is:

      Your Answer: Third-generation cephalosporins

      Explanation:

      Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic. It has a broad spectrum of activity against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Its indications include middle ear infections, endocarditis, meningitis, pneumonia, bone and joint infections, intra-abdominal infections, skin infections, urinary tract infections, gonorrhoea, and pelvic inflammatory disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45 year old man who complains of chronic post prandial, burning epigastric...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old man who complains of chronic post prandial, burning epigastric pain undergoes a gastrointestinal endoscopy. There is no apparent mass or haemorrhage and a biopsy is taken from the lower oesophageal mucosa just above the gastro-oesophageal junction. The results reveal the presence of columnar cells interspersed with goblet cells. Which change best explains the above mentioned histology?

      Your Answer: Metaplasia

      Explanation:

      Metaplasia is the transformation of one type of epithelium into another as a means to better cope with external stress on that epithelium. In this case metaplasia occurs due to the inflammation resulting from gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. Dysplasia is disordered cellular growth. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number but not cell type i.e. transformation. Carcinoma is characterized by cellular atypia. Ischaemia would result in necrosis with ulceration. Carcinoma insitu involves dysplastic atypical cells with the basement membrane intact and atrophy would mean a decrease in number of cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the most likely cause of prolonged bleeding time in a 40...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely cause of prolonged bleeding time in a 40 year old women admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia

      Explanation:

      Bleeding time is related to platelet function, thus a decrease in platelet function, as seen in thrombocytopenia, DIC and von Willebrand disease in which platelet aggregation is defective, leads to an increase in bleeding time. It is not affected by a decrease or deficiency of any other clotting factors. Aspirin and other COX inhibitors prolong bleeding time along with warfarin and heparin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Raised alkaline phosphatase and positive antimicrobial antibody indicates which of the following conditions...

    Correct

    • Raised alkaline phosphatase and positive antimicrobial antibody indicates which of the following conditions presenting with pruritus?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      An autoimmune disease, primary biliary cirrhosis results in destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts. This leads to cholestasis, cirrhosis and eventually, hepatic failure. Symptoms includes fatigue, pruritus and steatorrhea. Increased IgM levels, along with antimitochondrial antibodies are seen in the serum. Liver biopsy is diagnostic, and also aids in staging of disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27 year old lady presents with bright red rectal bleeding that occurs...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old lady presents with bright red rectal bleeding that occurs after defecation and is seen in the toilet bowl and on the tissue. She is constipated but her bowel habit is otherwise normal. A digital rectal examination is done which is also normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoidal disease

      Explanation:

      Answer: Haemorrhoidal disease

      Haemorrhoids are a normal part of the anatomy of the anorectum. They are vascular cushions that serve to protect the anal sphincter, aid closure of the anal canal during increased abdominal pressure, and provide sensory information that helps differentiate among stool, liquid and gas. Because of their high vascularity and sensitive location, they are also a frequent cause of pathology. Contributing factors include pregnancy, chronic constipation, diarrhoea or prolonged straining, weight lifting, and weakening of supporting tissue as a result of aging or genetics.
      Haemorrhoids are classified according to their position relative to the dentate line. External haemorrhoids lie below the dentate line, are covered by squamous epithelium and innervated by cutaneous nerves. If symptomatic, the only definitive therapy is surgical excision.
      Internal haemorrhoids arise above the dentate line, are covered by columnar cells and have a visceral nerve supply. They are further categorized — and treated — according to their degree of prolapse:
      -Grade I haemorrhoids bleed but do not prolapse; on colonoscopy, they are seen as small bulges into the lumen.
      -Grade II haemorrhoids prolapse outside the anal canal but reduce spontaneously.
      -Grade III haemorrhoids protrude outside the anal canal and usually require manual reduction.
      -Grade IV haemorrhoids are irreducible and constantly prolapsed. Acutely thrombosed haemorrhoids and those involving rectal mucosal prolapse are also grade IV.

      Most gastrointestinal and surgical societies advocate anoscopy and/or flexible sigmoidoscopy to evaluate any bright-red rectal bleeding. Colonoscopy should be considered in the evaluation of any rectal bleeding that is not typical of haemorrhoids such as in the presence of strong risk factors for colonic malignancy or in the setting of rectal bleeding with a negative anorectal examination.

      Anal fissures are tears of the sensitive mucosal lining of the anus. Anal fissures often cause pain during and after a bowel movement, sometimes followed by throbbing pain for several hours. They are also often associated with itching and blood on toilet tissue, in the bowl, or on the surface of the stool. Anal fissures are caused by
      trauma to the anal canal usually during bowel movements. Anal fissures are also sometimes caused by inflammatory bowel disease or infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 78-year-old man who has been bedridden for a month is prescribed griseofulvin....

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man who has been bedridden for a month is prescribed griseofulvin. What class of drugs does griseofulvin belong to?

      Your Answer: Antifungal

      Explanation:

      Griseofulvin is an antifungal drug. It is administered orally, and it is used to treat ringworm infections of the skin and nails. It binds to keratin in keratin precursor cells and makes them resistant to fungal infections. Griseofulvin works by interfering with fungal mitosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm...

    Correct

    • An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. The patient, however, does not complain of any symptoms. Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery is rarely symptomatic because its territory is supplied by branches of the:

      Your Answer: Middle colic artery

      Explanation:

      The transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery which is a branch from the superior mesenteric artery. If the inferior mesenteric artery was occluded, branches from the middle colic may go to the marginal artery which supplies the descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum.. Ileocolic and right colic arteries also branch from the superior mesenteric artery that supply the colon but the middle colic, which serves the more distal part of the colon is the better answer. The gastroduodenal artery branches off the common hepatic artery, which supplies part of the duodenum, pancreas and stomach. The splenic artery supplies the spleen, pancreas and curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The transverse colon has two curvatures known as the colic flexures on each...

    Correct

    • The transverse colon has two curvatures known as the colic flexures on each side of its lateral ends, the right and left. The left colic flexure found on the side of the descending colon is attached to an organ superiorly by a mesenteric ligament. Which organ is this?

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The left colic flexure is the bend of the transverse colon as it continues to form the descending colon on the left upper quadrant. The spleen is located on the superior aspect of the left colic flexure. It is commonly referred to as the splenic flexure because of its relation o the spleen superiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A Jewish man was diagnosed with haemophilia C. Which of the following factors...

    Incorrect

    • A Jewish man was diagnosed with haemophilia C. Which of the following factors is deficient in this form of haemophilia?

      Your Answer: Factor XII

      Correct Answer: Factor XI

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia C, also known as plasma thromboplastin antecedent (PTA) deficiency or Rosenthal syndrome, is a condition caused by the deficiency of the coagulation factor XI. The condition is rare and it is usually found in Ashkenazi Jews.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 33 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a tender...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a tender mass in the right groin area. Red streaks are also noted on the thigh that are extending from a small abrasion. Which of the following would be the most likely explanation?

      Your Answer: Lymphadenitis

      Explanation:

      Lymphadenitis is the inflammation or enlargement of a lymph node. Lymph nodes are small, ovoid nodules normally ranging in size from a few millimetres to 2 cm. They are distributed in clusters along the course of lymphatic vessels located throughout the body. The primary function of lymph nodes is to filter out microorganisms and abnormal cells that have collected in lymph fluid. Lymph node enlargement is a common feature in a variety of diseases and may serve as a focal point for subsequent clinical investigation of diseases of the reticuloendothelial system or regional infection. The majority of cases represent a benign response to localized or systemic infection. The red streaks that are noted along the line of lymphatics are indicative of lymphadenitis.

      Groin masses are common and include:
      Herniae
      Lipomas
      Lymph nodes
      Undescended testis
      Femoral aneurysm
      Saphena varix

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following can occur even in the absence of brainstem co-ordination?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can occur even in the absence of brainstem co-ordination?

      Your Answer: Gastric emptying

      Explanation:

      Although gastric emptying is under both neural and hormonal control, it does not require brainstem co-ordination. Increased motility of the orad stomach (decreased distensibility) or of the distal stomach (increased peristalsis), decreased pyloric tone, decreased duodenal motility or a combination of these, all increase the rate of gastric emptying. The major control mechanism for gastric emptying is through duodenal gastric feedback. The duodenum has receptors for the presence of acid, carbohydrate, fat and protein digestion products, osmolarity different from that of plasma, and distension. Activating these receptors decreases the rate of gastric emptying. Neural mechanisms involve both enteric and vagal pathways and a vagotomy impairs the gastric emptying regulation. CCK (cholecystokinin) slows gastric emptying at physiological levels of the hormone. Gastrin, secretin and glucose-1-phosphate also slow gastric emptying, but require higher doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just over the base of the spine of your scapula?

      Your Answer: Dorsal root of T2

      Correct Answer: Dorsal primary ramus of C7

      Explanation:

      The first branches off spinal nerves are called the dorsal and ventral rami. The dorsal rami mediate sensation of the skin over the back and motor supply to the true muscles of the back whilst the ventral rami gives sensation to the skin over the limbs and the skin that is over the ventral side of the trunk. It also gives motor supply to the skeletal muscles of the neck, the trunk and extremities. Hence, itchiness of the part of the skin that is over the spine of the scapula would be mediated by the primary ramus of C7. Accessory nerve doesn’t have any sensory innervation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 79-year-old has been bedridden for 2 months after suffering from a stroke....

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old has been bedridden for 2 months after suffering from a stroke. She suddenly developed shortness of breath and chest pain, and was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following is most likely to increase in this case?

      Your Answer: Ventilation/perfusion ratio

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a blockage of an artery in the lungs by an embolus that has travelled from elsewhere in the body through the bloodstream. The change in cardiopulmonary function is proportional to the extent of the obstruction, which varies with the size and number of emboli obstructing the pulmonary arteries. The resulting physiological changes may include pulmonary hypertension with right ventricular failure and shock, dyspnoea with tachypnoea and hyperventilation, arterial hypoxaemia and pulmonary infarction. Consequent alveolar hyperventilation is manifested by a lowered pa(CO2). After occlusion of the pulmonary artery, areas of the lung are ventilated but not perfused, resulting in wasted ventilation with an increased ventilation/perfusion ratio – the physiological hallmark of PE – contributing to a further hyperventilatory state. The risk of blood clots is increased by cancer, prolonged bed rest, smoking, stroke, certain genetic conditions, oestrogen-based medication, pregnancy, obesity, and post surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - In an anatomy demonstration, the instructor asked one of the medical students to...

    Correct

    • In an anatomy demonstration, the instructor asked one of the medical students to pass his index finger inferior to the root of the left lung. The student notices that his finger is blocked by a structure. Which structure do you think is responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary ligament

      Explanation:

      The pulmonary ligament is dual layer of pleura stretching from the inferior part of the hilar reflection toward the diaphragm.
      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the cavity at the inferior border of the lung where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura.
      The cupola: is part of the pleura that extends superiorly above the first rib and has no association with the root of the lung.
      Inferior vena cava is located in the mediastinum, not near the root of the lung.
      Left pulmonary veins being part of the root of the lung, would not block access to behind the lung. Costomediastinal recess is the part of the pleura where the costal pleura become the mediastinal pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following factors will not affect the wound healing process in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors will not affect the wound healing process in a young women who suffered serious burns to her chest and hands?

      Your Answer: Vitamin A deficiency

      Explanation:

      Healing can be sped-up or slowed down due to various reasons: 1. blood supply, 2. infection, 3. denervation, 4. collection of blood/hematoma, 5. mechanical stress, 6. foreign body, 7. techniques used during surgery and 8. dressing of the wound. Other systemic factors include 1. nutrition e.g. deficiency of zinc, vitamin C, protein deficiency, 2. metabolic status, 3. circulatory status and 4. hormonal influence

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 20 year old male presents to the clinic with progressive pain in...

    Correct

    • A 20 year old male presents to the clinic with progressive pain in his neck and back which has gotten worse over the past 7 months. Past medical history shows that he was an inpatient with a disease flare of ulcerative colitis. He is seen on examination with a stiff back and limited spinal extension on bending forward. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS), a spondyloarthropathy, is a chronic, multisystem inflammatory disorder involving primarily the sacroiliac (SI) joints and the axial skeleton. Key components of the patient history that suggest AS include the following:
      Insidious onset of low back pain – The most common symptom
      Onset of symptoms before age 40 years
      Presence of symptoms for more than 3 months
      Symptoms worse in the morning or with inactivity
      Improvement of symptoms with exercise

      General symptoms of AS include the following:

      Those related to inflammatory back pain – Stiffness of the spine and kyphosis resulting in a stooped posture are characteristic of advanced-stage AS.
      Peripheral enthesitis and arthritis
      Constitutional and organ-specific extra-articular manifestations
      Fatigue is another common complaint, occurring in approximately 65% of patients with AS. Increased levels of fatigue are associated with increased pain and stiffness and decreased functional capacity.
      Pharmacologic therapy

      Agents used in the treatment of AS include the following:

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
      Sulfasalazine
      Tumour necrosis factor-α (TNF-α) antagonists
      Corticosteroids

      AS is the prototype of the spondyloarthropathies, a family of related disorders that also includes reactive arthritis (ReA), psoriatic arthritis (PsA), spondyloarthropathy associated with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), undifferentiated spondyloarthropathy (USpA), and, possibly, Whipple disease and Behçet disease (see the image below). The spondyloarthropathies are linked by common genetics (the human leukocyte antigen [HLA] class-I gene HLA-B27) and a common pathology (enthesitis). The aetiology of AS is not understood completely; however, a strong genetic predisposition exists. A direct relationship between AS and the HLA-B27 gene has been determined. The precise role of HLA-B27 in precipitating AS remains unknown; however, it is believed that HLA-B27 may resemble or act as a receptor for an inciting antigen (e.g., a bacterial antigen).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      313.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following terms best describes the movement of leukocytes towards a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following terms best describes the movement of leukocytes towards a specific target?

      Your Answer: Chemotaxis

      Explanation:

      The movement of leukocytes towards a chemical mediator is termed chemotaxis and the mediators likewise called chemoattractants.
      Diapedesis is the squeezing of the leukocytes from the capillary wall into the intercellular space.
      Endocytosis is engulfing of a small substance by the cells e.g. glucose, protein, fats.
      Margination is lining of the WBC along the periphery of the blood vessel.
      Adhesion is attachment with the vessel wall.
      Phagocytosis is described as engulfing the bacteria or the offending substance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old male is reviewed in the clinic. He has suffered from Crohn's...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male is reviewed in the clinic. He has suffered from Crohn's disease for many years, he has recently undergone a subtotal colectomy. However, he has residual Crohns in his rectum causing the ongoing symptoms. Medical therapy is ineffective. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Proctectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Crohn’s disease is based on the disease site, pattern, activity, and severity. The general goals of treatment for Crohn’s disease are as follows:
      To achieve the best possible clinical, laboratory, and histologic control of the inflammatory disease with the least adverse effects from medication.
      To permit the patient to function as normally as possible.
      Therapy for mild Crohn’s disease is typically administered in a sequential “step-up” approach, in which less aggressive and less toxic treatments are initiated first, followed by more potent medications or procedures if the initial therapy fails.
      Patients are treated with preparations of 5-aminosalicylic acid (5-ASA), antibiotics, and nutritional therapy. However, the use of 5-ASA for the treatment of Crohn’s disease is controversial; only a small subset of patients may benefit from this agent. Although 5-ASA is effective for reducing disease activity in active Crohn’s disease, it typically has a lower efficacy for Crohn’s disease than for ulcerative colitis, and its efficacy for maintenance of remission remains unproven.

      If no response occurs or if the disease is more severe than initially thought, corticosteroids and inhibitors of DNA synthesis (i.e., immunomodulators) with 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP)/azathioprine or methotrexate are administered. Finally, biologic agents (infliximab, adalimumab, certolizumab pegol, and natalizumab) and surgical therapies can be useful.

      For the treatment of moderate to severe Crohn’s disease, current recommendations include the “top-down” approach, which differs from the conventional step-up approach in that more potent agents are administered initially. Top-down therapies include biologic agents and steroids as needed versus combination therapy with both biologic drugs and immunomodulatory agents.

      Azathioprine or 6-MP is effective for maintenance of remission in Crohn’s disease; each is effective for avoiding surgery and for preventing postoperative and endoscopic relapse. Both agents can be used in combination with infliximab.

      If medical therapy for active Crohn’s disease fails, surgical resection of the inflamed bowel, with the restoration of continuity, is indicated.

      Recommended indications for surgical intervention include the following:
      Failed medical therapy
      Persistent symptoms despite high-dose corticosteroid therapy
      Treatment-related complications, including intra-abdominal abscesses
      Medically intractable fistulae
      Fibrotic strictures with obstructive symptoms
      Toxic megacolon
      Intractable haemorrhage
      Perforation
      Cancer

      For Rectal Crohn’s: Proctectomy is appropriate, and in published series, it is required in 10 to 20% of cases. Unfortunately, proctectomy can be complicated by poor wound healing and perineal sinus formation in up to 25 to 50% of patients. A gracillis flap can be helpful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer: Neutrophil

      Correct Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
      Basophils are not present.
      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old-female is suspected to have a pulmonary mass. Supposing that she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old-female is suspected to have a pulmonary mass. Supposing that she has a neoplasm, which of the following are most commonly found to involve the lung:

      Your Answer: Peripheral adenocarcinomas in non-smokers

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary metastases

      Explanation:

      Lung metastases occur when a cancer started in another part of the body (primary site) spreads to the lungs. The lungs are among the most common site where cancer can spread due to its rich systemic venous drainage, almost every type of cancer can spread to the lung. The most common types of cancer that spread to the lung are breast, colorectal, kidney, testicular, bladder, prostate, head and neck cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A machine worker fractured the medial epicondyle of his right humerus resulting in...

    Correct

    • A machine worker fractured the medial epicondyle of his right humerus resulting in damage to an artery running with the ulnar nerve posterior to the medial epicondyle. The artery injured is the?

      Your Answer: Superior ulnar collateral

      Explanation:

      The superior ulnar collateral artery runs posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus, accompanied by the ulnar nerve. This artery arises from the brachial artery near the middle of the arm and ends under the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle by anastomosing with two arteries: the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is the most accurate test for the diagnosis of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most accurate test for the diagnosis of primary syphilis?

      Your Answer: Dark-field microscopy

      Explanation:

      Primary syphilis is transmitted via sexual contact. Lesions on genitalia, called a chancre occur after an asymptomatic incubation period of 10-90 days (average 21 days) after exposure. This chancre is a typically solitary (can be multiple), firm, painless, ulceration over the skin at the point of exposure to spirochete, seen on penis, vagina or rectum. It heals spontaneously after 4-6 weeks. Local lymphadenopathy can be seen.
      Diagnosis is made by microscopy of fluid from lesion using dark-field illumination, taking care to not confuse with other treponemal disease. Screening tests include rapid plasma regain (RPR) and Venereal Diseases Research Laboratory (VDRL) tests. False positives are known to occur with these tests and can be seen in viral infections like hepatitis, varicella, Epstein-Barr virus, tuberculosis, lymphoma, pregnancy and IV drug use. More specific tests should therefore be carried out in case these screening tests are positive. The Treponema pallidum hemagglutination assay (TPHA) and the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTAABS) test are based on monoclonal antibodies and immunofluorescence and are more specific. However, they can too show false positives with other treponemal diseases like yaws or pinta. Other confirmatory tests include those based on enzyme-linked immunoassays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 36 year old opera singer is admitted for a right thyroid lobectomy....

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old opera singer is admitted for a right thyroid lobectomy. Post operatively, he is unable to sing high notes. Which muscle is likely to demonstrate impaired function?

      Your Answer: Posterior cricoarytenoid

      Correct Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      Thyroidectomy has been reported as the most frequent cause of external branch of superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) injury.
      Diagnosis of EBSLN injury may be difficult because the symptoms are nonspecific in many cases. However, advanced diagnostic techniques have revealed the incidence to be relatively high, ranging from 5 to 28%. Paralysis of the EBSLN causes difficulty with high pitch phonation and decreased pitch range secondary to failure of cricothyroid muscle stimulation and lack of tension in the vocal cord. This symptom may be extremely serious for professional voice users. EBSLN injury can also cause vocal fatigue, hoarseness, breathy sounding voice, and vocal nodules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 38 year-old man falls on an outstretched hand. X-rays indicate an anterior...

    Correct

    • A 38 year-old man falls on an outstretched hand. X-rays indicate an anterior dislocation of one of the carpal bones. Which carpal bone is most commonly dislocated?

      Your Answer: Lunate

      Explanation:

      The scaphoid bone is the most commonly fractured carpal bone and has an increased risk of avascular necrosis.
      The lunate is the most commonly dislocated carpal bone. The displaced bone may compress the median nerve in the carpal tunnel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The gluteus medius muscle: ...

    Correct

    • The gluteus medius muscle:

      Your Answer: Is supplied by the superior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      The gluteus medius is situated on the outer surface of the pelvis. It arises from the outer surface of the ilium between the iliac crest and posterior gluteal line above and the anterior gluteal line below. The gluteus medius is supplied by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerves through the superior gluteal nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 46 year old man had an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and biopsies done...

    Incorrect

    • A 46 year old man had an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and biopsies done which were reported by two gastrointestinal pathologists as being ‘indefinite for dysplasia.’ Repeat endoscopy and biopsies were repeated 6 months after completing treatment with proton pump inhibitors. The results revealed no definite evidence of dysplasia. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: No further surveillance

      Correct Answer: Routine surveillance every 2–3 years

      Explanation:

      This patient had endoscopy and biopsy done by different doctors and proton pump inhibitor therapy followed by repeat endoscopy and biopsy six months later which had no definite evidence of dysplasia.

      British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) guidelines state that for patients with Barrett’s oesophagus (BO) but without dysplasia, the recommended surveillance protocols are two yearly, four quadrant biopsies every 2 cm, but jumbo biopsies are not required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 55 year old man undergoes a live donor related renal transplant. He...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old man undergoes a live donor related renal transplant. He has noticed that over the past few years following the transplant, his renal function has progressively deteriorated. What is the most likely underlying explanation?

      Your Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Transplantation is a process by which cells, tissues, or organs (a graft) from the donor are transplanted into a host (or recipient). The immune system’s ability to recognize and respond to foreign antigens bring challenges to transplantation.
      Type IV hypersensitivity is characterized by cell-mediated response rather than antibodies as in other types of hypersensitivity reactions. Specifically, the T lymphocytes are involved in the development of the sensitivity, hence called cell-mediated hypersensitivity.
      After exposure to antigens, through a series of biochemical events, the T-cells will be activated. By releasing some chemicals, the T-cells activate other white blood cells to mount an immune response.
      Rejection of transplant occurs months to years later. In chronic rejection, there is intimal fibrosis with vascular thickening, leading to ischemic changes. Mononuclear infiltrates with prominent plasma cells are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Organ Transplantation
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old male presents with a discharging sinus in his nasal cleft. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents with a discharging sinus in his nasal cleft. He is found to have a pilonidal sinus. Which statement is false?

      Your Answer: Can occur in webs of fingers and the axilla

      Correct Answer: In a patient with an acute abscess the Bascoms procedure is the treatment of choice.

      Explanation:

      Typical pilonidal sinus disease (PSD) occurs in the natal cleft i.e. sacrococcygeal region.
      However, some occupation related pilonidal sinuses occurs in webs of fingers e.g. hairdresser, sheep shearer, dog groomer, slaughterman or milker.
      Other locations where pilonidal sinuses may occur include penis shaft, axilla, intermammary area, groin, nose, neck, clitoris, suprapubic area, occiput, prepuce, chin, periungual region, breast, face and umbilicus.

      Although the pilonidal disease may manifest as an abscess, a pilonidal sinus, a recurrent or chronic pilonidal sinus, or a perianal pilonidal sinus, the most common manifestation of pilonidal disease is a painful, fluctuant mass in the sacrococcygeal region.
      Initially, 50% of patients first present with a pilonidal abscess that is cephalad to the hair follicle and sinus infection. Pain and purulent discharge from the sinus tract is present 70-80% of the time and are the two most frequently described symptoms. In the early stages preceding the development of an abscess, only cellulitis or folliculitis is present. The abscess is formed when a folliculitis expands into the subcutaneous tissue or when a pre-existing foreign body granuloma becomes infected.
      The diagnosis of a pilonidal sinus can be made by identifying the epithelialized follicle opening, which can be palpated as an area of deep induration beneath the skin in the sacral region. These tracts most commonly run in the cephalad direction. When the tract runs in the caudal direction, perianal sepsis may be present.

      The ideal treatment for a pilonidal sinus varies according to the clinical presentation of the disease. First, it is important to divide the pilonidal disease into the following three categories, which represent different stages of the clinical course:
      – Acute pilonidal abscess
      – Chronic pilonidal disease
      – Complex or recurrent pilonidal disease

      Acute pilonidal abscess:
      A pilonidal abscess is managed by incision, drainage, and curettage of the abscess cavity to remove hair nests and skin debris. This can be accomplished in the surgical office or the emergency department, using local anaesthesia.
      If possible, the drainage incision should be made laterally, away from the midline. Wounds heal poorly in the deep, intergluteal natal cleft, for two reasons. The first is the frictional motion of the deep cleft, which creates continuous irritation to the healing wound; the second is the midline nature of the wound, which is a product of constant lateral traction during sitting.

      Chronic pilonidal disease is the term applied when patients have undergone at least one pilonidal abscess drainage procedure and continue to have a pilonidal sinus tract. The term also refers to a pilonidal sinus that is associated with a chronic discharge without an acute abscess. Surgical options for management of a noncomplicated chronic pilonidal sinus include the following:
      Excision and laying open of the sinus tract
      Excision with primary closure
      Wide and deep excision to the sacrum
      Incision and marsupialization
      Bascom procedure
      Asymmetrical incisions
      Skin flaps have also been described to cover a sacral defect after wide excision. Similarly, this keeps the scar off the midline and flattens the natal cleft.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?...

    Correct

    • Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?

      Your Answer: Fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Under basal conditions, most of the energy needed by cardiac muscle for metabolism is derived from fats (60%), 35% by carbohydrates, and 5% by ketones and amino acids. However, after intake of large amounts of glucose, lactate and pyruvate are mainly used. During prolonged starvation, fat acts as the primary source. 50% of the used lipids are sourced from circulating fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      3.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Oncology (0/1) 0%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (0/1) 0%
Basic Sciences (17/21) 81%
Pathology (7/10) 70%
Physiology (4/4) 100%
Colorectal Surgery (2/3) 67%
Generic Surgical Topics (5/8) 63%
Anatomy (6/7) 86%
Vascular (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Head And Neck Surgery (0/1) 0%
Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery (0/1) 0%
Organ Transplantation (1/1) 100%
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