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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state after an episode of seizure on the street. Her husband who accompanied her into the ER reported that they argued about 6-7 hours ago. On examination, she is found to be hypertonic with a GCS of 8, BP: 90/60 mmHg and a pulse of 105 bpm. Blood investigations revealed a lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L. She was intubated and ventilated. Which of the following are the TWO interventions which are most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer: N saline should be started iv

      Correct Answer: Gastric lavage should be considered

      Explanation:

      Among the above statements, gastric lavage and normal saline IV infusion are the two appropriate interventions for a patient of acute lithium toxicity.

      Activated charcoal is not effective after lithium overdose, although gastric lavage should be considered if patients present within 6–8 h.
      Where levels are above 3 mmol/l, the use of normal saline to induce diuresis should be considered, although careful monitoring of fluid balance is necessary.
      Where levels of lithium are above 4 mmol/l, dialysis is often required. Haemodialysis is preferred, but in a facility where haemodialysis is not possible, peritoneal dialysis may be considered.
      Patients should not be discharged until they are asymptomatic and have a serum lithium level less than 1.5 mEq/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 51-year-old real estate agent takes hydrocortisone 20mg in the mornings and 5mg...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old real estate agent takes hydrocortisone 20mg in the mornings and 5mg at night for Addison’s disease. The endocrinology consultant would like her to take prednisolone instead. What dose of prednisolone should be started?

      Your Answer: 5 mg

      Correct Answer: 7 mg

      Explanation:

      1mg Prednisolone = 4mg hydrocortisone, so the actual equivalent daily dose is 7mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      82.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next day he finds that he feels excessively thirsty and is passing more urine than usual. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the polyuria due to excessive alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer: Osmotic diuresis induced by ethanol

      Correct Answer: Ethanol inhibits ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Ethanol reduces the calcium-dependent secretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) by blocking channels in the neurohypophyseal nerve terminal.
      Thus, ethanol’s inhibitory effect helps to explain the increased diuresis experienced during intoxicated states as well as increased free water loss; without appropriate ADH secretion, more water is excreted by the kidneys.

      Nausea associated with hangovers is mainly due to vagal stimulation to the vomiting centre.
      Following a particularly severe episode of alcohol excess, people may experience tremors due to increased glutamate production by neurons to compensate for the previous inhibition by ethanol.

      Management of alcoholism:
      Nutritional support:
      – Alcoholic patients should receive oral thiamine if their ‘diet may be deficient’.
      Pharmacological management:
      – Benzodiazepines for acute withdrawal
      – Disulfiram promotes abstinence – alcohol intake causes a severe reaction due to inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. Patients should be aware that even small amounts of alcohol (e.g. In perfumes, foods, mouthwashes) can produce severe symptoms. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease and psychosis.
      – Acamprosate reduces craving, known to be a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors, improves abstinence in placebo-controlled trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which...

    Correct

    • Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack

      Explanation:

      Initiation of allopurinol treatment during an attack can exacerbate and prolong the episode. Thus treatment should be delayed until the attack resolves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts in the distal convoluted tubule. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic that prevents the body from absorbing too much salt and keeps the potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to treat heart failure, high blood pressure (hypertension), or hypokalaemia (low potassium levels in the blood).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old male presents to the ER allegedly claiming that he consumed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents to the ER allegedly claiming that he consumed a bottle of antifreeze. Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be associated with this kind of poisoning?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Correct Answer: Loss of vision

      Explanation:

      Loss of vision after consumption of antifreeze is a characteristic presentation of methanol poisoning.

      Pathophysiology of methanol toxicity:
      When ingested, methanol is absorbed rapidly via the gastrointestinal tract in less than 10 minutes. Methanol is not protein-bound and is absorbed directly into the total body water compartment.
      Metabolism occurs mainly in the liver through serial oxidation via alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase but begins with alcohol dehydrogenase present in the gastric mucosa.
      Alcohol dehydrogenase oxidizes methanol to formaldehyde, and aldehyde dehydrogenase subsequently oxidizes formaldehyde to formic acid.
      Formic acid is the primary toxic metabolite that accounts for the associated anion gap metabolic acidosis and end-organ damage.

      Clinical presentation:
      Patients who present within the first 12 to 24 hours following ingestion may appear normal, and this is described as the latent period.
      Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain subsequently ensue, followed by CNS depression and hyperventilation due to metabolic acidosis.
      Ocular symptoms associated with retinal toxicity are often evident in the form of blurry vision, decreased visual acuity, photophobia, and “halo vision.”

      Treatment:
      Treatment options for methanol toxicity include supportive care, fomepizole (Antizole, 4-Methylpyrazole or 4MP), ethanol, dialysis, and folate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints of excessive weight gain. She is consuming oral contraceptive pills. Which among the following is the best alternative to valproate for treating long-term epilepsy?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Among the given anti-epileptics the best drug that can be given in this patient is lamotrigine.
      Topiramate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbital are all hepatic enzyme inducers and are associated with decreased effectiveness of the oral contraceptive (OCP) due to acceleration of the metabolism of oestrogens and progestogens.
      If she is planning on pregnancy then registry studies suggest that lamotrigine would also be the best choice.
      Other hepatic enzyme inducers include rifampicin, spironolactone, griseofulvin, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of 300 ml of diethylene glycol. Blood investigations were suggestive of metabolic acidosis and renal failure. What is the appropriate management in this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemodialysis and oral ethanol

      Explanation:

      Among the given options the most appropriate management in this patient would be ethanol and haemodialysis.

      Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreeze
      Features of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:
      Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)
      Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertension
      Stage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failure

      Management has changed in recent times:
      Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.
      Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.
      Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He...

    Correct

    • A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He is concerned that she may have taken an overdose of her mom's morphine sulphate pills after being depressed about her mother, who is dying of carcinoma of the breast. Which of the following may point towards his suspicion?

      Your Answer: Sweating

      Explanation:

      Excessive sweating points towards a morphine overdose.

      Morphine is considered the classic opioid analgesic with which other painkillers are compared. Like other medications in this class, morphine has an affinity for delta, kappa, and mu-opioid receptors.
      Most commonly used in pain management, morphine provides major relief to patients afflicted with pain.

      Among the more common adverse effects of morphine use is constipation. Other side effects include nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, and confusion. Psychological and physical dependence may occur.

      Other side effects include bronchospasm, angioedema, urinary retention, ureteric or biliary spasm, dry mouth, sweating, rash, facial flushing, vertigo, tachycardia, bradycardia, palpitations, orthostatic hypotension, hypothermia, restlessness, mood change, hallucinations, seizures (adults and children) and miosis, headache and allergic reactions (including anaphylaxis) and decreased libido or potency.

      Raised intracranial pressure occurs in some patients. Muscle rigidity may occur with high doses. Elevated liver enzymes may occur due to biliary sphincter constriction. Large doses can lead to respiratory depression, circulatory failure, and coma.

      Treatment of opioid overdose:
      Initial treatment of overdose begins with supportive care.
      Naloxone is a pure competitive antagonist of opiate receptors and has no agonistic activity. The drug is relatively safe and can be administered intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous or via the endotracheal tube.
      Alternatively, nalmefene and naltrexone maybe considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe breathlessness and tinnitus....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe breathlessness and tinnitus. She is under treatment for asthma and depression with albuterol and amitriptyline respectively. On examination, she seems agitated with a BP of 100/44, a pulse rate of 112 bpm, a respiratory rate of 30 cycles/min, and a temperature of 37.8'C. An arterial blood gas performed reveals: pH: 7.48 (7.36 – 7.44) pO2: 11.2 kPa (11.3 – 12.6 kPa) pCO2: 1.9 kPa (4.7 – 6.0 kPa) Bicarbonate: 13 mmol/l (20 – 28 mmol/L) What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Salicylate poisoning

      Explanation:

      The blood gas analysis provided above is suggestive of a mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis characteristic of salicylate overdose.

      Pathophysiology:
      The direct stimulation of the cerebral medulla causes hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis.
      As it is metabolized, it causes an uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria.
      Lactate levels then increase due to the increase in anaerobic metabolism. This, along with a slight contribution from the salicylate metabolites result in metabolic acidosis.

      Tinnitus is characteristic and salicylate ototoxicity may produce deafness. Other neurological sequelae include encephalopathy and agitation, seizures and CNS depression and coma. Cardiovascular complications include tachycardia, hypotension, and dysrhythmias (VT, VF, and asystole).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      76.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists. Which...

    Correct

    • Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists. Which of the following statements is true concerning organophosphate poisoning?

      Your Answer: Atropine is useful in the management of organophosphate poisoning

      Explanation:

      The principal action of organophosphates is the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase’s, therefore leading to the accumulation of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors (miosis, hypersalivation, sweating, diarrhoea, excessive bronchial secretions), nicotinic receptors (muscle fasciculations and tremor) and in the central nervous system (anxiety, loss of memory, headache, coma).

      Removal from the source of the organophosphate, adequate decontamination, supplemental oxygen and atropine are the initial treatment measures. Pralidoxime, an activator of cholinesterase, should be given to all symptomatic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      49.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old female admitted for a course of chemotherapy, has been taking high...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female admitted for a course of chemotherapy, has been taking high dose steroids for a few days. The nurses report that she is very agitated and talks about trying to open the window of her room and jump out from the fourth floor. You review her notes and see that she admits to drinking a few glasses of wine per week and has smoked cannabis on a few occasions. On examination her BP is 145/88 mmHg, her pulse is 80 bpm. Blood investigations reveal: Haemoglobin: 12.1 g/dL (11.5-16.5) WBC count: 16.2 x 103/dL (4-11) Platelets: 200 x 109/L (150-400) C-reactive protein: 9 nmol/l (<10) Sodium: 140 mmol/l (135-146) Potassium: 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5) Creatinine: 92 μmol/l (79-118) Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Corticosteroid-related psychosis

      Explanation:

      Agitation, hypomania and suicidal intent within a few days after initiating corticosteroid therapy is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of corticosteroid-induced psychosis.

      In some patients corticosteroid related psychosis has been diagnosed up to 12 weeks or more after commencing therapy.

      Euphoria and hypomania are considered to be the most common psychiatric symptoms reported during short courses of steroids.
      During long-term treatment, depressive symptoms were the most common.
      Higher steroid doses appear to carry an increased risk for such adverse effects; however, there is no significant relationship between dose and time to onset, duration, and severity of symptoms.

      Management: Reduction or cessation of corticosteroids is the mainstay of treatment for steroid psychosis. For those patients who cannot tolerate this reduction/cessation of steroids, mood stabilizers may be of some benefit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her friends following...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her friends following the consumption of an unknown drug whilst clubbing. Which of the following features point towards the use of ecstasy?

      Your Answer: Temperature of 39.5ºC

      Explanation:

      Hyperthermia (Temperature 39.5 C) points towards the use of ecstasy.

      MDMA (3,4 – methylenedioxymethamphetamine), or more commonly known as Molly or Ecstasy, is a synthetic psychoactive substance.
      Patients who consumed MDMA may present in a tachycardic, hypertensive, hyperthermic, and agitated state.
      Adverse effects, even at minor recreational doses, include increased muscle activity (such as bruxism, restless legs, and jaw clenching), hyperactivity, insomnia, difficulty concentrating and feelings of restlessness.

      Treatment of MDMA overdose:
      Emphasis should be on maintaining the airway along with the stabilization of breathing and circulation.
      Patients may present obtunded due to hyponatremia requiring endotracheal intubation.
      For the hyperthermic patient, evaporative cooling along with ice packs to the groin and axilla are beneficial.
      Patients who present in severe toxicity within one hour of ingestion can receive activated charcoal PO or via an NG tube.
      Antipyretics, such as acetaminophen, should be avoided as they have no role and can worsen an already compromised liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      164
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 24-year-old student is brought to A&E having ingested at least 20 tablets...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old student is brought to A&E having ingested at least 20 tablets of paracetamol 8 hours earlier. She weighs 61kg. What should her immediate management consist of?

      Your Answer: Intravenous N-acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is useful if given within one hour of the paracetamol overdose. Liver function tests, INR and prothrombin time will be normal, as liver damage may not manifest until 24 hours or more after ingestion.

      The antidote of choice is intravenous N-acetylcysteine, which provides complete protection against toxicity if given within 10 hours of the overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 34-year-old man was brought to the ER following a road-traffic-accident. An X-ray...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old man was brought to the ER following a road-traffic-accident. An X-ray of his left thigh revealed a fractured shaft of the left femur. He has a known history of opioid abuse. You are called to the ward to assess him after he becomes unwell. Which of the following clinical features are NOT compatible with a diagnosis of opioid withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Yawning

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, hypothermia is not a symptom of opioid withdrawal.

      Symptoms of opioid withdrawal include dysphoric mood, yawning, insomnia, muscle aches, lacrimation/rhinorrhoea, papillary dilatation, piloerection, fever, sweating, nausea/vomiting, diarrhoea.
      If the patient is having an opioid withdrawal reaction, then give 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait about 60 min to determine its effect.

      COWS (Clinical Opioid Withdrawal Scale) assessment for opioid withdrawal is commonly used to determine the severity of opioid withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd for pain relief. What dose of oral morphine solution should he be prescribed for breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: 5 mg

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      The total daily morphine dose is 30 x 2 = 60 mg. Therefore, the breakthrough dose should be one-sixth of this, 10 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of an unidentified substance. On examination, he was found to be bradycardic, hypotensive, hyper-salivating, and disoriented. On ocular examination, his pupils were found to be miotic. What is the most likely substance he ingested?

      Your Answer: An organophosphate insecticide

      Explanation:

      The farmer has most likely ingested an organophosphate insecticide.
      Organophosphorus compounds are used widely as:
      • Insecticides – Malathion, parathion, diazinon, dichlorvos
      • Nerve gases – Soman, sarin, tabun, VX
      • Ophthalmic agents – Echothiophate
      • Antihelmintics – Trichlorfon
      • Herbicides – merphos
      • Industrial chemical (plasticizer) – Tricresyl phosphate
      Signs and symptoms of Organophosphorus Poisoning (OPP) can be classified as:
      • Muscarinic effects:
      o Cardiovascular – Bradycardia, hypotension
      o Respiratory – Rhinorrhoea, bronchorrhea, bronchospasm, cough, severe respiratory distress
      o Gastrointestinal – Hypersalivation, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, faecal incontinence
      o Genitourinary – Incontinence
      o Ocular – Blurred vision, miosis
      o Glands – Increased lacrimation, diaphoresis
      • Nicotinic effects:
      o Muscle fasciculation, weakness, cramping, diaphragmatic failure, and autonomic side effects include: hypertension, tachycardia, and mydriasis.
      • Central nervous system (CNS) effects:
      o Anxiety, emotional lability, restlessness, confusion, ataxia, tremors, seizures, coma, apnoea
      Mainstay Treatment:
      • Decontamination
      • Securing Airway, Breathing and Circulation
      • Atropine
      • Pralidoxime
      • Benzodiazepines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide poisoning?

      Your Answer: Cherry red skin

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning:
      It is considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.

      Clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity:
      Headache: 90% of cases (most common clinical feature)
      Nausea and vomiting: 50%
      Vertigo: 50%
      Confusion: 30%
      Subjective weakness: 20%
      Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosa, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, death
      Cherry red skin is a sign of severe toxicity and is usually a post-mortem finding.
      Management
      • 100% oxygen
      • Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)

      The use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treatment mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.
      The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:
      • COHb levels > 20-25%
      • COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient
      • Loss of consciousness
      • Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)
      • Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with T1N1M1 malignancy in the left breast,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with T1N1M1 malignancy in the left breast, with metastases detectable in the lower thoracic vertebrae and the left lung. Before the initiation of treatment of this patient with trastuzumab, which is the most important investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Liver function tests

      Correct Answer: Echo

      Explanation:

      Before the initiation of trastuzumab, an echocardiography is a must to rule out any pre-existing cardiac abnormalities as trastuzumab is cardiotoxic.

      Trastuzumab (Herceptin) is a monoclonal antibody directed against the HER2/neu receptor. It is used mainly in metastatic breast cancer although some patients with early disease are now also given trastuzumab.

      Adverse effects include:
      Flu-like symptoms and diarrhoea are common.
      Cardiotoxicity:
      – Risk increases when anthracyclines are used concomitantly.
      – Trastuzumab-induced cardiac dysfunctions are regarded as less severe and largely reversible because primary cardiomyocyte do not show ultrastructure changes unlike those associated with anthracycline-induced cardiotoxicity.
      – Primary myocyte injury does not occur in patients who were treated with trastuzumab.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - β-blockers are used in the treatment of angina because they have which one...

    Correct

    • β-blockers are used in the treatment of angina because they have which one of the following properties?

      Your Answer: Decrease the heart rate and myocardial contractility

      Explanation:

      The cardiovascular effects of β-adrenoceptor block result from reduction of the sympathetic drive which includes reduced heart rate (automaticity) and reduced myocardial contractility (rate of rise of pressure in the ventricle). This will lead to reduced cardiac output and an overall fall in oxygen consumption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.3
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