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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath. Recent thyroid function tests on the hospital computer reveal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) of <0.05 mU/l and a markedly elevated T4. You arrange blood gas testing. Which of the following findings would be most consistent with Grave’s disease?

      Your Answer: Decreased pa(CO2)

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroid patients show significantly lower resting arterial CO2 tension, tidal volume and significantly higher mean inspiratory flow and pa(O2) than healthy patients. This may of course lead to misdiagnosis of patients with hyperthyroidism as having hyperventilation syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is currently training for a national athletics championship. What is the best treatment option for her?

      Your Answer: Adequate diet and observation

      Explanation:

      Intensive physical training and participation in competitive sports during childhood and early adolescence may affect athletes’ pubertal development.
      Female athletes who do not begin secondary sexual development by the age of 14 or menstruation by the age of 16 warrant a comprehensive evaluation and treatment.
      Since she is still 14, adequate diet and observation are enough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Out of the following, which is not associated with polycythaemia vera? ...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which is not associated with polycythaemia vera?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Correct Answer: Raised ESR

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia vera (PV) is associated with a low ESR.

      PV, also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance. PV is associated with a low ESR.

      Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

      In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5–15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 57-year-old architect presents with weakness of the right hand. You note global...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old architect presents with weakness of the right hand. You note global wasting of the small hand muscles. There is also sensory loss over the medial border of the forearm around the elbow. Which of the following nerve roots is damaged?

      Your Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      This patient has Klumpke’s paralysis due to damage to the T1 nerve root. This root eventually supplies the median and ulnar nerves. The ulnar nerve supplies all of the intrinsic hand muscles except for those of the thenar eminence and the first and second lumbricals, which are innervated by the median nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 53-year-old gentleman presents with several months’ history of generalised swelling, fatigue, dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old gentleman presents with several months’ history of generalised swelling, fatigue, dyspnoea and several episodes of haemoptysis. There is no significant past medical history and he did not take any regular medication. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day and drinks 14 units of alcohol per week. On examination, he is grossly oedematous and has ascites. Cardiorespiratory examination is unremarkable and there are no neurological signs or rashes. Investigation results are below: Haemoglobin (Hb) 10.2 g/dL, White cell count (WCC) 6.0 × 109/L, Platelets 380 × 109/L, Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 90fl Na+ 145 mmol/L, K+ 3.7 mmol/L, Urea 8.2 mmol/L, Bilirubin 16 μmol/L, Creatinine 180 μmol/L, Albumin 22 g/l Aspartate transaminase 32 iu/l Alkaline phosphatase 120 iu/l Urinalysis: Protein +++ 24 h urinary protein excretion: 5g Chest radiograph: Enlarged right hilum Echocardiogram: Mild left ventricular impairment, no valve lesion Abdominal ultrasound scan: Normal-sized kidneys, no abnormality seen A renal biopsy was performed. What is it most likely to show?

      Your Answer: Fusion of podocyte foot processes on electron microscopy

      Correct Answer: Thickened glomerular basement membrane with deposits of IgG and C3

      Explanation:

      Renal biopsy in this patient will most likely show thickened glomerular basement membrane with deposits of IgG and C3 as a result of membranous glomerulonephritis that has caused the nephrotic syndrome in this patient. Membranous glomerulonephritis in this case is most likely associated with an underlying bronchial carcinoma, consistent with the patient’s smoking history and physical presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 18-year-old gentleman is referred to dermatology. He has around 10 hyperpigmented macules...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old gentleman is referred to dermatology. He has around 10 hyperpigmented macules on his torso which vary in size from 1.5-5 cm in size. His GP also noted some freckles in the groin region. He is also currently under orthopaedic review due to a worsening scoliosis of the spine. His father suffered from similar problems before having a fatal myocardial infarction two years ago. Which chromosome is most likely to have a gene defect?

      Your Answer: Chromosome 4

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 17

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history and presentation and familial history, meets the diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type I, presenting with neurofibromas noted in this patient as hyperpigmented macules and freckles, musculoskeletal disorders like the scoliosis in this case, and a familial history. Neurofibromatosis type I is caused by a mutation on Chromosome 17.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 75 year old man was admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnoea....

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year old man was admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnoea. He was given a five day course of Amoxicillin. On examination, his blood pressure was 89/59 mmHg with a respiratory rate of 35/min. A chest x-ray revealed left lower lobe consolidation. Past medical history: Type 2 diabetes mellitus Arterial blood gas on air: pH 7.34 pCO2 5.4 kPa pO2 9.0 kPa Which antibiotic therapy is the most suitable?

      Your Answer: Oral co-amoxiclav + erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      CURB Pneumonia Severity Score:
      – Confusion (abbreviated Mental Test Score <=8) (1 point)
      – Urea (BUN > 19 mg/dL or 7 mmol/L) (1 point)
      – Respiratory Rate > 30 per minute (1 point)
      – Blood Pressure: diastolic < 60 or systolic < 90 mmHg (1 point) Based on the CURB Pneumonia Severity Score, the patient has severe pneumonia. According to the 2009 Centres for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) and Joint Commission consensus guidelines, inpatient treatment of pneumonia should be given within four hours of hospital admission (or in the emergency department if this is where the patient initially presented) and should consist of the following antibiotic regimens, which are also in accordance with IDSA/ATS guidelines. For non-intensive care unit (ICU) patients:
      Beta-lactam (intravenous [IV] or intramuscular [IM] administration) plus macrolide (IV or oral [PO])
      Beta-lactam (IV or IM) plus doxycycline (IV or PO)
      Antipneumococcal quinolone monotherapy (IV or IM)

      If the patient is younger than 65 years with no risk factors for drug-resistant organisms, administer macrolide monotherapy (IV or PO)

      For ICU patients:
      IV beta-lactam plus IV macrolide
      IV beta-lactam plus IV antipneumococcal quinolone

      If the patient has a documented beta-lactam allergy, administer IV antipneumococcal quinolone plus IV aztreonam.

      The most suitable antibiotic therapy for this patient is therefore Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old woman is admitted with general deterioration and ‘off-legs’. On examination in...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman is admitted with general deterioration and ‘off-legs’. On examination in the emergency department, she looks dry and uremic.   Investigations reveal:
      • K+ 7.2 mmol/L
      • Na+ 145 mmol/L
      • Creatinine 512 μmol/L
      • Urea 36.8 mmol/L
      Which TWO of the following measures are most appropriate in her immediate management?

      Your Answer: ECG & IV Calcium gluconate bolus

      Explanation:

      First and foremost, the patient should be put on ECG monitoring to identify the cardiac state, and because of the markedly raised serum potassium, a calcium gluconate bolus will have the immediate effect of moderating the nerve and muscle performance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 52-year-old woman with polycystic kidney disease and a slowly rising creatinine, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman with polycystic kidney disease and a slowly rising creatinine, which was 320 μmol/L at her last clinic visit 3 weeks ago, is brought into the Emergency Department having been found collapsed at home by her partner. She is now fully conscious but complains of a headache.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic dissection

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      One of the most important complications in patients with PKD is being affected by berry aneurysms that may burst, causing a subarachnoid haemorrhage, which seems to be the case in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 63-year-old woman visits the diabetes clinic for review. She has had type-2...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman visits the diabetes clinic for review. She has had type-2 diabetes for 9 years and is now on insulin therapy. She has diabetic nephropathy, as exemplified by hypertension and proteinuria (urinary PCR 155); a recent creatinine level was 205 μmol/l and eGFR 24 ml/min.   Which of the following options best fits her prognosis or management?

      Your Answer: Non-dihydropyridine calcium antagonists have no effect on proteinuria

      Correct Answer: Treatment with ARB or ACE-I may slow further deterioration in renal function

      Explanation:

      Treatment with ARB or ACE-I may slow further deterioration in renal function in this patient, as studies have shown that blocking of the RAS in type 2 diabetic patients improve renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Her parents with a severe headache present a 24-year-old woman. She is afraid...

    Correct

    • Her parents with a severe headache present a 24-year-old woman. She is afraid of light and sun and prefers darker environments. On examination, a generalized rash that does not blanch on pressure is noticed. What is the best action in this case?

      Your Answer: IV benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      The rash is a characteristic sign of meningitis. Added to photophobia, headache and neck rigidity, meningitis is highly suggested diagnosis. IV antibiotics should be started immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 70 year old female presented with a throbbing and continuous headache and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old female presented with a throbbing and continuous headache and loss of vision. Her ESR was elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Pilocarpine

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Giant Cell Arteritis (Temporal Arteritis) is the most probable diagnosis. GCA should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a new-onset headache in patients 50 years of age or older with an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Temporal artery biopsy remains the criterion standard for diagnosis of this granulomatous vasculitis. High-dose corticosteroid therapy is the universally accepted treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is least likely to cause warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is least likely to cause warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

      Your Answer: Methyldopa

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma infection

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma infection causes cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA). The rest of the aforementioned options cause warm AIHA.

      AIHA may be divided into ‘warm’ and ‘cold’ types, according to the temperature at which the antibodies best cause haemolysis. It is most commonly idiopathic but may be secondary to a lymphoproliferative disorder, infection, or drugs.

      1. Warm AIHA:
      In warm AIHA, the antibody (usually IgG) causes haemolysis best at body temperature and tends to occur in extravascular sites, for example, spleen. Management options include steroids, immunosuppression, and splenectomy. It is caused by autoimmune diseases such as SLE (rarely causes mixed-type AIHA), cancers such as lymphomas and CLL, and drugs such as methyldopa.

      2. Cold AIHA:
      The antibody in cold AIHA is usually IgM and causes haemolysis best at 4°C and occurs more commonly intravascularly. Features may include symptoms of Raynaud’s disease and acrocyanosis. Patients do not respond well to steroids. Cold AIHA is caused by cancers such as lymphomas, and infections such as mycoplasma and EBV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which is the most common chromosomal defect in Down's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most common chromosomal defect in Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Correct Answer: Non-dysjunction

      Explanation:

      Nondisjunction of chromosome 21 is the leading cause of Down syndrome. Two risk factors for maternal nondisjunction of chromosome 21 are increased maternal age and altered recombination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32 year old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has been feeling for the past two weeks. Which of the following will be consistent with a diagnosis of tennis elbow?

      Your Answer: Pain on pressure over the medial epicondyle

      Correct Answer: Pain on wrist extension against resistance

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles and thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which will result in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old female develops profuse watery diarrhoea with lower abdominal pain seven days...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female develops profuse watery diarrhoea with lower abdominal pain seven days after undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bile acid diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: Pseudomembranous colitis

      Explanation:

      Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by a C. difficile infection that causes membranes to form on the colon wall. It is caused most commonly by broad-spectrum antibiotics. This would include cephalosporins, broad-spectrum penicillin, and clindamycin. Macrolides and quinolones have also been reported as potential aetiologies, but much less commonly. This woman would have received antibiotics prophylactically before her surgery, predisposing her to a possible c difficile infection. This is a much better answer choice than pseudo obstruction, abdominal sepsis, bile acid diarrhoea, and campylobacter gastroenteritis simply based on history of present illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 34-year-old man was brought to the ER following a road-traffic-accident. An X-ray...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old man was brought to the ER following a road-traffic-accident. An X-ray of his left thigh revealed a fractured shaft of the left femur. He has a known history of opioid abuse. You are called to the ward to assess him after he becomes unwell. Which of the following clinical features are NOT compatible with a diagnosis of opioid withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Yawning

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, hypothermia is not a symptom of opioid withdrawal.

      Symptoms of opioid withdrawal include dysphoric mood, yawning, insomnia, muscle aches, lacrimation/rhinorrhoea, papillary dilatation, piloerection, fever, sweating, nausea/vomiting, diarrhoea.
      If the patient is having an opioid withdrawal reaction, then give 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait about 60 min to determine its effect.

      COWS (Clinical Opioid Withdrawal Scale) assessment for opioid withdrawal is commonly used to determine the severity of opioid withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left forearm. She has revealed that she was regular heroin user and has stopped for the past few days. Clinical signs are pointing towards opioid withdrawal. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Give her 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait 60 min to determine its effect

      Explanation:

      The next step in managing this patient is to give 10 mg and continue administering in 10 mg increments each hour until symptoms are under control.

      Methadone alleviates opioid withdrawal symptoms and reduces cravings. Methadone is useful for detoxification from longer-acting opioids such as morphine or methadone itself.
      Methadone should be used with caution if the patient has:
      Respiratory deficiency
      Acute alcohol dependence
      Head injury
      Treatment with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
      Ulcerating colitis or Crohn’s disease
      Severe hepatic impairment
      The dose must be reviewed on a daily basis and adjusted based upon how well the symptoms are controlled and the presence of side effects. The greater the dose of opioids used by the patient, the greater the dose of methadone required to control withdrawal symptoms.

      To avoid the risk of overdose in the first days of treatment The recommended dosing of methadone is 30mg in two doses of 15mg morning and evening.

      It is important to note that a methadone dose equivalent to what the patient reports they are taking should never be given.
      It is rare to need more than 40 mg per 24 hours: beware of overdosing which can lead to respiratory arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45 year old man presents with fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgias...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old man presents with fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgias that have been occurring for a month. You suspect polyarteritis nodosa and arrange for some lab investigations. Which of the following abnormality would most likely be present?

      Your Answer: Leukopenia

      Correct Answer: Elevated creatinine

      Explanation:

      People with polyarteritis nodosa often exhibit anaemia of chronic disease. Leucocytosis and eosinophilia may also be present. ANCA is only rarely positive. As polyarteritis nodosa affects the kidneys as well, the creatinine is elevated in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following forms of acute viral hepatitis has a much higher...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following forms of acute viral hepatitis has a much higher mortality in pregnant than non-pregnant females?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis E

      Explanation:

      Pregnant patient in a third world country with hepatitis: The answer is most likely Hepatitis E. The mortality for Hepatitis E in pregnant women is very high. It is transmitted faecal-orally. There is no hepatitis G. Hepatitis C, B, A are less likely to be the correct answer than E given it’s classic association with pregnancy and poor living conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (0/2) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (1/4) 25%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Passmed