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  • Question 1 - Which of the following stimulates the secretion of gastrin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following stimulates the secretion of gastrin?

      Your Answer: Amino acids

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is released from G cells in the antrum of the stomach after a meal. It stimulates parietal cells to release HCl. Gastrin is stimulated by a number of things: antrum distention, vagal stimulation, peptides (especially amino acids) in the stomach, hypercalcemia. Gastrin release is inhibited by acid, SST, GIP, VIP, secretin, glucagon, and calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 9 year-old boy with central cyanosis underwent cardiac catheterization. His study results...

    Incorrect

    • A 9 year-old boy with central cyanosis underwent cardiac catheterization. His study results were given below:
      • Right atrium 7 mmHg  - Saturation 60 %
      • Right ventricle 110/6 mmHg  - Saturation 55 %
      • Pulmonary artery 20/5 mmHg - Saturation 55 %
      • Left atrium (mean) 9 mmHg - Saturation 98 %
      • Left ventricle 110/80 mmHg - Saturation 87 %
      • Aorta 110/80 mmHg - Saturation 76 %
      Which the following abnormalities are present in this patient?

      Your Answer: Right-to-left shunt

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Based on the provided cardiac catheterization results, the following abnormalities are present in this patient:

      1. Central Cyanosis: The presence of central cyanosis indicates decreased oxygenation of the blood. This is likely due to an intracardiac shunt, causing unoxygenated blood to mix with oxygenated blood.
      2. Right-to-Left Shunt: The saturation readings in the right atrium (60%), right ventricle (55%), and pulmonary artery (55%) are all lower than the expected systemic saturation of 98%. This suggests a right-to-left shunt, allowing deoxygenated blood from the right side of the heart to enter the systemic circulation without passing through the lungs.
      3. Pulmonary Hypertension: The pulmonary artery pressure of 20/5 mmHg is elevated compared to normal values, indicating pulmonary hypertension. This could be secondary to increased pulmonary blood flow or resistance, often seen in the presence of a right-to-left shunt.
      4. Left-to-Right Shunt: Although not explicitly stated in the results, the elevated left atrial pressure (9 mmHg) suggests increased left-sided filling pressures. This could be due to increased blood flow from a left-to-right shunt, which commonly occurs in congenital heart defects.
      5. Normal Left Ventricular Pressure: The left ventricular pressure (110/80 mmHg) falls within normal limits, indicating that the left ventricle is not significantly affected by the shunting.

      Based on these findings, a likely diagnosis would be a congenital heart defect causing a right-to-left shunt, such as Tetralogy of Fallot or Eisenmenger syndrome, resulting in central cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      140.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old pregnant mother who is known to have hepatitis B gave birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant mother who is known to have hepatitis B gave birth to a male infant. She is now concerned about her child contracting hep B. Which of the following is the most suitable option for the baby in this case?

      Your Answer: HepB Immunoglobulin only

      Correct Answer: HepB full vaccine and Ig

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B full vaccine and Ig should be given to babies born to hepatitis B positive mothers. Hepatitis B vaccine alone or Ig alone is not sufficient to prevent the infection in the new-born baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      502.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 21-year-old woman presents with painful vesicles in her right ear and a...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with painful vesicles in her right ear and a fever for some time. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes zoster

      Explanation:

      Herpes zoster oticus is a viral infection of the inner, middle, and external ear. It manifests as severe otalgia with associated cutaneous vesicular eruption, usually of the external canal and pinna. When associated with facial paralysis, the infection is called Ramsay Hunt syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman was diagnosed with Hodgkin disease 8 years ago. She was...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman was diagnosed with Hodgkin disease 8 years ago. She was treated with radiotherapy which led to complete remission. What is the most likely long-term risk of radiotherapy?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Correct Answer: Secondary cancer

      Explanation:

      The major delayed problem with radiotherapy is the development of secondary cancers. This risk begins to appear ten years after therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      61.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is associated with heterochromia in congenital disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is associated with heterochromia in congenital disease?

      Your Answer: Third nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Heterochromia (difference in iris colour) is seen in congenital Horner’s syndrome, as well as anhidrosis. Other features of non-congenital Horner’s include miosis, ptosis and enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      224.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except?

      Your Answer: Elevated urinary excretion of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5HIAA) may be associated with nontropical sprue

      Correct Answer: Pharmacological blockade is clinically useful in only 10% of patients

      Explanation:

      For medical management of carcinoid syndrome, there are two somatostatin analogues available, Octreotide and Lanreotide. Somatostatin is an amino acid peptide which is an inhibitory hormone, which is synthesized by paracrine cells located ubiquitously throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Both somatostatin analogues provide symptom relief in 50% to 70% of patients and biochemical response in 40% to 60% patients. Many studies have shown that Octreotide and Lanreotide also inhibit the proliferation of tumour cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      356.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific...

    Correct

    • In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific to the disease?

      Your Answer: Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies

      Explanation:

      Hashimoto thyroiditis is part of the spectrum of autoimmune thyroid diseases (AITDs) and is characterized by the destruction of thyroid cells by various cell- and antibody mediated immune processes. It usually presents with hypothyroidism, insidious in onset, with signs and symptoms slowly progressing over months to years.

      The diagnosis of Hashimoto thyroiditis relies on the demonstration of circulating antibodies to thyroid antigens (mainly thyroperoxidase and thyroglobulin) and reduced echogenicity on thyroid sonogram in a patient with proper clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28 year old female presents to her GP with joint pain ,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female presents to her GP with joint pain , fever, a butterfly rash and fatigue. She has marked peripheral oedema. She is found to be hypertensive, in acute renal failure, low albumin levels and proteinuria.   A renal biopsy is performed and reveals focal glomerulonephritis with subendothelial and mesangial immune deposits.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lupus nephritis class II

      Correct Answer: Lupus nephritis Class III

      Explanation:

      This case presents with characteristic symptoms of SLE and with her renal biopsy results of focal glomerulonephritis, this is clearly Class III SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      84.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 11-year-old boy is referred to you following his seventh course of antibiotics...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old boy is referred to you following his seventh course of antibiotics in the last six years for lower respiratory tract infections. He also has a history of eczema for which he is currently on a topical steroid cream. His full blood count (FBC) report shows: Hb: 13.9 g/dL, Plts: 65 x 10^9/L, WCC: 12.3 x 10^9/L. Which of the following genes should you expect an abnormality in?

      Your Answer: RET

      Correct Answer: WASP

      Explanation:

      The combination of frequent infections, eczema, and thrombocytopaenia are characteristic of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, which is due to an abnormality in the WASP gene. It is an X-linked recessive disorder that causes primary immunodeficiency owing to a combined B- and T-cell dysfunction.

      The other listed options are:
      1. PKD1: polycystic kidney disease
      2. CFTR: cystic fibrosis
      3. HFE1: haemochromatosis
      4. RET: multiple endocrine neoplasia, Hirschsprung’s disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      208
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus. His body mass index is 27.5 kg/m^2. At a dose of 500mg TDS the patient has experienced significant diarrhoea. Even on reducing the dose to 500mg BD his symptoms persisted. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient?

      Your Answer: Switch to gliclazide 40mg od

      Correct Answer: Start modified release metformin 500mg od with evening meal

      Explanation:

      Here, the patient seems to be intolerant to standard metformin. In such cases, modified-release preparations is considered as the most appropriate next step.
      There is some evidence that these produce fewer gastrointestinal side-effects in patients intolerant of standard-release metformin.

      Metformin is a biguanide and reduces blood glucose levels by decreasing the production of glucose in the liver, decreasing intestinal absorption and increasing insulin sensitivity.
      Metformin decreases both the basal and postprandial blood glucose.
      Other uses: In Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), Metformin decreases insulin levels, which then decreases luteinizing hormone and androgen levels. Thus acting to normalize the menstruation cycle.

      Note:
      Metformin is contraindicated in patients with severe renal dysfunction, which is defined as a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.732m2.
      Metformin overdose has been associated with hypoglycaemia and lactic acidosis, for this reason, it has a black box warning for lactic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old man with type-1 diabetes mellitus on insulin presents in the A&E...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man with type-1 diabetes mellitus on insulin presents in the A&E with fever, cough, vomiting and abdominal pain. Examination reveals a dry mucosa, decreased skin turgor and a temperature of 37.8 °C. Chest examination reveals bronchial breathing in the right lower lobe, and a chest X-ray shows it to be due to a right lower zone consolidation. Other investigations show: Blood glucose: 35 mmol/L, Na+: 132 mmol/L, K+: 5.5 mmol/L, urea: 8.0 mmol/L, creatinine: 120 μmol/L, pH: 7.15, HCO3: 12 mmol/L, p(CO2): 4.6 kPa, chloride: 106 mmol/l. Urinary ketones are positive (+++). The patient is admitted to the hospital and treated. Which of the following should not be used while treating him?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Bicarbonate therapy is not indicated in mild and moderate forms of DKA because metabolic acidosis will correct with insulin therapy. The use of bicarbonate in severe DKA is controversial due to a lack of prospective randomized studies. It is thought that the administration of bicarbonate may actually result in peripheral hypoxemia, worsening of hypokalaemia, paradoxical central nervous system acidosis, cerebral oedema in children and young adults, and an increase in intracellular acidosis. Because severe acidosis is associated with worse clinical outcomes and can lead to impairment in sensorium and deterioration of myocardial contractility, bicarbonate therapy may be indicated if the pH is 6.9 or less.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      135.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 51-year-old man was brought to the Emergency department for loose stools. He...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old man was brought to the Emergency department for loose stools. He was dehydrated, weak and in shock. He had previously been complaining of large stool volumes for a one month period. Stool colour was normal. There was no history of laxative abuse and no significant past medical history. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: VIPoma

      Explanation:

      Given that the patient has had large amount, high volume watery diarrhoea in an acute period of time, from the answer choices given, this narrows the diagnosis down to VIPoma or carcinoid syndrome. You would expect with carcinoid syndrome for there to be periodic episodes of diarrhoea, though, with a description of flushing, additionally, associated with these episodes. Thus, VIPoma is the most likely answer here. VIPomas are known to cause hypokalaemia from this large amount of watery diarrhoea. Stool volume should be > 700 ml/day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      91.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 21-year-old man is brought by his girlfriend who says he has 'not...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man is brought by his girlfriend who says he has 'not been himself' and has been feeling 'out of sorts' for the past 3 weeks. There is no history of past mental health problems. Which of the following symptoms is highly suggestive of depression in this patient?

      Your Answer: Early morning waking

      Explanation:

      Early morning waking is a highly suggestive feature of depression in this patient.

      NICE use the DSM-IV criteria to grade depression:
      1. Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day
      2. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all, activities most of the day, nearly every day
      3. Significant weight loss or weight gain when not dieting or decrease or increase in appetite nearly every day
      4. Insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every day
      5. Psychomotor agitation or retardation nearly every day
      6. Fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day
      7. Feelings of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt nearly every day
      8. Diminished ability to think or concentrate, or indecisiveness nearly every day
      9. Recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicidal ideation without a specific plan, or a suicide attempt or a specific plan for committing suicide

      Subthreshold depressive symptoms: Fewer than 5 symptoms
      Mild depression: Few, if any, symptoms over the 5 required to make the diagnosis, and symptoms result in only minor functional impairment
      Moderate depression: Symptoms or functional impairment are between ‘mild’ and ‘severe’
      Severe depression: Most symptoms and the symptoms markedly interfere with functioning. Can occur with or without psychotic symptoms.

      Treatment of depression:
      Psychotherapy (in the form of cognitive behavioural therapy or interpersonal therapy) alone or in combination with medications such as:
      – Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
      – Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)
      – Atypical antidepressants
      – Serotonin-Dopamine Activity Modulators (SDAMs)
      – Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

      There is also empirical support for the ability of CBT to prevent relapse.

      Electroconvulsive therapy is a useful treatment option for patients with severe depression refractory to medication or those with psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindications is raised intracranial pressure.

      Side-effects:
      Headache
      Nausea
      Short term memory impairment
      Memory loss of events before ECT
      Cardiac arrhythmia
      Long-term side-effects: Impaired memory

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which one of the following best describes the main action of the polymerase...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following best describes the main action of the polymerase chain reaction?

      Your Answer: DNA amplification

      Explanation:

      Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a method widely used in molecular biology to make several copies of a specific DNA segment. Using PCR, copies of DNA sequences are exponentially amplified to generate thousands to millions of more copies of that particular DNA segment.The main advantage of PCR is its sensitivity: only one strand of sample DNA is needed to detect a particular DNA sequence. It now has many uses including prenatal diagnosis, detection of mutated oncogenes and diagnosis of infections. PCR is also extensively used in forensics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 34-year-old Nigerian woman who is a known case of sickle cell anaemia...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old Nigerian woman who is a known case of sickle cell anaemia presents with fever and worsening of recurrent back pain. There is no history of weight loss or night sweats. The investigations done on her arrival show: Hb: 7.8 g/dL, WCC: 10.1 x10^9/L, Plts: 475 x10^9/L, Reticulocytes: 12%, Serum total bilirubin: 88 μmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic crisis

      Correct Answer: Vaso-occlusive event

      Explanation:

      This patient is having vaso-occlusive event/crisis (thrombotic crisis) which is a type of sickle cell crisis. It may be associated with ostealgia.

      There is no evidence of an aplastic crisis in this case as the haemoglobin level is reasonable with a good reticulocyte count. Conversely, the haemoglobin is not low enough and reticulocyte count and bilirubin are not high enough for a haemolytic crisis.

      Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by periods of good health with intervening crises. The four main types of sickle cell crises are thrombotic crisis (painful or vaso-occlusive crisis), sequestration crisis, aplastic crisis, and haemolytic crisis.

      Thrombotic crisis is precipitated by infection, dehydration, alcohol, change in temperature, and deoxygenation. Sequestration crisis is characterised by acute chest syndrome (i.e. fever, dyspnoea, chest/rib pain, low pO2, and pulmonary infiltrates). Aplastic crisis is characterised by a sudden fall in haemoglobin without marked reticulocytosis. It usually occurs secondary to parvovirus infection. In haemolytic crisis, a fall in haemoglobin occurs secondary to haemolysis. It is a rare type of sickle cell crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 56 year old man who is a known alcoholic presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old man who is a known alcoholic presents to the clinic with a fever and cough. Past medical history states that he has a long history of smoking and is found to have a cavitating lesion on his chest x-ray.   Which organism is least likely to be the cause of his pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Enterococcus faecalis

      Explanation:

      Cavitating pneumonia is a complication that can occur with a severe necrotizing pneumonia and in some publications it is used synonymously with the latter term. It is a rare complication in both children and adults. Albeit rare, cavitation is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, and less frequently Aspergillus spp., Legionella spp. and Staphylococcus aureus.

      In children, cavitation is associated with severe illness, although cases usually resolve without surgical intervention, and long-term follow-up radiography shows clear lungs without pulmonary sequelae
      Although the absolute cavitary rate may not be known, according to one series, necrotizing changes were seen in up to 6.6% of adults with pneumococcal pneumonia. Klebsiella pneumoniae is another organism that is known to cause cavitation.

      Causative agents:
      Mycobacterium tuberculosis
      Klebsiella pneumoniae
      Streptococcus pneumoniae
      Staphylococcus aureus

      Enterococcus faecalis was not found to be a causative agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      187.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following features is characteristic of acute intermittent porphyria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is characteristic of acute intermittent porphyria?

      Your Answer: Photosensitivity

      Correct Answer: Increased urinary porphobilinogen between acute attacks

      Explanation:

      Urinary porphobilinogen is increased between attacks of acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) and even more so, between acute attacks.

      AIP is a rare autosomal dominant condition caused by a defect in porphobilinogen deaminase, an enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of haem. This results in the toxic accumulation of delta-aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen.

      Abdominal and neuropsychiatric symptoms are characteristic of AIP especially in people between the ages of 20–40 years. The disease is more common in females than in males (5:1). Major signs and symptoms of AIP include abdominal pain, vomiting, motor neuropathy, hypertension, tachycardia, and depression.

      Diagnosis:
      1. Urine turns deep red on standing (classical picture of AIP)
      2. Raised urinary porphobilinogen (elevated between attacks and to a greater extent, between acute attacks)
      3. Raised serum levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen
      4. Assay of red blood cells for porphobilinogen deaminase

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine?

      Your Answer: Increase of left ventricular afterload

      Correct Answer: Dilation of systemic veins

      Explanation:

      Dilation of systemic veins is a beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine.

      Administration of nitro-glycerine results in the dilation of systemic veins and decrease of myocardial wall tension and oxygen demand. Dilatation of systemic veins can cause reduced systemic vascular resistance leading to reduced cardiac workload thus reducing anginal symptoms secondary to demand ischemia.

      This is accompanied by vasodilation of large and medium-sized coronary arteries with increased coronary blood flow to the sub endocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      159.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50 year old retired coal miner with simple silicosis presented with shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old retired coal miner with simple silicosis presented with shortness of breath. He had been short of breath for 3 months. Around 3 months ago he began keeping turtle doves as pets. On auscultation he had basal crepitations and chest x-ray showed fine nodular shadowing in the apices.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

      Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:

      ‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
      ‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
      ‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)

      Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.

      EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.

      Examples of EAA include:

      Bird fancier’s lung (BFL) is a type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP). It is triggered by exposure to avian proteins present in the dry dust of the droppings and sometimes in the feathers of a variety of birds. The lungs become inflamed, with granuloma formation. Birds such as pigeons, parakeets, cockatiels, shell parakeets (budgerigars), parrots, turtle doves, turkeys and chickens have been implicated.

      People who work with birds or own many birds are at risk. Bird hobbyists and pet store workers may also be at risk. This disease is an inflammation of the alveoli in the lungs caused by an immune response to inhaled allergens from birds. Initial symptoms include shortness of breath (dyspnoea), especially after sudden exertion or when exposed to temperature change, which can resemble asthma, hyperventilation syndrome or pulmonary embolism. Chills, fever, non-productive cough and chest discomfort may also occur.

      A definitive diagnosis can be difficult without invasive testing, but extensive exposure to birds combined with reduced diffusing capacity are strongly suggestive of this disease. X-ray or CT scans will show physical changes to the lung structure (a ground glass appearance) as the disease progresses. Precise distribution and types of tissue damage differ among similar diseases, as does response to treatment with Prednisone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      80.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 61-year-old female presents to the A&E with malaise and muscle twitching. Her...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old female presents to the A&E with malaise and muscle twitching. Her blood pressure is 114/78 mmHg and her pulse is 84/min. Blood exam reveals Calcium = 1.94 mmol/l and Albumin = 38 g/l. Which of the following tests is most useful in establishing her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Hypocalcaemia occurs in patients with impaired function of the parathyroid glands. This is most common after thyroid or parathyroid surgery, but it can be idiopathic—mostly in young adults and less often as part of a genetic syndrome, such as autoimmune polyglandular syndrome type 1. Usually, the first and most useful test to perform in such cases is the measurement of the parathyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old retired software developer with a history of primary open-angle glaucoma presents...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old retired software developer with a history of primary open-angle glaucoma presents with sudden painless loss of vision in his right eye. On examination of the right eye, the optic disc is swollen with multiple flame-shaped and blot haemorrhages. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Occlusion of central retinal vein

      Explanation:

      Central retinal vein occlusion includes features such as sudden painless loss of vision, but is distinguished from central retinal artery occlusion by the presence of severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      81.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You are a ST1 doctor working on a medical ward. You are struggling...

    Incorrect

    • You are a ST1 doctor working on a medical ward. You are struggling to cope with the workload and often leave the ward late. Who is the most appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer: Speak to the postgraduate dean

      Correct Answer: Speak to your consultant

      Explanation:

      Speaking to your consultant is the most appropriate first action to take in this scenario. They are best placed to be able to take action to try and amend the situation. The consultant is also ultimately responsible for patient care and hterefore have a right to know if you are struggling, as this may affect patient care.
      Arriving early and taking time off sick do not address the problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      76
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 55 year old lady who a known case of normal pressure hydrocephalus...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old lady who a known case of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) presented with complaints of weakness in her lower limbs, urinary incontinence and progressively worsening confusion. Which of the following statements is true regarding NPH?

      Your Answer: Is not associated with raised intracranial pressure

      Correct Answer: Is associated with gait disturbance

      Explanation:

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a form of communicating hydrocephalus characterised by enlarged ventricles with normal opening pressure on lumbar puncture. For diagnostic purposes, a triad of urinary incontinence, gait abnormality and dementia is necessary. It is necessary to diagnose the condition early because it is reversible by placing a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. It is most common in patients aged more than 60 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      64.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 36 year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of headache which progressed...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of headache which progressed to him collapsing. Upon arrival in A&E, he has a heart rate of 76 bpm, blood pressure 220/140, and Glasgow Coma Score of 9 (E2, M5, V2). Which of the following should be done immediately?

      Your Answer: Give nimodipine 60 mg 4-hourly via a nasogastric tube

      Correct Answer: Give high flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask

      Explanation:

      This man is likely suffering from a subarachnoid haemorrhage or intracerebral bleed. The priority is to prevent a secondary brain injury. Important first steps include ensuring a secure airway, normalizing cardiovascular function, and treating seizures. His airway is likely to be protected with a GCS of 9, although he may benefit from a nasal or oral airway, and close attention should be paid to his airway if going for a CT scan. He should receive high flow oxygen and his blood pressure should not be treated acutely, as i is often appropriate to compensate for a rise in intracranial pressure. Nimodipine should be given if a subarachnoid haemorrhage is proven. Attention should also be given to maintaining a normal blood sugar, as hyperglycaemia worsens outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      57.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation?

      Your Answer: Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome with right-sided accessory pathway

      Explanation:

      Causes for right axis deviation:
      -Right ventricular hypertrophy and Left posterior fascicular block
      -Lateral myocardial infarction.
      -Acute or chronic lung diseases: Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), cor pulmonale.
      -Congenital heart disease (e.g., dextrocardia, secundum atrial septal defect).
      -Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
      -Ventricular ectopic rhythms (e.g., ventricular tachycardia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old pharmacist with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a two...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old pharmacist with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a two day history of a red right eye. There is no itch or pain. Pupils are 3mm, equal and reactive to light. Visual acuity is 6/5 in both eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are common, with 25% of patients having eye problems. These manifestations include keratoconjunctivitis sicca (most common), episcleritis (erythema), scleritis (erythema and pain), corneal ulceration, and keratitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow up. He is on metformin 2 g per day and gliclazide 160 mg per day. His recent HbA1c was 8.4% and his blood pressure was 140/75 mmHg. Eye examination reveals dot and blot haemorrhages and microaneurysms. None are close to the macula. Which of the following defines his eye condition?

      Your Answer: Pre-proliferative retinopathy

      Correct Answer: Background diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Patients with diabetes often develop ophthalmic complications, the most common and potentially most blinding of these complications is diabetic retinopathy.
      The following are the 5 stages in the progression of diabetic retinopathy:
      1. Dilation of the retinal venules and formation of retinal capillary microaneurysms.
      2. Increased vascular permeability.
      3. Vascular occlusion and retinal ischemia.
      4. Proliferation of new blood vessels on the surface of the retina.
      5. Vitreous haemorrhage and contraction of the fibrovascular proliferation.
      The first 2 stages of diabetic retinopathy are known as background or nonproliferative retinopathy. Initially, the retinal venules dilate, then microaneurysms (tiny red dots on the retina that cause no visual impairment) appear. As the microaneurysms or retinal capillaries become more permeable, hard exudates appear, reflecting the leakage of plasma.

      Mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) or background diabetic retinopathy is indicated by the presence of at least 1 microaneurysm, while neovascularization is the hallmark of Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy (PDR).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      68.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 43-year-old right-handed migraineur is admitted to hospital having developed paraesthesia affecting her...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old right-handed migraineur is admitted to hospital having developed paraesthesia affecting her left arm. This came on suddenly during a migrainous attack while out shopping. The paraesthesia appeared to effect the entire left arm and in the last few hours, has spread to involve the left side of the face. She had had a similar episode several months ago whereby she developed some right-sided leg and arm weakness while at work. The weakness lasted several minutes and subsequently abated. At the time, she was also having one of her migraines. She has a long-standing history of migraines, which typically start with a prolonged aura and fortification spectra. Other then migraines, for which she has been taking pizotifen, she has no other past medical history. Her sister also suffers from migraines, and her mother has a history of dementia in her 50s. She is a non-smoker and drinks minimal alcohol. On examination she was orientated but apathetic. Her blood pressure was 130/65 mmHg, pulse 62/min, and temperature 36.2ºC. There were no carotid bruits and heart sounds were entirely normal. There was reduced sensation to all modalities over the left side of the face extending to the vertex and the entire left arm. Tone and reflexes appeared intact; however, handgrip was reduced on the left due to numbness. The lower limb appeared entirely normal. Magnetic resonance (MR) scan showed bilateral, multifocal, T2/FLAIR (fluid attenuated inversion recovery ) hyperintensities in the deep white matter. MR Spinal cord was normal. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CADASIL (cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leucoencephalopathy)

      Explanation:

      CADASIL is the most common form of hereditary stroke disorder. This case has a strong history of migraine with aura with stroke-like episodes, characteristic of CADASIL. Additionally, there is positive family history of migraine and early dementia but no other vascular risk factors like hypertension, diabetes, or hypercholesterolaemia, which all confirm the suspicion of CADASIL, an arteriopathy where there is thickening of the smooth muscle cells in the blood vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      107.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 32 year old primigravida, with a history of pulmonary hypertension, presents to...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old primigravida, with a history of pulmonary hypertension, presents to the clinic at 36 weeks gestation with worsening shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most accurate statements regarding her condition?

      Your Answer: Risk of maternal mortality in patients with pulmonary hypertension is 30%

      Explanation:

      Historically, high rates of maternal and fetal death have been reported for pregnant women with pulmonary hypertension (30–56% and 11–28%, respectively). The causes of poor maternal outcomes are varied and include risk of death from right heart failure and stroke from intracardiac shunting. Furthermore, there is a high peri-/post-partum risk due to haemodynamic stress, bleeding complications and the use of general anaesthesia, which can all lead to right heart failure.
      The most common risk to the foetus is death, with premature birth and growth retardation being reported in successfully delivered children.
      CXR is not contraindicated in pregnancy. D-dimers are not used as a diagnostic aid as they are almost always elevated in pregnancy. Nifedipine, although contraindicated in pregnant women may be used judiciously if the need arises.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      71.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Cardiology (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (0/4) 0%
Ophthalmology (2/3) 67%
Endocrinology (2/4) 50%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (1/3) 33%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
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