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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital after collapsing while shopping. During her inpatient investigations, she underwent cardiac catheterisation. The results of the procedure are listed below, including oxygen saturation levels, pressure measurements, and end systolic/end diastolic readings at various anatomical sites.
- Superior vena cava: 75% oxygen saturation, no pressure measurement available
- Right atrium: 73% oxygen saturation, 6 mmHg pressure
- Right ventricle: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/8 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Pulmonary artery: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/12 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 18 mmHg
- Left ventricle: 98% oxygen saturation, 219/18 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Aorta: 99% oxygen saturation, 138/80 mmHg pressure
Based on these results, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Aortic Stenosis
There is a significant difference in pressure (81 mmHg) between the left ventricle and the aortic valve, indicating a critical case of aortic stenosis. Although hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) can also cause similar pressure differences, the patient’s age and clinical information suggest that aortic stenosis is more likely.
To determine the severity of aortic stenosis, the valve area and mean gradient are measured. A valve area greater than 1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient less than 25 mmHg indicate mild aortic stenosis. A valve area between 1.0-1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient between 25-50 mmHg indicate moderate aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 1.0 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 50 mmHg indicate severe aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 0.7 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 80 mmHg indicate critical aortic stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP and mentions her diagnosis of heart failure. She expresses interest in learning about medications that can potentially decrease mortality in heart failure. Which drug has been proven to have this effect?
Your Answer: Atenolol
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Common Medications for Heart Failure: Benefits and Limitations
Heart failure is a chronic condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there is no cure for heart failure, medications can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Here are some common medications used in the treatment of heart failure, along with their benefits and limitations.
Spironolactone: Recent trials have shown that spironolactone can reduce mortality in severe heart failure. This drug works by antagonizing the deleterious effects of aldosterone on cardiac remodeling, rather than its diuretic effect.
Simvastatin: While statins are effective in reducing morbidity and mortality in patients with coronary artery disease, their beneficial effects in heart failure remain inconclusive.
Atenolol: Atenolol has not been shown to be effective in reducing mortality in heart failure and is not used as part of the condition’s management. However, certain beta-blockers like carvedilol, metoprolol, or bisoprolol are recommended in patients who have been stabilized on diuretic and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE-I) therapy.
Furosemide: Furosemide is a mainstay in the treatment of both acute and long-term heart failure, particularly for relieving symptoms of fluid overload. However, there is little data to prove that it improves long-term mortality in patients with chronic congestive cardiac failure (CCF).
Digoxin: Digoxin does not decrease mortality in heart failure. Its use is reserved for patients in atrial fibrillation and those who cannot be controlled on an ACE-I, beta-blocker, and loop diuretic. Some studies suggest a decreased rate in CHF-related hospital admissions.
In conclusion, while these medications can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life in heart failure patients, their limitations should also be considered. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman presents to the Cardiology clinic with a heart murmur. During the physical exam, the patient exhibits a collapsing pulse. Upon auscultation, a 2/5 early diastolic murmur is heard at the lower left sternal edge, which is more pronounced during expiration.
What is the most probable clinical sign that will be observed?Your Answer: Tapping apex
Correct Answer: Corrigan’s sign
Explanation:Cardiac Signs and Their Associated Conditions
Corrigan’s Sign: This sign is characterized by an abrupt distension and collapse of the carotid arteries, indicating aortic incompetence. It is often seen in patients with a collapsing pulse and an early diastolic murmur, which are suggestive of aortic regurgitation. A wide pulse pressure may also be found.
Malar Flush: Mitral stenosis is associated with malar flush, a mid-diastolic murmur, loudest at the apex when the patient is in the left lateral position, and a tapping apex. A small-volume pulse is also typical.
Tapping Apex: A tapping apex is a classical sign of mitral stenosis.
Pulsatile Hepatomegaly: Severe tricuspid regurgitation can cause reverse blood flow to the liver during systole, resulting in pulsatile hepatomegaly.
Clubbing: Clubbing is more commonly seen in lung pathology and is unlikely to present in aortic regurgitation. It is seen in congenital cyanotic heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath, tiredness, intermittent chest pain and leg swelling for the last 6 months. His past medical history includes hypertension, gout and a previous myocardial infarction 5 years ago. His current medications are as follows:
diltiazem 60 mg orally (po) twice daily (bd)
spironolactone 100 mg po once daily (od)
allopurinol 100 mg po od
paracetamol 1 g po four times daily (qds) as required (prn)
lisinopril 20 mg po od.
Given this man’s likely diagnosis, which of the above medications should be stopped?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Diltiazem
Explanation:Medications for Heart Failure: Uses and Contraindications
Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can treat angina and hypertension, but it should be stopped in patients with chronic heart disease and heart failure due to its negative inotropic effects.
Spironolactone can alleviate leg swelling and is one of the three drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure, along with ACE inhibitors and β-blockers.
Allopurinol is safe to use in heart failure patients as it is used for the prevention of gout and has no detrimental effect on the heart.
Paracetamol does not affect the heart and is safe to use in heart failure patients.
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and angina, and stopping it can worsen heart failure. It is also one of the three drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure. The mechanism by which ACE inhibitors reduce mortality is not fully understood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with ischaemic heart disease presents with sudden onset palpitations. She has no other complaints. On examination, a regular tachycardia is present. Her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg. Chest is clear. ECG reveals a regular tachycardia with a QRS width of 80 ms and a rate of 149 beats per min in a sawtooth pattern.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Fast atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: Atrial flutter
Explanation:Common Cardiac Arrhythmias: Types and Characteristics
Cardiac arrhythmias are abnormal heart rhythms that can cause serious health complications. Here are some common types of cardiac arrhythmias and their characteristics:
1. Atrial Flutter: A type of supraventricular tachycardia that is characterized by a sawtooth pattern on the ECG. It is caused by a premature electrical impulse in the atrium and can degenerate into atrial fibrillation. Treatment involves rate or rhythm control, and electrical cardioversion is more effective than in atrial fibrillation.
2. Fast Atrial Fibrillation: Another type of supraventricular tachycardia that presents as an irregularly irregular tachycardia.
3. Ventricular Tachycardia: A common arrhythmia in cardiopaths that is characterized by a wide-complex tachycardia on ECG.
4. Mobitz Type II: A form of second-degree heart block that is characterized by intermittent non-conducted P waves on ECG without progressive prolongation of the QRS interval.
5. Brugada Syndrome: A rare electrophysiological condition that causes sudden death in young adults. ECG findings usually show ST elevation in leads V1 to V3 with a right bundle branch block.
It is important to identify and treat cardiac arrhythmias promptly to prevent serious health complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of palpitations. Upon examination, her pulse rate is found to be 180 bpm and she appears warm and well perfused. Her blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, respiratory rate is 20/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on air. Chest auscultation reveals no signs of cardiac failure, but an ECG shows a narrow complex tachycardia. Despite attempts at carotid massage and Valsalva manoeuvre, the rhythm disturbance persists. What is the appropriate initial management?
Your Answer: IV adenosine
Explanation:Management of Narrow Complex Supraventricular Tachycardia
When a patient presents with narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia, the initial management would be to administer IV adenosine, provided there are no contraindications such as asthma. This medication creates a transient conduction delay, which may terminate the tachycardia or slow down the heart rate enough to identify the underlying rhythm. This information is crucial in determining the optimal antiarrhythmic therapy for the patient.
However, if the patient experiences chest pain, hypotension, SBP <90 mmHg, or evidence of cardiac failure, then DC cardioversion would be necessary. It is important to note that if the patient is not haemodynamically compromised, IV adenosine is the preferred initial management for narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage this condition and provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old patient comes to her doctor for a routine check-up. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured in both arms, and the readings are as follows:
Right arm 152/100
Left arm 138/92
What should be the next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Confirm a diagnosis of hypertension and start the patient on ramipril
Correct Answer: Ask the patient to start ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
Explanation:Proper Management of High Blood Pressure Readings
In order to properly manage high blood pressure readings, it is important to follow established guidelines. If a patient displays a blood pressure of over 140/90 in one arm, the patient should have ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) in order to confirm the presence or lack of hypertension, in accordance with NICE guidelines.
It is important to note that a diagnosis of hypertension cannot be made from one blood pressure recording. However, if hypertension is confirmed, based upon the patients’ age, amlodipine would be the antihypertensive of choice.
When measuring blood pressure in both arms (as it should clinically be done), the higher of the two readings should be taken. Asking the patient to come back in one week to re-record blood pressure sounds reasonable, but it is not in accordance with the NICE guidelines.
Lastly, it is important to note that considering the patients’ age, ramipril is second line and should not be the first choice for treatment. Proper management of high blood pressure readings is crucial for the overall health and well-being of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and difficulty breathing. He had been hospitalized four weeks ago for acute coronary syndrome and was discharged on bisoprolol, simvastatin, aspirin, and ramipril. During the examination, a narrow complex tachycardia is observed. What is the absolute contraindication in this scenario?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Verapamil and Beta Blockers: A Dangerous Combination
Verapamil is a type of medication that blocks calcium channels in the heart, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and a slower heart rate. However, it also has negative effects on the heart’s ability to contract, making it a highly negatively inotropic drug. Additionally, it may impair the conduction of electrical signals between the atria and ventricles of the heart.
According to the British National Formulary (BNF), verapamil should not be given to patients who are already taking beta blockers. This is because the combination of these two drugs can lead to dangerously low blood pressure and even asystole, a condition where the heart stops beating altogether.
Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to carefully consider a patient’s medication history before prescribing verapamil. If a patient is already taking beta blockers, alternative treatments should be considered to avoid the potentially life-threatening consequences of combining these two drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old with cystic fibrosis was evaluated for cor pulmonale to determine eligibility for a deceased donor double-lung transplant.
What is the surface landmark used to identify right ventricular hypertrophy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fourth intercostal space, left parasternal area
Explanation:Anatomical Landmarks for Cardiac Examination
When examining the heart, it is important to know the anatomical landmarks for locating specific valves and ventricles. Here are some key locations to keep in mind:
1. Fourth intercostal space, left parasternal area: This is the correct location for examining the tricuspid valve and the right ventricle, particularly when detecting a right ventricular heave.
2. Second intercostal space, left parasternal area: The pulmonary valve can be found at this location.
3. Second intercostal space, right parasternal area: The aortic valve is located here.
4. Fourth intercostal space, right parasternal area: In cases of true dextrocardia, the tricuspid valve and a right ventricular heave can be found at this location.
5. Fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line: This is the location of the apex beat, which can be examined for a left ventricular heave and the mitral valve.
Knowing these landmarks can help healthcare professionals accurately assess and diagnose cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are called to see a 62-year-old man who has suddenly deteriorated after pacemaker insertion. He has sudden-onset shortness of breath and is cold and clammy. On examination, his blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, pulse 100 bpm and regular. His jugular venous pressure (JVP) is markedly elevated and his heart sounds are muffled. You give him oxygen and plasma volume expanders intravenously (iv).
Which of the following is the next most appropriate intervention?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prepare for pericardiocentesis
Explanation:Management of Cardiac Tamponade
Cardiac tamponade is a medical emergency that requires urgent intervention. The condition is characterized by a large amount of fluid in the pericardial sac, which can lead to compression of the heart and subsequent haemodynamic instability.
The first step in managing cardiac tamponade is to perform pericardiocentesis, which involves draining the fluid from the pericardial sac. Delaying this procedure can result in cardiac arrest and death.
While echocardiography can aid in diagnosis, it should not delay the initiation of pericardiocentesis. Similarly, a chest X-ray is not necessary for management. Swann-Ganz catheter insertion and inotropic support are also not recommended as they do not address the underlying cause of the condition.
In summary, prompt recognition and treatment of cardiac tamponade is crucial for patient survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A newborn baby is found to have a heart murmur that is later identified as Ebstein's anomaly. Is it possible that a medication taken by the mother during pregnancy could have played a role in causing this congenital heart defect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium Exposure During Pregnancy Linked to Ebstein’s Anomaly
Exposure to lithium during pregnancy has been found to be linked to the development of Ebstein’s anomaly in newborns. Ebstein’s anomaly is a rare congenital heart defect that affects the tricuspid valve, which separates the right atrium and right ventricle of the heart. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, and heart palpitations.
Studies have shown that women who take lithium during pregnancy are at an increased risk of having a child with Ebstein’s anomaly. Lithium is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder, and while it can be an effective treatment, it is important for women who are pregnant or planning to become pregnant to discuss the risks and benefits of taking lithium with their healthcare provider.
It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential risks associated with lithium use during pregnancy and to closely monitor pregnant women who are taking this medication. Early detection and treatment of Ebstein’s anomaly can improve outcomes for affected infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Cardiology Ward with acute left ventricular failure. The patient is severely short of breath.
What would be the most appropriate initial step in managing her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sit her up and administer high flow oxygen
Explanation:Managing Acute Shortness of Breath: Prioritizing ABCDE Approach
When dealing with acutely unwell patients experiencing shortness of breath, it is crucial to follow the ABCDE approach. The first step is to address Airway and Breathing by sitting the patient up and administering high flow oxygen to maintain normal saturations. Only then should Circulation be considered, which may involve cannulation and administering IV furosemide.
According to the latest NICE guidelines, non-invasive ventilation should be considered as part of non-pharmacological management if simple measures do not improve symptoms.
It is important to prioritize the ABCDE approach and not jump straight to administering medication or inserting a urinary catheter. Establishing venous access and administering medication should only be done after ensuring the patient’s airway and breathing are stable.
If the patient has an adequate systolic blood pressure, iv nitrates such as glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) infusion could be considered to reduce preload on the heart. However, most patients can be treated with iv diuretics, such as furosemide.
In cases of acute pulmonary edema, close monitoring of urine output is recommended, and the easiest and most accurate method is through catheterization with hourly urine measurements. Oxygen should be given urgently if the patient is short of breath.
In summary, managing acute shortness of breath requires a systematic approach that prioritizes Airway and Breathing before moving on to Circulation and other interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital with sudden central chest pain. An ECG is done and shows ST elevation, indicating an infarct on the inferior surface of the heart. The patient undergoes primary PCI, during which a blockage is discovered in a vessel located within the coronary sulcus.
What is the most probable location of the occlusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:Identifying the Affected Artery in a Myocardial Infarction
Based on the ECG findings of ST elevation in the inferior leads and the primary PCI result of an occlusion within the coronary sulcus, it is likely that the right coronary artery has been affected. The anterior interventricular artery does not supply the inferior surface of the heart and does not lie within the coronary sulcus. The coronary sinus is a venous structure and is unlikely to be the site of occlusion. The right (acute) marginal artery supplies a portion of the inferior surface of the heart but does not run within the coronary sulcus. Although the left coronary artery lies within the coronary sulcus, the ECG findings suggest an infarction of the inferior surface of the heart, which is evidence for a right coronary artery event.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset central crushing chest pain. The patient reports feeling pain in his neck and jaw as well. He has no significant medical history, but he does smoke socially and consumes up to 60 units of alcohol per week. An ECG is performed, revealing widespread ST elevation indicative of an acute coronary syndrome.
What is the earliest point at which the microscopic changes of acute MI become apparent?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12-24 hours after the infarct
Explanation:The Pathological Progression of Myocardial Infarction: A Timeline of Changes
Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, is a serious medical condition that occurs when blood flow to the heart is blocked, leading to tissue damage and potentially life-threatening complications. The pathological progression of myocardial infarction follows a predictable sequence of events, with macroscopic and microscopic changes occurring over time.
Immediately after the infarct occurs, there are usually no visible changes to the myocardium. However, within 3-6 hours, maximal inflammatory changes occur, with the most prominent changes occurring between 24-72 hours. During this time, coagulative necrosis and acute inflammatory responses are visible, with marked infiltration by neutrophils.
Between 3-10 days, the infarcted area begins to develop a hyperaemic border, and the process of organisation and repair begins. Granulation tissue replaces dead muscle, and dying neutrophils are replaced by macrophages. Disintegration and phagocytosis of dead myofibres occur during this time.
If a patient survives an acute infarction, the infarct heals through the formation of scar tissue. However, scar tissue does not possess the usual contractile properties of normal cardiac muscle, leading to contractile dysfunction or congestive cardiac failure. The entire process from coagulative necrosis to the formation of well-formed scar tissue takes 6-8 weeks.
In summary, understanding the timeline of changes that occur during myocardial infarction is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment. By recognising the macroscopic and microscopic changes that occur over time, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraception options, specifically the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has no medical history, is a non-smoker, and reports no symptoms of ill-health. During her check-up, her GP measures her blood pressure and finds it to be 168/96 mmHg, which is consistent on repeat testing and in both arms. Upon examination, her BMI is 24 kg/m2, her pulse is 70 bpm, femoral pulses are palpable, and there is an audible renal bruit. Urinalysis is normal, and blood tests reveal no abnormalities in full blood count, urea, creatinine, electrolytes, or thyroid function. What is the most conclusive test to determine the underlying cause of her hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium contrast of renal arteries
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
Secondary hypertension is a condition where high blood pressure is caused by an underlying medical condition. To diagnose the cause of secondary hypertension, various diagnostic tests are available. Here are some of the tests that can be done:
Magnetic Resonance Imaging with Gadolinium Contrast of Renal Arteries
This test is used to diagnose renal artery stenosis, which is the most common cause of secondary hypertension in young people, especially young women. It is done when a renal bruit is detected. Fibromuscular dysplasia, a vascular disorder that affects the renal arteries, is one of the most common causes of renal artery stenosis in young adults, particularly women.Echocardiogram
While an echocardiogram can assess for end-organ damage resulting from hypertension, it cannot provide the actual cause of hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta is unlikely if there is no blood pressure differential between arms.24-Hour Urine Cortisol
This test is done to diagnose Cushing syndrome, which is unlikely in this case. The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is exogenous steroid use, which the patient does not have. In addition, the patient has a normal BMI and does not have a cushingoid appearance on examination.Plasma Metanephrines
This test is done to diagnose phaeochromocytoma, which is unlikely in this case. The patient does not have symptoms suggestive of it, such as sweating, headache, palpitations, and syncope. Phaeochromocytoma is also a rare tumour, causing less than 1% of cases of secondary hypertension.Renal Ultrasound
This test is a less accurate method for assessing the renal arteries. Renal parenchymal disease is unlikely in this case as urinalysis, urea, and creatinine are normal.Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing a sudden loss of consciousness while grocery shopping. Upon examination, she is fully alert and appears to be in good health.
Her vital signs are normal, with a CBG of 5.8 mmol/l. However, her cardiovascular system shows an irregular, low volume heart rate of 90-110 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 145/120 mmHg while lying down and standing up. Her JVP is raised by 5 cm, and her apex beat is displaced to the mid-axillary line, with diffuse heart sounds. A loud pansystolic murmur is heard at the apex, radiating to the axilla and at the lower left sternal edge, along with a mid-diastolic rumble best heard at the apex. There are occasional bibasal crackles in her chest, which clear up with coughing. Additionally, she has mild peripheral edema up to the mid-calf.
Based on these clinical findings, what is the most likely cause of her collapse?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mixed mitral valve disease
Explanation:This patient exhibits features of mixed mitral valve disease, which can be challenging to diagnose due to contradictory signs. She has a mid-diastolic rumble, low-volume pulse, and atrial fibrillation, indicating mitral stenosis. However, she also has a displaced apex beat and a pan-systolic murmur, indicating mitral regurgitation. Mixed aortic valve disease is also common in these patients. Aortic stenosis and mixed aortic valve disease are unlikely diagnoses based on the clinical findings, while mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation alone do not fully explain the examination results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with rheumatic fever has ongoing shortness of breath following her infection. You suspect she may have mitral stenosis.
What is the most suitable surface anatomical landmark to listen for this murmur?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At the apex beat
Explanation:Surface Locations for Cardiac Auscultation
Cardiac auscultation is a crucial part of a physical examination to assess the heart’s function. The surface locations for cardiac auscultation are essential to identify the specific valve sounds. Here are the surface locations for cardiac auscultation:
1. Apex Beat: The mitral valve is best heard over the palpated apex beat. If it cannot be felt, then it should be assumed to be in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line.
2. Fifth Intercostal Space, Mid-Axillary Line: This location is too lateral to hear a mitral valve lesion in a non-dilated ventricle.
3. Second Intercostal Space, Left of the Sternum: The pulmonary valve is located in the second intercostal space, left of the sternum.
4. Fourth Intercostal Space, Left of the Sternum: The tricuspid valve is located in the fourth intercostal space, left of the sternum.
5. Xiphisternum: The xiphisternum is not used as a marker for cardiac auscultation, though it is used to guide echocardiography for certain standard views.
Knowing the surface locations for cardiac auscultation is crucial to identify the specific valve sounds and assess the heart’s function accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest tightness. His blood pressure is 200/105 mmHg and heart rate is 70 bpm. His femoral pulses cannot be felt. Echocardiography reveals cardiomegaly and a left-ventricular ejection fraction of 34%. The patient also has a N-terminal pro-brain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) of 25,000 pg/mL. As a result of the patient’s hypertension and high levels of NT-proBNP, he undergoes coronary angiography to exclude cardiac ischaemia. There is no evidence of myocardial ischaemia, but there are significant arterial findings.
Which of the following is most likely to be seen on coronary angiography of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stenotic arteries
Explanation:Differentiating Arterial Conditions: Understanding the Symptoms and Causes
When it comes to arterial conditions, it is important to understand the symptoms and causes in order to make an accurate diagnosis. Here, we will explore several potential conditions and how they may present in a patient.
Stenotic Arteries:
Coarctation of the aorta is a potential condition to consider in younger adults with poorly controlled hypertension. Symptoms may include weak or absent femoral pulses, heart failure, and left-ventricular hypertrophy. Angiography may reveal stenosis in the middle and proximal segments of the left anterior descending artery, as well as in the left circumflex artery.Thickened Arteries:
Atherosclerosis, or the build-up of plaque in the arteries, is a risk factor for heart attacks and stroke. However, it is unlikely to explain persistently high blood pressure or an absent femoral pulse.Aortic Aneurysm:
While chronic high blood pressure can increase the risk of an aortic aneurysm, sudden, intense chest or back pain is a more common symptom. Additionally, a patient with an aneurysm would likely have low blood pressure and an elevated heart rate, which is inconsistent with the vitals seen in this presentation.Calcified Arteries:
Calcification of arteries is caused by elevated lipid content and increases with age. While it can increase the risk of heart attack and stroke, it would not explain the absence of a femoral pulse or extremely high blood pressure.Patent Foramen Ovale:
This condition, which predisposes patients to paradoxical emboli, is typically diagnosed on an echocardiogram and is unlikely to cause hypertension. It should be considered in patients who have had a stroke before the age of 50.In summary, understanding the symptoms and causes of arterial conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient with hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central chest pain that feels heavy. The pain does not radiate, and there are no other risk factors for atherosclerosis. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are normal, including pulse, temperature, and oxygen saturation. The patient appears sweaty, but cardiovascular and respiratory exams are unremarkable. The patient experiences tenderness over the sternum at the site of the chest pain, and the resting electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient
Explanation:Management of Chest Pain in a Patient with Risk Factors for Cardiac Disease
Chest pain is a common presenting complaint in primary care and emergency departments. However, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with risk factors for cardiac disease. Here are some management strategies for a patient with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease:
Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient. A normal troponin assay would make a diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome unlikely, but further investigation may be required to determine if the patient has underlying coronary artery disease.
Do not discharge the patient with a diagnosis of costochondritis based solely on chest wall tenderness. This should only be used in low-risk patients with tenderness that accurately reproduces the pain they have been feeling on minimal palpation.
Do not discharge the patient if serial resting ECGs are normal. A normal ECG does not rule out an acute cardiac event.
Admit the patient to the Coronary Care Unit for monitoring and further assessment only if the 12-h troponin comes back elevated.
Do not discharge the patient and arrange an outpatient exercise tolerance test until further investigation has been done to rule out an acute cardiac event.
In summary, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease. Further investigation, such as a 12-h troponin assay, may be required before deciding on appropriate management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with worsening central crushing chest pain that only occurs during physical activity and never at rest. He is currently taking bisoprolol 20 mg per day, ramipril, omeprazole, glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), and atorvastatin. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence isosorbide mononitrate and arrange an outpatient angiogram
Explanation:Management of Stable Angina: Adding Isosorbide Mononitrate and Arranging Outpatient Angiogram
For a patient with stable angina who is already taking appropriate first-line medications such as bisoprolol and GTN, the next step in management would be to add a long-acting nitrate like isosorbide mononitrate. This medication provides longer-term vasodilation compared to GTN, which is only used when required. This can potentially reduce the frequency of angina symptoms.
An outpatient angiogram should also be arranged for the patient. While stable angina does not require an urgent angiogram, performing one on a non-urgent basis can provide more definitive management options like stenting if necessary.
Increasing the dose of ramipril or statin is not necessary unless there is evidence of worsening hypertension or high cholesterol levels, respectively. Overall, the management of stable angina should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of experiencing severe dizziness upon standing quickly. He is currently taking atenolol 100 mg OD for hypertension. Upon measuring his blood pressure while lying down and standing up, the readings are 146/88 mmHg and 108/72 mmHg, respectively. What is the main cause of his postural hypotension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impaired baroreceptor reflex
Explanation:Postural Hypotension
Postural hypotension is a common condition that affects many people, especially the elderly and those with refractory hypertension. When standing up, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs, causing a temporary drop in blood pressure. Baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus detect this change and trigger a sympathetic response, which includes venoconstriction, an increase in heart rate, and an increase in stroke volume. This response helps to restore cardiac output and blood pressure, usually before any awareness of hypotension. However, a delay in this response can cause dizziness and presyncope.
In some cases, the reflex response is partially impaired by medications such as beta blockers. This means that increased adrenaline release, decreased pH (via chemoreceptors), or pain (via a sympathetic response) can lead to an increase in blood pressure rather than a decrease. postural hypotension and its underlying mechanisms can help individuals manage their symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of headaches, particularly during times of stress or physical activity. She has no significant medical history. During her neurological exam, no abnormalities are found. However, a systolic murmur is heard along the length of her left sternal edge and spine. Her chest is clear and her blood pressure is 156/88 mmHg in her left arm and 104/68 mmHg in her left leg. An ECG reveals sinus rhythm with evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Coarctation of the Aorta and its Interventions
Coarctation of the aorta is a condition where the aorta narrows, usually distal to the left subclavian artery. This can cause an asymptomatic difference in upper and lower body blood pressures and can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy. The severity of the restriction varies, with severe cases presenting early with cardiac failure, while less severe cases can go undiagnosed into later childhood.
Interventions for coarctation of the aorta include stenting, excision and graft placement, and using the left subclavian artery to bypass the coarctation. An atrial septal defect and hypertrophic occlusive cardiomyopathy would not cause a blood pressure difference between the upper and lower body. Stress headaches and a flow murmur are not appropriate diagnoses for a child with hypertension, which should be thoroughly investigated for an underlying cause.
In contrast, transposition of the great arteries is a major cyanotic cardiac abnormality that presents in infancy. It is important to diagnose and treat coarctation of the aorta to prevent complications such as left ventricular hypertrophy and cardiac failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism experiences a collapse during her yoga class. She has been reporting occasional chest pains and difficulty breathing during exercise in the past few weeks. During her physical examination, an ejection systolic murmur is detected at the right upper sternal edge, and her second heart sound is faint. Additionally, she has a slow-rising pulse. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve
Explanation:Differentiating Aortic and Mitral Valve Disorders
When evaluating a patient with a heart murmur, it is important to consider the characteristics of the murmur and associated symptoms to determine the underlying valve disorder. In a patient under 70 years old, a slow-rising and weak pulse with a history of collapse is indicative of critical stenosis caused by a bicuspid aortic valve. On the other hand, calcific aortic stenosis is more common in patients over 70 years old and presents differently. Aortic valve regurgitation is characterized by a murmur heard during early diastole and a collapsing pulse, but it is less likely to cause syncope. Mitral valve regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex with a laterally displaced apex beat, but it may present with congestive heart failure rather than syncope or angina. Mitral valve prolapse may cause a mid-systolic click, but a pan-systolic murmur at the apex may be present if there is coexisting mitral regurgitation. By understanding the unique features of each valve disorder, clinicians can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea that has lasted for four days. He has been unable to keep down any fluids and is dehydrated, so he is started on an intravenous infusion. Upon investigation, his potassium level is found to be 2.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9). What ECG abnormality would you anticipate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: S-T segment depression
Explanation:Hypokalaemia and Hyperkalaemia
Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. This can be caused by excess loss of potassium from the gastrointestinal or renal tract, decreased oral intake of potassium, alkalosis, or insulin excess. Additionally, hypokalaemia can be seen if blood is taken from an arm in which IV fluid is being run. The characteristic ECG changes associated with hypokalaemia include S-T segment depression, U-waves, inverted T waves, and prolonged P-R interval.
On the other hand, hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. This can be caused by kidney failure, medications, or other medical conditions. The changes that may be seen with hyperkalaemia include tall, tented T-waves, wide QRS complexes, and small P waves.
It is important to understand the causes and symptoms of both hypokalaemia and hyperkalaemia in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions. Regular monitoring of potassium levels and ECG changes can help in the management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman with a history of two episodes of pneumothorax over the last 12 months was found to have ectopia lentis, during a recent examination by an ophthalmologist. It is noted that she has pectus excavatum, pes planus, a high arched palate and a positive wrist and thumb sign.
What is the likely finding from her echocardiogram?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dilated aortic root
Explanation:Cardiovascular Conditions and Marfan Syndrome
Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue and can lead to various cardiovascular conditions. One of the most common complications is aortic aneurysm, which occurs when the ascending aorta becomes dilated and can result in acute aortic dissection. Additionally, the stretching of the aortic valve annulus can cause aortic regurgitation. Marfan syndrome is caused by a mutation in the FBN1 gene and can be differentiated from other connective tissue disorders such as Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, pseudoxanthoma elasticum, and homocystinuria.
Aortic valve stenosis, on the other hand, is not associated with Marfan syndrome and is caused by either senile calcific degeneration or a congenital bicuspid aortic valve. Coarctation of the aorta is associated with Turner syndrome and presents with hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities. Ventricular septal defects and Ebstein’s anomaly are also not associated with Marfan syndrome.
In summary, Marfan syndrome can lead to various cardiovascular complications, and it is important to differentiate it from other connective tissue disorders and understand the associated conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with atrial fibrillation visited the Cardiology Clinic for electrophysiological ablation. What is the least frequent pathological alteration observed in atrial fibrillation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fourth heart sound
Explanation:Effects of Atrial Fibrillation on the Heart
Atrial fibrillation is a condition characterized by irregular and rapid heartbeats. This condition can have several effects on the heart, including the following:
Fourth Heart Sound: In conditions such as hypertensive heart disease, active atrial contraction can cause active filling of a stiff left ventricle, leading to the fourth heart sound. However, this sound cannot be heard in atrial fibrillation.
Apical-Radial Pulse Deficit: Ineffective left ventricular filling can lead to cardiac ejections that cannot be detected by radial pulse palpation, resulting in the apical-radial pulse deficit.
Left Atrial Thrombus: Stasis of blood in the left atrial appendage due to ineffective contraction in atrial fibrillation is the main cause of systemic embolisation.
Reduction of Cardiac Output by 20%: Ineffective atrial contraction reduces left ventricular filling volumes, leading to a reduction in stroke volume and cardiac output by up to 20%.
Symptomatic Palpitations: Palpitations are the most common symptom reported by patients in atrial fibrillation.
Overall, atrial fibrillation can have significant effects on the heart and may require medical intervention to manage symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man with heart failure and depression is discovered to have a sodium level of 130. He is not experiencing any symptoms, and his heart failure and depression are under control. He has slight pitting pedal oedema. He is currently taking ramipril, bisoprolol, simvastatin and citalopram.
What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Restrict his fluid input to 1.5 l/day and recheck in 3 days
Explanation:Managing Hyponatraemia: Considerations and Options
Hyponatraemia, a condition characterized by low serum sodium levels, requires careful management to avoid potential complications. The first step in treating hyponatraemia is to restrict fluid intake to reverse any dilution and address the underlying cause. Administering saline should only be considered if fluid restriction fails, as treating hyponatraemia too quickly can lead to central pontine myelinolysis.
In cases where hyponatraemia is caused by medication, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it may be necessary to adjust or discontinue the medication. However, abrupt discontinuation of SSRIs can cause withdrawal symptoms, so patients should be gradually weaned off over several weeks or months.
It is also important to consider other factors that may contribute to hyponatraemia, such as heart failure or hypokalaemia. However, administering intravenous saline or increasing salt intake may not be appropriate in all cases and could worsen underlying conditions.
Overall, managing hyponatraemia requires careful consideration of the underlying cause and potential treatment options to avoid complications and promote optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath three weeks after a myocardial infarction that was treated with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) for a proximal left anterior descending artery occlusion. On examination, he has a loud friction rub over the praecordium, bilateral pleural effusions on chest x-ray, and ST elevation on ECG. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dressler's syndrome
Explanation:Dressler’s Syndrome
Dressler’s syndrome is a type of pericarditis that typically develops between two to six weeks after a person has experienced an anterior myocardial infarction or undergone heart surgery. This condition is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response to myocardial antigens. In simpler terms, the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the heart tissue, leading to inflammation of the pericardium, which is the sac that surrounds the heart.
The symptoms of Dressler’s syndrome can vary from person to person, but they often include chest pain, fever, fatigue, and shortness of breath. In some cases, patients may also experience a cough, abdominal pain, or joint pain. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) to reduce inflammation and manage pain. In severe cases, corticosteroids may be prescribed to help suppress the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are urgently requested to assess a 23-year-old male who has presented to the Emergency department after confessing to consuming 14 units of alcohol and taking 2 ecstasy tablets tonight. He is alert and oriented but is experiencing palpitations. He denies any chest pain or difficulty breathing.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 180 beats per minute, regular rhythm, blood pressure of 115/80 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed and reveals an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (SVT).
What would be your first course of action in terms of treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vagal manoeuvres
Explanation:SVT is a type of arrhythmia that occurs above the ventricles and is commonly seen in patients in their 20s with alcohol and drug use as precipitating factors. Early evaluation of ABC is important, and vagal manoeuvres are recommended as the first line of treatment. Adenosine is the drug of choice if vagal manoeuvres fail, and DC cardioversion is required if signs of decompensation are present. Amiodarone is not a first-line treatment for regular narrow complex SVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath on exertion, and reports that she sleeps on three pillows at night to avoid shortness of breath. Past medical history of note includes two recent transient ischaemic attacks which have resulted in transient speech disturbance and minor right arm weakness. Other non-specific symptoms include fever and gradual weight loss over the past few months. On auscultation of the heart you notice a loud first heart sound, and a plopping sound in early diastole. General examination also reveals that she is clubbed.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 6.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 101 g/dl
(normochromic normocytic) 115–155 g/l
Platelets 195 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 11.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 85 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Chest X-ray Unusual intra-cardiac calcification
within the left atrium
Which of the following fits best with the likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left atrial myxoma
Explanation:Cardiac Conditions: Differentiating Left Atrial Myxoma from Other Pathologies
Left atrial myxoma is a cardiac condition characterized by heart sounds, systemic embolization, and intracardiac calcification seen on X-ray. Echocardiography is used to confirm the diagnosis, and surgery is usually curative. However, other cardiac pathologies can present with similar symptoms, including rheumatic heart disease, mitral stenosis, mitral regurgitation, and infective endocarditis. It is important to differentiate between these conditions to provide appropriate treatment. This article discusses the key features of each pathology to aid in diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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