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  • Question 1 - A 37 year old female is admitted after she vomited blood. An upper...

    Correct

    • A 37 year old female is admitted after she vomited blood. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is performed and a large ulcer in the first part of the duodenum is noted. Attempts are made to endoscopically clip and inject the ulcer which is bleeding profusely but they are unsuccessful. What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Laparotomy and underrunning of the ulcer

      Explanation:

      Ulcer bleeding stops spontaneously in about 80% of patients. Only a small percentage require specific measures to stop bleeding. surgery remains the most definitive method of controlling ulcer haemorrhage, and is indicated when endoscopic haemostasis fails to control the bleeding, or when rebleeding occurs. The morbidity and mortality of emergency surgery for ulcer bleeding is high. In principle, the operation performed should be the minimum compatible with permanent haemostasis. The choice of operations is determined by the site and size of the ulcer as well as the experience and preference of the surgeon. Most bleeding duodenal ulcers may be managed by underrunning the bleeding vessel together with vagotomy and pyloroplasty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 39 year old man presents with dysphagia, which he has had for...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old man presents with dysphagia, which he has had for several years. Medical history shows that he has achalasia and has had numerous dilatations. Over the past month, his dysphagia has worsened. At endoscopy, a friable mass is noted in the oesophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Barrett's oesophagus

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Achalasia is a rare neurological deficit of the oesophagus that produces an impaired relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter and decreased motility of the oesophageal body. Achalasia is generally accepted to be a pre-malignant disorder, since, particularly in the mega-oesophagus, chronic irritation by foods and bacterial overgrowth may contribute to the development of dysplasia and carcinoma.
      When oesophageal cancer develops in patients with underlying achalasia, diagnosis tends to be in the more advanced stages of cancer, compared to cases with no achalasia, because both physicians and patients often regard symptoms such as dysphagia and chest discomfort as attributable to the achalasia, rather than to other causes. Therefore, additional approaches that would lead to earlier diagnosis might be pursued less aggressively.
      Achalasia is a predisposing factor for oesophageal squamous cell carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      1000
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 46 year old man had an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and biopsies done...

    Correct

    • A 46 year old man had an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and biopsies done which were reported by two gastrointestinal pathologists as being ‘indefinite for dysplasia.’ Repeat endoscopy and biopsies were repeated 6 months after completing treatment with proton pump inhibitors. The results revealed no definite evidence of dysplasia. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Routine surveillance every 2–3 years

      Explanation:

      This patient had endoscopy and biopsy done by different doctors and proton pump inhibitor therapy followed by repeat endoscopy and biopsy six months later which had no definite evidence of dysplasia.

      British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) guidelines state that for patients with Barrett’s oesophagus (BO) but without dysplasia, the recommended surveillance protocols are two yearly, four quadrant biopsies every 2 cm, but jumbo biopsies are not required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32 year old man is brought to the emergency department in a...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old man is brought to the emergency department in a collapsed state with an episode of melaena. Previous history is significant for post prandial abdominal pain for 5 weeks and is usually worse after having a meal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Posterior duodenal ulcer

      Explanation:

      Duodenal ulcers are more common than gastric ulcers and unlike gastric ulcers, are caused by increased gastric acid secretion. Duodenal ulcers are commonly located anteriorly, and rarely posteriorly. Anterior ulcers can be complicated by perforation, while the posterior ones bleed. The reason for that is explained by their location. The peritoneal or abdominal cavity is located anterior to the duodenum. Therefore, if the ulcer grows deep enough, it will perforate, whereas if a posterior ulcer grows deep enough, it will perforate the gastroduodenal artery and bleed.
      Patients with duodenal ulcers will usually have a history of epigastric pain that occurs several hours after eating. The pain is often improved by eating food.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35 year old woman with dysphagia undergoes oesophageal manometry. She is found...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old woman with dysphagia undergoes oesophageal manometry. She is found to have a hypertensive lower oesophageal sphincter that does not completely relax on swallowing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Achalasia is a failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) to relax that is caused by the degeneration of inhibitory neurons within the oesophageal wall. It is classified as either primary (idiopathic) or secondary (in the context of another disease). In patients with achalasia, the chief complaint is dysphagia to both solids and liquids, although regurgitation, retrosternal pain, and weight loss may also occur. Upper endoscopy, barium esophagram, and oesophageal manometry play complementary roles in the diagnosis of achalasia. While upper endoscopy and/or barium esophagram are often obtained initially, manometry usually confirms the diagnosis, and upper endoscopy is indicated to rule out a malignant underlying cause. In good surgical candidates, achalasia is usually treated with pneumatic dilation or myotomy. In most other cases, an injection of botulinum toxin is attempted. If these measures fail to provide relief, medical therapy (e.g., nifedipine) is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30 year old man is diagnosed on oesophageal biopsies to have loss...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old man is diagnosed on oesophageal biopsies to have loss of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus. Which of the following would be the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Achalasia is an oesophageal motor disorder characterized by aperistalsis of the oesophageal body and lack of relaxation of the lower sphincter in response to swallows.
      Achalasia cardia is one of the common causes of motor dysphagia. Pathophysiologically, achalasia cardia is caused by loss of inhibitory ganglion in the myenteric plexus of the oesophagus. In the initial stage, degeneration of inhibitory nerves in the oesophagus results in unopposed action of excitatory neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine, resulting in high amplitude non-peristaltic contractions (vigorous achalasia); progressive loss of cholinergic neurons over time results in dilation and low amplitude simultaneous contractions in the oesophageal body (classic achalasia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 43 year old construction worker is rushed to the A&E department after...

    Correct

    • A 43 year old construction worker is rushed to the A&E department after complaining of chest pain after an episode of severe vomiting. He was found to be in shock. What would be his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Boerhaave’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Boerhaave syndrome refers to an oesophageal rupture secondary to forceful vomiting and retching. They are often associated with the clinical triad (Mackler’s triad) of vomiting, chest pain and subcutaneous emphysema. Other symptoms include epigastric pain, back pain, dyspnoea and shock. This condition was universally fatal before the age of surgery.

      Ideal management for Boerhaave syndrome involves a combination of both conservative and surgical interventions.

      Mainstays of therapy include the following:
      – Intravenous volume resuscitation
      – Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
      – Prompt endoscopic and/or surgical intervention

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A middle-aged man undergoes an upper gastrointestinal endoscope for a benign oesophageal stricture....

    Correct

    • A middle-aged man undergoes an upper gastrointestinal endoscope for a benign oesophageal stricture. During the procedure, he suffers an iatrogenic perforation at the site. Imaging shows a contained leak and a small amount of surgical emphysema. Which of the following is the most appropriate nutritional option?

      Your Answer: Total parenteral nutrition

      Explanation:

      Iatrogenic perforation of the gastrointestinal tract
      related to diagnostic or therapeutic endoscopy is
      a rare but severe adverse event, associated with
      significant morbidity and mortality

      Conservative treatment may be suitable for patients with limited oesophageal injury and contained leakage. Such patients include those suffering endoscopic iatrogenic perforation, as the patient is likely to be fasted and the diagnosis made promptly. They must remain nil by mouth, with appropriate antibiotic cover, and proton pump inhibitor therapy, total parenteral nutrition, and continued observation. Similarly, medical treatment might be suitable for cases of inoperable malignant stricture, that is, palliation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      200.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 33 year old morbidly obese women is considered for bariatric surgery. Which...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old morbidly obese women is considered for bariatric surgery. Which of the options provided below would most likely be associated with the highest long term failure rates?

      Your Answer: Intra gastric balloon

      Explanation:

      The intragastric balloon aids weight loss by slowing the rate at which food enters the stomach and by stimulating gastric stretch receptors. But lifestyle changes, including behaviour modification, exercise and a healthy diet, are crucial for maintaining weight loss once the device is removed. Intragastric balloon is really only suitable as a bridge to a more definitive surgical solution and is associated with a high failure rates and complications.

      Gastric banding: band applied to upper stomach which can be inflated or deflated with normal saline. This affects satiety. Over a 5 year period complications requiring further surgery occur in up to 15% cases.

      Roux-en-Y gastric bypass: a gastric pouch is formed and connected to the jejunum. Patients achieve greater and more long-term weight loss than gastric banding.

      Sleeve gastrectomy: body and fundus resected to leave a small section of stomach

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 33 year old woman presents with a complaint of dysphagia. She has...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old woman presents with a complaint of dysphagia. She has a ten year history of treatment refractory anaemia secondary to menorrhagia. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Plummer Vinson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia (IDA) is the most common form of anaemia worldwide and can be due to inadequate intake, decreased absorption (e.g., atrophic gastritis, inflammatory bowel disease), increased demand (e.g., during pregnancy), or increased loss (e.g., gastrointestinal bleeding, menorrhagia) of iron. Prolonged deficiency depletes the iron stores in the body, resulting in decreased erythropoiesis and anaemia.
      Symptoms are nonspecific and include fatigue, pallor, lethargy, hair loss, brittle nails, and pica. Diagnostic lab values include low haemoglobin, microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells on peripheral smear, and low ferritin and iron levels. Once diagnosed, the underlying cause should be determined. Patients at risk for underlying gastrointestinal malignancy should also undergo a colonoscopy.
      Iron deficiency anaemia is treated with oral (most common) or parenteral iron supplementation. Severe anaemia or those with concomitant cardiac conditions may also require blood transfusions. The underlying cause of IDA should also be corrected. IDA may manifest as Plummer-Vinson syndrome (PVS): triad of postcricoid dysphagia, upper oesophageal webs, and iron deficiency anaemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      4.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Generic Surgical Topics (9/10) 90%
Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery (9/10) 90%
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