-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 79-year-old male had a humeral shaft fracture during a road traffic accident and is being followed up in a fracture clinic. He complains of inability to use the limb 6 months after the injury. X-rays of that arm shows non union of his fracture.All the following are responsible for this non-union EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Osteoporosis
Explanation:An imbalance between bone resorption and formation is Osteoporosis. In normal bone, formation and resorption are roughly equal, and the density of bone matrix remains constant but there is more resorption in osteoporosis and the matrix density reduces and bones become weaker. Fractures are more likely to occur but healing is unaffected. Non-union of a fracture occurs when the two sides of a fracture fail to unite after 6 months. Causes include: infection, movement at the fracture site, avascular necrosis, tissue interposed between the fracture and gross misalignment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 39-year-old man who is suffering from a bacterial infection require antibiotic treatment. You need to figure out which antibiotic is most suitable. Listed below are antimicrobial drugs. Which one is a nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin and other quinolone antibiotics work by blocking DNA gyrase, an enzyme that compresses bacterial DNA into supercoils, as well as a type II topoisomerase, which is required for bacterial DNA separation. As a result, they prevent nucleic acid synthesis.The following is a summary of the many modes of action of various types of antimicrobial agents:Action Mechanisms-Â Examples:Cell wall production is inhibitedVancomycinVancomycinCephalosporinsThe function of the cell membrane is disrupted NystatinPolymyxinsAmphotericin BÂ Inhibition of protein synthesisChloramphenicolMacrolidesAminoglycosidesTetracyclinesNucleic acid synthesis inhibitionQuinolonesTrimethoprimRifampicin5-nitroimidazolesSulphonamidesAnti-metabolic activityIsoniazid
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration is 1246 pg/mL.Glucagon INHIBITS which of the following processes? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Lipolysis
Correct Answer: Glycolysis
Explanation:Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline. Glucagon then causes:GlycogenolysisGluconeogenesisLipolysis in adipose tissueThe secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:AdrenalineCholecystokininArginineAlanineAcetylcholineThe secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:InsulinSomatostatinIncreased free fatty acidsIncreased urea productionGlycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 23 year old woman has noticed her skin seems to have a yellow tinge and presents to the emergency room. On examination she is found to have jaundice and mild splenomegaly, and blood tests show that her Hb is 79 g/L. She only takes one regular medication. The medication that is most likely to cause haemolytic anaemia is:
Your Answer: Mefenamic acid
Explanation:Mefenamic acid is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is used short-term (7 days or less) to treat mild to moderate pain in adults and children who are at least 14 years old. Mefenamic acid is also used to treat menstrual pain. It has only minor anti-inflammatory properties and has occasionally been associated with diarrhoea and haemolytic anaemia. If these occur, treatment should be discontinued.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 29 year old patient with known inflammatory bowel disease presents to ED with surgical complications following his recent ileocaecal resection. Removal of the terminal ileum may result in the malabsorption of which of the following:
Your Answer: Vitamin B12
Explanation:On ingestion, vitamin B12 is bound to R protein found in saliva and gastric secretions, which protects it from digestion in the stomach. Intrinsic factor is secreted by gastric parietal cells. Receptors for the IF-B12 complex are present in the membrane of epithelial cells of the terminal ileum, which bind the complex and allow uptake of vitamin B12 across the apical membrane by endocytosis. Vitamin B12 is then transported across the basal membrane into the portal blood where it is bound to transcobalamin II and processed by the liver. In pernicious anaemia, there are autoantibodies against gastric parietal cells and intrinsic factor, resulting in vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Regarding Campylobacter gastroenteritis, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: It most commonly follows ingestion of uncooked poultry.
Correct Answer: Infection usually requires antibiotic treatment.
Explanation:Campylobacter jejuni is the primary human pathogen, typically causing dysentery (bloody diarrhoea illness) following ingestion of contaminated meat, especially poultry. Infection is typically self-limiting and does not require antibiotic therapy. Campylobacter gastroenteritis is associated with the immune-mediated complications of Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis and Reiter’s syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Regarding bicarbonate handling by the proximal tubule, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: About 50% of filtered bicarbonate is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.
Correct Answer: For each H + secreted into the lumen, one Na + and one HCO 3 - is reabsorbed into the plasma.
Explanation:About 80% of bicarbonate is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. HCO3-is not transported directly, tubular HCO3-associates with H+secreted by epithelial Na+/H+antiporters to form carbonic acid (H2CO3) which readily dissociates to form carbon dioxide and water in the presence of carbonic anhydrase. CO2and water diffuse into the tubular cells, where they recombine to form carbonic acid which dissociates to H+and HCO3-. This HCO3-is transported into the interstitium largely by Na+/HCO3-symporters on the basolateral membrane (and H+is secreted back into the lumen). For each H+secreted into the lumen, one Na+and one HCO3-are reabsorbed into the plasma. H+is recycled so there is little net secretion of H+at this stage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
Diabetic ketoacidosis is characterised by which of the following:
Your Answer: Hyperglycaemia, ketonaemia and acidosis
Explanation:DKA is characterised by the biochemical triad:1. Hyperglycaemia (> 11 mmol/L)2. Ketonaemia (> 3 mmol/L)3. Acidosis (pH < 7.3 +/- HCO3 < 15 mmol/L)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
What is the main mechanism of action of metoclopramide:
Your Answer: Serotonin-5HT3 antagonist
Correct Answer: Dopamine antagonist
Explanation:Metoclopramide is a dopamine-receptor antagonist. Blockade of inhibitory dopamine receptors in the GI tract may allow stimulatory actions of ACh at muscarinic synapses to predominate. Metoclopramide also blocks dopamine D2-receptors within the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ). At high doses, it is also thought to have some 5-HT3antagonist activity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
Blood flows from the left atrium into the left ventricle via:
Your Answer: The mitral valve
Explanation:Blood flows from the right atrium into the right ventricle via the tricuspid atrioventricular valve and from the left atrium into the left ventricle via the mitral atrioventricular valve. Blood is ejected from the right ventricle through the pulmonary semilunar valve into the pulmonary artery and from the left ventricle via the aortic semilunar valve into the aorta.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)