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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old female is found to have a thyroglossal cyst that has been...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female is found to have a thyroglossal cyst that has been recently infected and the patient requests treatment. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Surgical treatment with resection of cyst, associated track, central portion of the hyoid and wedge of tongue muscle behind the hyoid

      Explanation:

      A thyroglossal duct cyst (TGDC) is the most common mass found in the midline of the neck. The mass is usually located at or below the level of the hyoid bone, although a TGDC can be located anywhere from the foramen cecum to the level of the thyroid gland.
      Most patients with a TGDC present with asymptomatic masses in the midline of the neck.
      Recurrent inflammation associated with infection of a TGDC is not uncommon. When an infection is present, the cyst often enlarges and an abscess may form. Spontaneous rupture with secondary sinus tract formation can also occur.

      The surgical treatment of choice for thyroglossal cysts is the Sistrunk operation, in which an en block resection of the sinus tract and above (including the midportion of the hyoid bone) is performed. Recurrence is approximately 3-5% and is increased by incomplete excision and a history of recurrent infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      26.1
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  • Question 2 - A 30 year old welder presents to his family doctor with symptoms of...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old welder presents to his family doctor with symptoms of chronic ear discharge and a left-sided facial nerve palsy. On examination, he has foul smelling fluid draining from his left ear and a complete left-sided facial nerve palsy. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Explanation:

      A cholesteatoma consists of squamous epithelium that is trapped within the skull base and that can erode and destroy important structures within the temporal bone. They often become infected and can result in chronically draining ears. Treatment almost always consists of surgical removal. The majority (98%) of people with cholesteatoma have ear discharge or conductive hearing loss or both in the affected ear.

      Other more common conditions (e.g. otitis externa) may also present with these symptoms, but cholesteatoma is much more serious and should not be overlooked. If a patient presents to a doctor with ear discharge and hearing loss, the doctor should consider cholesteatoma until the disease is definitely excluded.

      Other less common symptoms (all less than 15%) of cholesteatoma may include pain, balance disruption, tinnitus, earache, headaches and bleeding from the ear. There can also be facial nerve weakness. Balance symptoms in the presence of a cholesteatoma raise the possibility that the cholesteatoma is eroding the balance organs in the inner ear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      1172.5
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  • Question 3 - An 8 year old boy presents with bleeding from the nose. From which...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old boy presents with bleeding from the nose. From which area did the bleeding most likely originate?

      Your Answer: Kiesselbach's plexus

      Explanation:

      Answer: Kiesselbach’s plexus

      Epistaxis is defined as acute haemorrhage from the nostril, nasal cavity, or nasopharynx. The source of 90% of anterior nosebleeds within the Kiesselbach’s plexus (also known as Little’s area) on the anterior nasal septum.

      Kiesselbach’s plexus (Kiesselbach’s area or Little’s area) is a vascular region of the anteroinferior nasal septum that comprises four arterial anastomoses:
      1)anterior ethmoidal artery – a branch of the ophthalmic artery
      2)sphenopalatine artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 33 year old woman presents with a history of recurrent infections and...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old woman presents with a history of recurrent infections and abscesses in the neck. Examination reveals a midline defect with an overlying scab which moves upwards on tongue protrusion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroglossal cyst

      Explanation:

      Congenital neck masses are developmental anomalies typically seen in infants or children. Common conditions include thyroglossal duct cysts, branchial cleft cysts, and cystic hygromas. These malformations present as painless neck masses, which can cause dysphagia, respiratory distress, and neck pain due to compression of surrounding structures. The location of the mass depends on the embryological structure the cysts arise from. Diagnosis is made based on clinical findings and imaging results (ultrasound, CT, MRI), which also help in surgical planning. Treatment consists of complete surgical resection to prevent recurrence and complications such as infection or abscess formation.
      The thyroglossal cyst is present from birth and usually detected during early childhood. It presents as a painless, firm midline neck mass, usually near the hyoid bone, which elevates with swallowing and tongue protrusion. May cause dysphagia or neck/throat pain if the cyst enlarges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      44
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  • Question 5 - A 19-year-old female presents to the oncology clinic after noticing a painless neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female presents to the oncology clinic after noticing a painless neck lump. On examination, she is noted to have bilateral thyroid masses and multicentric nodules near the base of the thyroid. Her corrected calcium level is 2.18 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Follicular thyroid carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia

      Explanation:

      Based on the aforementioned findings in this case, the most likely diagnosis is medullary carcinoma of the thyroid associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN).

      Medullary thyroid cancer is a tumour of the parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid and is neural crest in origin. It may be familial and occur as part of the MEN 2A disease spectrum. Less than 10% of thyroid cancers are of this type with patients typically presenting as children or young adults. Diarrhoea occurs in 30% of the cases. In association with MEN syndromes, medullary thyroid cancers are always bilateral and multicentric. Spread may either be lymphatic or haematogenous, and as these tumours are not derived primarily from thyroid cells, they are not responsive to radioiodine.

      Toxic nodular goitre is very rare. In sporadic medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, patients typically present with a unilateral solitary nodule and it tends to spread early to the lymph nodes in neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man presents with unilateral facial paralysis after being hit on the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with unilateral facial paralysis after being hit on the head. On examination, he has a right-sided facial nerve palsy and watery discharge from the nose. What is the most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Petrous temporal fracture

      Explanation:

      Nasal discharge of clear fluid and a recent head injury makes basal skull fracture the most likely underlying cause for facial nerve palsy.

      Facial palsy is a neurological condition in which function of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is partially or completely lost. It is often idiopathic (Bell’s palsy) but in some cases, specific causes such as trauma (e.g. temporal bone fracture), infections, or metabolic disorders can be identified. Two major types are distinguished:

      1. Central facial palsy—lesion occurs between cortex and nuclei in the brainstem
      2. Peripheral facial palsy—lesion occurs between nuclei in the brainstem and peripheral organs

      Diagnosis can usually be made clinically while patient’s history often helps in evaluating the underlying aetiology.
      Patients with basal skull fracture following head injury (as in this case) exhibit Battle’s sign on examination. It is an indication of fracture of middle cranial fossa of the skull and consists of bruising over the mastoid process as a result of extravasation of blood along the path of the posterior auricular artery. Clinical presence of CSF leak further supports the diagnosis.

      Assessment options for basal skull fracture include CT and MRI scan. Idiopathic facial nerve palsy is treated with oral glucocorticoids and, in severe cases, with antivirals. Treatment of the other types depends on the underlying cause. Prophylactic antibiotics are given in cases of CSF leak.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      55.8
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old male has had a sore throat for the past 5 days....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male has had a sore throat for the past 5 days. Over the past 24 hours, he has noticed increasing and severe throbbing pain in the region of his right tonsil. He has pyrexia and on examination, he is noted to have swelling of this area. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Quinsy

      Explanation:

      Patients with a Quinsy or peritonsillar abscess (PTA) typically present with a history of acute pharyngitis accompanied by tonsillitis and worsening unilateral pharyngeal discomfort. Patients also may experience malaise, fatigue, and headaches. They often present with a fever and asymmetric throat fullness. Associated halitosis, odynophagia, dysphagia, and a hot potato–sounding voice occurs.
      The presentation may range from acute tonsillitis with unilateral pharyngeal asymmetry to dehydration and sepsis. Most patients have severe pain. Examination of the oral cavity reveals marked erythema, asymmetry of the soft palate, tonsillar exudation, and contralateral displacement of the uvula.
      Indications for considering the diagnosis of a PTA include the following:
      Unilateral swelling of the peritonsillar area
      Unilateral swelling of the soft palate, with anterior displacement of the ipsilateral tonsil
      Nonresolution of acute tonsillitis, with persistent unilateral tonsillar enlargement
      A PTA ordinarily is unilateral and located at the superior pole of the affected tonsil, in the supratonsillar fossa. At the level of the supratonsillar fold, the mucosa may appear pale and even show a small pimple. Palpation of the soft palate often reveals an area of fluctuance. Flexible nasopharyngoscopy and laryngoscopy are recommended in patients experiencing airway distress. The laryngoscopy is key to ruling out epiglottitis and supraglottitis, as well as vocal cord pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      39
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  • Question 8 - A 17 year old girl presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the...

    Correct

    • A 17 year old girl presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the midline. Examination confirms the finding and petechial haemorrhages affecting the oropharynx are observed. Splenomegaly is seen on systemic examination. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Infection with Epstein Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infection

      The Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.
      EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:
      fever,
      fatigue,
      swollen tonsils,
      headache, and
      sweats,
      sore throat,
      swollen lymph nodes in the neck, and
      sometimes an enlarged spleen.
      Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.
      Petechiae on the palate are characteristic of streptococcal pharyngitis but also can be seen in Epstein–Barr virus infection, Arcanobacterium haemolyticum pharyngitis, rubella, roseola, viral haemorrhagic fevers, thrombocytopenia, and palatal trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      61.4
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  • Question 9 - A 7 year old girl is taken to her family doctor because her...

    Correct

    • A 7 year old girl is taken to her family doctor because her mother is concerned that she has a small epithelial defect anterior to the left ear and it has been noted to discharge foul smelling material for the past 3 days. What is the most likely explanation?

      Your Answer: Pre auricular sinus

      Explanation:

      The preauricular sinus is a benign congenital malformation of the preauricular soft tissues. Mostly it is noted during routine ear, nose and throat examination, though can present as an infected and discharging sinus. Preauricular sinus is more often unilateral, only occasionally are bilateral forms inherited. The right side is more often involved and females more than males. Most sinuses are clinically silent, eventual, however not rare, appearance of symptoms is related to an infectious process. Erythema, swelling, pain and discharge are familiar signs and symptoms of infection. The most common pathogens causing infection are Staphylococcal species and, less frequently Proteus, Streptococcus and Peptococcus species.

      Courses of treatment typically include the following:
      – Draining the pus occasionally as it can build up a strong odour
      – Antibiotics when infection occurs.
      – Surgical excision is indicated with recurrent fistula infections, preferably after significant healing of the infection.
      In case of a persistent infection, infection drainage is performed during the excision operation. The operation is generally performed by an appropriately trained specialist surgeon e.g. a otolaryngologist or a specialist General Surgeon.
      The fistula can be excised as a cosmetic operation even though no infection appeared. The procedure is considered an elective operation in the absence of any associated complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      22.1
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  • Question 10 - A 34 year old opera singer undergoes a thyroidectomy. Post-operatively, it is discovered...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old opera singer undergoes a thyroidectomy. Post-operatively, it is discovered that he is only able to make a gargling noise. On examination, his voice sounds breathy. What is the best explanation for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Bilateral superior laryngeal nerve injury

      Correct Answer: Unilateral inferior laryngeal nerve injury

      Explanation:

      Unilateral vocal fold paralysis (UVFP) occurs from a dysfunction of the recurrent laryngeal (inferior laryngeal nerve) or vagus nerve innervating the larynx. It causes a characteristic breathy voice often accompanied by swallowing disability, a weak cough, and the sensation of shortness of breath. This is a common cause of neurogenic hoarseness. When this paralysis is properly evaluated and treated, normal speaking voice is typically restored. Specifically, thyroidectomy, carotid endarterectomy, anterior cervical spine surgery, thoracic, or mediastinal surgery most often result in a presentation of UVFP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      15.3
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  • Question 11 - A 36 year old opera singer is admitted for a right thyroid lobectomy....

    Correct

    • A 36 year old opera singer is admitted for a right thyroid lobectomy. Post operatively, he is unable to sing high notes. Which muscle is likely to demonstrate impaired function?

      Your Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      Thyroidectomy has been reported as the most frequent cause of external branch of superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) injury.
      Diagnosis of EBSLN injury may be difficult because the symptoms are nonspecific in many cases. However, advanced diagnostic techniques have revealed the incidence to be relatively high, ranging from 5 to 28%. Paralysis of the EBSLN causes difficulty with high pitch phonation and decreased pitch range secondary to failure of cricothyroid muscle stimulation and lack of tension in the vocal cord. This symptom may be extremely serious for professional voice users. EBSLN injury can also cause vocal fatigue, hoarseness, breathy sounding voice, and vocal nodules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      19.7
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  • Question 12 - A 51 year old female presents with a sensation of grittiness in her...

    Correct

    • A 51 year old female presents with a sensation of grittiness in her eyes which has been present for the past few months. She also complains of symptoms of a dry mouth. On examination, she is seen with a swelling of her parotid gland. However, she has no evidence of facial nerve palsy. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sjogren's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sjogren syndrome (SS) is a long-term autoimmune disease that affects the body’s moisture-producing glands. Primary symptoms are a dry mouth and dry eyes. Other symptoms can include dry skin, vaginal dryness, a chronic cough, numbness in the arms and legs, feeling tired, muscle and joint pains, and thyroid problems. Those affected are at an increased risk (5%) of lymphoma. It primarily affects women in their peri and post-menopausal years of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 10 year old child presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the...

    Correct

    • A 10 year old child presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the midline. Oropharyngeal examination confirms this finding and you also notice petechial haemorrhages affecting the oropharynx. On systemic examination he is noted to have splenomegaly. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infection

      Explanation:

      Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infection

      The Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.
      EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:
      fever,
      fatigue,
      swollen tonsils,
      headache, and
      sweats,
      sore throat,
      swollen lymph nodes in the neck, and
      sometimes an enlarged spleen.
      Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35 year old opera singer undergoes a thyroidectomy and post-operatively, he develops...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old opera singer undergoes a thyroidectomy and post-operatively, he develops stridor and is unable to speak. What is the best explanation for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury

      Explanation:

      This patient has aphonia due to bilateral damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve. Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) injury is rare for benign thyroid lesions (0.2%). After extubation-stridor, respiratory distress, aphonia occurs due to the closure of the glottic aperture necessitating immediate intervention and emergency intubation or tracheostomy. Intra-operative identification and preservation of the RLN minimizes the risk of injury.
      The recurrent laryngeal nerves control all intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle. These muscles act to open, close, and adjust the tension of the vocal cords, and include the posterior cricoarytenoid muscles, the only muscle to open the vocal cords. The nerves supply muscles on the same side of the body, with the exception of the interarytenoid muscle, which is innervated from both sides.

      The nerves also carry sensory information from the mucous membranes of the larynx below the lower surface of the vocal fold, as well as sensory, secretory and motor fibres to the cervical segments of the oesophagus and the trachea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      8.7
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  • Question 15 - A 3 year old girl is taken to the clinic with a 3...

    Correct

    • A 3 year old girl is taken to the clinic with a 3 day history of feeling unwell and having a sore throat. When examined by the doctor, marked cervical lymphadenopathy is observed and the oropharynx is covered with a thick grey membrane which bleeds following attempted removal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diphtheria

      Explanation:

      Diphtheria is an infection caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Signs and symptoms may vary from mild to severe. They usually start two to five days after exposure. Symptoms often come on fairly gradually, beginning with a sore throat and fever. In severe cases, a grey or white patch develops in the throat. This can block the airway and create a barking cough as in croup. The neck may swell in part due to enlarged lymph nodes.

      The disease may remain manageable, but in more severe cases, lymph nodes in the neck may swell, and breathing and swallowing are more difficult. People in this stage should seek immediate medical attention, as obstruction in the throat may require intubation or a tracheotomy. Abnormal cardiac rhythms can occur early in the course of the illness or weeks later, and can lead to heart failure. Diphtheria can also cause paralysis in the eye, neck, throat, or respiratory muscles. Patients with severe cases are put in a hospital intensive care unit and given a diphtheria antitoxin (consisting of antibodies isolated from the serum of horses that have been challenged with diphtheria toxin). Since antitoxin does not neutralize toxin that is already bound to tissues, delaying its administration increases risk of death. Therefore, the decision to administer diphtheria antitoxin is based on clinical diagnosis, and should not await laboratory confirmation.
      Antibiotics are used in patients or carriers to eradicate C. diphtheriae and prevent its transmission to others. The Centres for Disease Control and Prevention recommends either:
      Metronidazole
      Erythromycin is given (orally or by injection) for 14 days (40 mg/kg per day with a maximum of 2 g/d), or
      Procaine penicillin G is given intramuscularly for 14 days (300,000 U/d for patients weighing <10 kg and 600,000 U/d for those weighing >10 kg); patients with allergies to penicillin G or erythromycin can use Rifampicin or clindamycin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      36.4
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  • Question 16 - A 35 year old man presents to his family doctor with swelling of...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old man presents to his family doctor with swelling of his face. On examination, the swelling was noted to be to the below and to the left of his nose. When the area is palpated, it feels like the underlying bone is cracking. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ameloblastoma

      Explanation:

      Ameloblastoma is a rare, benign or cancerous tumour of odontogenic epithelium (ameloblasts, or outside portion, of the teeth during development) much more commonly appearing in the lower jaw than the upper jaw.
      Ameloblastomas can be found both in the maxilla and mandible. Although, 80% are situated in the mandible with the posterior ramus area being the most frequent site. The neoplasms are often associated with the presence of unerupted teeth, displacement of adjacent teeth and resorption of roots.

      Symptoms include a slow-growing, painless swelling leading to facial deformity. As the swelling gets progressively larger it can impinge on other structures resulting in loose teeth and malocclusion. Bone can also be perforated leading to soft tissue involvement.

      The lesion has a tendency to expand the bony cortices because of the slow growth rate of the lesion allows time for the periosteum to develop a thin shell of bone ahead of the expanding lesion. This shell of bone cracks when palpated. This phenomenon is referred to as Egg Shell Cracking or crepitus, an important diagnostic feature.

      Maxillary ameloblastomas can be dangerous and even lethal. Due to thin bone and weak barriers, the neoplasm can extend into the sinonasal passages, pterygomaxillary fossa and eventually into the cranium and brain. Rare orbital invasion of the neoplasm has also been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      28.5
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  • Question 17 - A 34 year old woman arrives at the clinic with a goitre and...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old woman arrives at the clinic with a goitre and is diagnosed with autoimmune thyroiditis. She is most likely to develop which of the following types of cancers?

      Your Answer: Follicular

      Correct Answer: Lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Pre-existing chronic autoimmune (Hashimoto’s) thyroiditis is the only known risk factor for primary thyroid lymphoma and is present in approximately one-half of patients. Among patients with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, the risk of thyroid lymphoma is at least 60 times higher than in patients without thyroiditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      10.8
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  • Question 18 - A 5 year old boy is taken to the doctor by his father....

    Correct

    • A 5 year old boy is taken to the doctor by his father. He has had an earache for the past day and he is constantly pulling and touching his ear. His father noticed a foul smelling discharge leaking from his ear after which the earache resolved. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Acute otitis media

      Explanation:

      Acute otitis media (AOM) is a painful type of ear infection. It occurs when the area behind the eardrum, the middle ear, becomes inflamed and infected.

      The following behaviours in children often mean they have AOM:
      – fits of fussiness and intense crying (in infants)
      – clutching the ear while wincing in pain (in toddlers)
      – complaining about a pain in the ear (in older children).

      Perforation of the tympanic membrane is not unusual as the process advances, most frequently in posterior or inferior quadrants. Before or instead of a single perforation, an opaque serum like exudate is sometimes seen oozing through the entire tympanic membrane.

      With perforation and in the absence of a coexistent viral infection, the patient generally experiences rapid relief of pain and fever. The discharge initially is purulent, though it may be thin and watery or bloody; pulsation of the otorrhea is common. Otorrhea from acute perforation normally lasts 1-2 days before spontaneous healing occurs. Otorrhea may persist if the perforation is accompanied by mucosal swelling or polypoid changes, which can act as a ball valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
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  • Question 19 - A 24-year-old female presents with a swelling located at the anterior border of...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old female presents with a swelling located at the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The swelling is intermittent. On examination, it is soft and fluctuant. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Branchial cyst

      Explanation:

      Branchial cleft cysts are congenital anomalies that usually arise from second cleft/pouch, with remnants of the third and fourth pouch are rare. Children are typically born with these congenital lesions; however, they may not be evident for weeks, months, or possibly years. The lesions present as fistulae, cyst, sinus tracts, or cartilaginous remnants due to incomplete obliteration during embryogenesis.

      They are often asymptomatic, but can often become tender, enlarged, or inflamed with possible abscess formation during episodes of upper respiratory tract infections.
      The patient can present with purulent drainage of the sinus to skin or pharynx from spontaneous rupture of branchial cleft cyst abscess. The most concerning symptoms include dysphagia, dyspnoea, and stridor due to cyst compression of the upper airway.

      The physical examination will differ depending on the location of the branchial cleft cyst:
      – A primary branchial cleft cyst is typically smooth, non-tender, fluctuant mass found between the external auditory canal and submandibular area. It is usually with the parotid gland and facial nerve. Two types of lesions exist. Type 1 is rare and characterized as duplication of the membranous external auditory canal. Type 2 lesions contain both ectoderm and mesoderm elements including cartilage. The patient usually presents with soft tissue mass or draining sinus located on the angle of the mandible or otorrhea, making an otologic exam critical in these cases.
      – A secondary branchial cleft cyst is located between the lower anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid and the tonsillar fossa of the pharynx. It can be in proximity to the glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal nerve as well as carotid vessels. Compared to the primary branchial cleft cysts, secondary cysts are tender if secondarily inflamed or infected. If it is associated with a sinus tract, a mucoid or purulent discharge may be present on the skin or into the pharynx.

      The treatment of a branchial cleft cyst is typically elective excision due to the risk of infection or present infection, further enlargement, or malignancy.

      – Carotid Body Tumour: Painless oropharyngeal or upper anterior triangle of the neck; pulsatile, compressible with a bruit or thrill, mobile from medial to lateral direction.
      – Bartonella henselae infection is Isolated, mobile, fluctuant, tender, warm, erythematous, > 2 cm near the site of inoculation.
      – Thyroglossal duct cyst: In the Midline, adjacent to the hyoid bone; rises with deglutition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
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  • Question 20 - A 28 year old man presents to his doctor with a painful mass...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old man presents to his doctor with a painful mass underneath his left mandible. The mass has appeared over the previous week with the pain worsening as the lump has increased in size. On examination, a 3 cm mass underneath his mandible is seen but there is no associated lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Submandibular gland calculus

      Explanation:

      Sialolithiasis (also termed salivary calculi, or salivary stones), is a condition where a calcified mass or sialolith forms within a salivary gland, usually in the duct of the submandibular gland (also termed Wharton’s duct).
      Signs and symptoms are variable and depend largely upon whether the obstruction of the duct is complete or partial, and how much resultant pressure is created within the gland.
      The development of infection in the gland also influences the signs and symptoms:
      – Pain, which is intermittent, and may suddenly get worse before mealtimes, and then slowly get better (partial obstruction).
      – Swelling of the gland, also usually intermittent, often suddenly appearing or increasing before mealtimes, and then slowly going down (partial obstruction).
      – Tenderness of the involved gland.
      – Palpable hard lump, if the stone is located near the end of the duct. If the stone is near the submandibular duct orifice, the lump may be felt under the tongue.
      – Lack of saliva coming from the duct (total obstruction).
      – Erythema (redness) of the floor of the mouth (infection).
      – Pus discharging from the duct (infection).
      – Cervical lymphadenitis (infection).
      – Bad Breath.
      – Rarely, when stones form in the minor salivary glands, there is usually only slight local swelling in the form of a small nodule and tenderness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
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  • Question 21 - A 33 year old woman complains of a persistent offensive discharge from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old woman complains of a persistent offensive discharge from the left ear. On examination, the hearing of left ear is found to be reduced to 40 decibels compared to the right side. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Long standing perforation of the pars tensa

      Correct Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Explanation:

      Cholesteatoma is a special form of chronic otitis media in which keratinizing squamous epithelium grows from the tympanic membrane or the auditory canal into the middle ear mucosa or mastoid. The presence of abnormal epithelium in an abnormal location triggers an inflammatory response that can destroy surrounding structures such as the ossicles. Cholesteatomas may be congenital or acquired later in life. Acquired cholesteatomas are usually associated with chronic middle ear infection. Cardinal symptoms are painless otorrhea and progressive hearing loss. Important diagnostic procedures include mastoid process x-rays, temporal bone CT scans, and audiometric tests. Left untreated, erosion of the surrounding bone by a cholesteatoma can lead to facial nerve palsy, extradural abscess, and/or sigmoid sinus thrombosis. Therefore, even if a cholesteatoma is asymptomatic, surgery is always indicated. Surgical treatment involves tympanomastoidectomy to excise the cholesteatoma, followed by repair of the damaged middle ear structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      90.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Generic Surgical Topics (17/21) 81%
Head And Neck Surgery (17/21) 81%
Passmed