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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old man presents with complaints of palpitations and dizzy spells. Upon performing...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man presents with complaints of palpitations and dizzy spells. Upon performing an echocardiogram, the diagnosis of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is made.
      What will be visualized on the echocardiogram?

      Your Answer: Symmetrical septal hypertrophy

      Correct Answer: Reduced left ventricular cavity size

      Explanation:

      Echocardiographic Findings in Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a condition characterized by thickening of the heart muscle, particularly the septum, which can lead to obstruction of blood flow out of the heart. Echocardiography is a useful tool for diagnosing and monitoring HOCM. Here are some echocardiographic findings commonly seen in HOCM:

      Reduced left ventricular cavity size: Patients with HOCM often have a banana-shaped left ventricular cavity, with reduced size due to septal hypertrophy.

      Increased left ventricular outflow tract gradients: HOCM can cause obstruction of blood flow out of the heart, leading to increased pressure gradients in the left ventricular outflow tract.

      Systolic anterior motion of the mitral leaflet: This is a characteristic finding in HOCM, where the mitral valve moves forward during systole and can contribute to obstruction of blood flow.

      Asymmetrical septal hypertrophy: While some patients with HOCM may have symmetrically hypertrophied ventricles, the more common presentation is asymmetrical hypertrophy, with thickening of the septum.

      Mitral regurgitation: HOCM can cause dysfunction of the mitral valve, leading to mild to moderate regurgitation of blood back into the left atrium.

      Overall, echocardiography plays an important role in the diagnosis and management of HOCM, allowing for visualization of the structural and functional abnormalities associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 2 - A 38-year-old intravenous (IV) drug user presents with pyrexia (39.8 °C) and general...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old intravenous (IV) drug user presents with pyrexia (39.8 °C) and general malaise. On examination, you identify a pansystolic murmur at the lower left sternal edge. You also notice that he has vertical red lines running along his nails and he tells you that he has been experiencing night sweats.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Infective Endocarditis from Other Conditions: A Guide for Medical Professionals

      When a patient presents with a new murmur and pyrexia, it is important to consider infective endocarditis as a potential diagnosis until proven otherwise. To confirm the diagnosis, the patient should undergo cultures, IV antibiotics, an electrocardiogram (ECG), and an echocardiogram (ECHO). It is worth noting that intravenous drug users (IVDUs) are more likely to experience endocarditis of the tricuspid valve, which would produce a pan-systolic murmur.

      It is important to distinguish infective endocarditis from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. For example, aortic stenosis would produce an ejection systolic murmur, and patients would not experience pyrexia, night sweats, or splinter hemorrhages. Similarly, mitral stenosis would produce a diastolic decrescendo murmur, and patients would not experience pyrexia or night sweats.

      IVDU-associated hepatitis C would not explain the murmur, and a hepatitis C screening test would be necessary to confirm this diagnosis. Tricuspid regurgitation would explain the murmur, but not the pyrexia or night sweats. Therefore, the presence of these symptoms together would be most suggestive of an acute infective endocarditis.

      In summary, when a patient presents with a new murmur and pyrexia, it is important to consider infective endocarditis as a potential diagnosis and rule out other conditions that may present with similar symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 3 - You are urgently requested to assess a 23-year-old male who has presented to...

    Incorrect

    • You are urgently requested to assess a 23-year-old male who has presented to the Emergency department after confessing to consuming 14 units of alcohol and taking 2 ecstasy tablets tonight. He is alert and oriented but is experiencing palpitations. He denies any chest pain or difficulty breathing.
      The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 180 beats per minute, regular rhythm, blood pressure of 115/80 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed and reveals an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (SVT).
      What would be your first course of action in terms of treatment?

      Your Answer: Verapamil 5 mg IV

      Correct Answer: Vagal manoeuvres

      Explanation:

      SVT is a type of arrhythmia that occurs above the ventricles and is commonly seen in patients in their 20s with alcohol and drug use as precipitating factors. Early evaluation of ABC is important, and vagal manoeuvres are recommended as the first line of treatment. Adenosine is the drug of choice if vagal manoeuvres fail, and DC cardioversion is required if signs of decompensation are present. Amiodarone is not a first-line treatment for regular narrow complex SVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old boy is discovered following a street brawl where he was stabbed....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is discovered following a street brawl where he was stabbed. He has a stab wound on the left side of his chest, specifically the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line. His blood pressure (BP) is 70 mmHg systolic, his heart sounds are muffled, and his jugular veins are distended, with a prominent x descent and an absent y descent.
      What is the most appropriate way to characterize the boy's condition?

      Your Answer: Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

      Correct Answer: Beck’s triad

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Terminology: Beck’s Triad, Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy, Virchow’s Triad, Cushing Syndrome, and Kussmaul’s Sign

      Beck’s Triad: A combination of muffled or distant heart sounds, low systolic blood pressure, and distended neck veins. This triad is associated with cardiac tamponade.

      Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy: A non-ischaemic cardiomyopathy triggered by emotional stress, resulting in sudden weakening or dysfunction of a portion of the myocardium. It is also known as broken heart syndrome.

      Virchow’s Triad: A triad that includes hypercoagulability, endothelial/vessel wall injury, and stasis. These factors contribute to a risk of thrombosis.

      Cushing Syndrome: A condition caused by prolonged use of corticosteroids, resulting in signs and symptoms such as hypertension and central obesity. However, low blood pressure is not a typical symptom.

      Kussmaul’s Sign: A paradoxical rise in jugular venous pressure on inspiration due to impaired filling of the right ventricle. This sign is commonly associated with constrictive pericarditis or restrictive cardiomyopathy. In cardiac tamponade, the jugular veins have a prominent x descent and an absent y descent, whereas in constrictive pericarditis, there will be a prominent x and y descent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 5 - A 20-year-old female patient visited her doctor complaining of general malaise, lethargy, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female patient visited her doctor complaining of general malaise, lethargy, and fatigue. She couldn't pinpoint when the symptoms started but felt that they had been gradually developing for a few months. During the physical examination, the doctor detected a murmur and referred her to a cardiologist based on the findings. The cardiac catheterization results are as follows:

      Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg)
      End systolic/End diastolic
      Superior vena cava 77 -
      Right atrium (mean) 79 7
      Right ventricle 78 -
      Pulmonary artery 87 52/17
      Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 16
      Left ventricle 96 120/11
      Aorta 97 120/60

      What is the most accurate description of the murmur heard during the chest auscultation of this 20-year-old woman?

      Your Answer: A pansystolic murmur, heard loudest at the apex and radiating to the axilla

      Correct Answer: A continuous 'machinery' murmur at the left upper sternal edge with late systolic accentuation

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Patent Ductus Arteriosus

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a condition that is characterized by an unusual increase in oxygen saturation between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery. This is often accompanied by elevated pulmonary artery pressures and a high wedge pressure. These data are typical of this condition and can be used to diagnose it. It is important to note that patent ductus arteriosus can lead to serious complications if left untreated, including heart failure and pulmonary hypertension. Therefore, early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes and preventing long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 6 - You are called to see a 62-year-old man who has suddenly deteriorated after...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see a 62-year-old man who has suddenly deteriorated after pacemaker insertion. He has sudden-onset shortness of breath and is cold and clammy. On examination, his blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, pulse 100 bpm and regular. His jugular venous pressure (JVP) is markedly elevated and his heart sounds are muffled. You give him oxygen and plasma volume expanders intravenously (iv).
      Which of the following is the next most appropriate intervention?

      Your Answer: Arrange an urgent chest X-ray

      Correct Answer: Prepare for pericardiocentesis

      Explanation:

      Management of Cardiac Tamponade

      Cardiac tamponade is a medical emergency that requires urgent intervention. The condition is characterized by a large amount of fluid in the pericardial sac, which can lead to compression of the heart and subsequent haemodynamic instability.

      The first step in managing cardiac tamponade is to perform pericardiocentesis, which involves draining the fluid from the pericardial sac. Delaying this procedure can result in cardiac arrest and death.

      While echocardiography can aid in diagnosis, it should not delay the initiation of pericardiocentesis. Similarly, a chest X-ray is not necessary for management. Swann-Ganz catheter insertion and inotropic support are also not recommended as they do not address the underlying cause of the condition.

      In summary, prompt recognition and treatment of cardiac tamponade is crucial for patient survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old man presents with syncope, which was preceded by palpitations. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with syncope, which was preceded by palpitations. He has no past medical history and is generally fit and well. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a positive delta wave in V1.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Correct Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White (WPW) syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating ECG Features of Various Heart Conditions

      Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a congenital heart condition characterized by an accessory conduction pathway connecting the atria and ventricles. Type A WPW syndrome, identified by a delta wave in V1, can cause supraventricular tachycardia due to the absence of rate-lowering properties in the accessory pathway. Type B WPW syndrome, on the other hand, causes a negative R wave in V1. Radiofrequency ablation is the definitive treatment for WPW syndrome.

      Maladie de Roger is a type of ventricular septal defect that does not significantly affect blood flow. Atrioventricular septal defect, another congenital heart disease, can cause ECG features related to blood shunting.

      Brugada syndrome, which has three distinct types, does not typically present with a positive delta wave in V1 on ECG. Tetralogy of Fallot, a congenital heart defect, presents earlier with symptoms such as cyanosis and exertional dyspnea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old woman received a blood transfusion of 2 units of crossmatched blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman received a blood transfusion of 2 units of crossmatched blood 1 hour ago, following acute blood loss. She reports noticing a funny feeling in her chest, like her heart keeps missing a beat. You perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) which shows tall, tented T-waves and flattened P-waves in multiple leads.
      An arterial blood gas (ABG) test shows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 7.1 mmol/l 5–5.0 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl–) 96 mmol/l 95–105 mmol/l
      Given the findings, what treatment should be given immediately?

      Your Answer: Insulin and dextrose

      Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hyperkalaemia: Understanding the Role of Calcium Gluconate, Insulin and Dextrose, Calcium Resonium, Nebulised Salbutamol, and Dexamethasone

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias. When a patient presents with hyperkalaemia and ECG changes, the initial treatment is calcium gluconate. This medication stabilizes the myocardial membranes by reducing the excitability of cardiomyocytes. However, it does not reduce potassium levels, so insulin and dextrose are needed to correct the underlying hyperkalaemia. Insulin shifts potassium intracellularly, reducing serum potassium levels by 0.6-1.0 mmol/l every 15 minutes. Nebulised salbutamol can also drive potassium intracellularly, but insulin and dextrose are preferred due to their increased effectiveness and decreased side-effects. Calcium Resonium is a slow-acting treatment that removes potassium from the body by binding it and preventing its absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. While it can help reduce potassium levels in the long term, it is not effective in protecting the patient from arrhythmias acutely. Dexamethasone, a steroid, is not useful in the treatment of hyperkalaemia. Understanding the role of these treatment options is crucial in managing hyperkalaemia and preventing serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for 2 years. He has a significant cardiac history, including two previous myocardial infarctions, peripheral vascular disease, and three transient ischemic attacks. He is also a non-insulin-dependent diabetic. During examination, his JVP is raised by 2 cm, and he has peripheral pitting edema to the mid-calf bilaterally and bilateral basal fine inspiratory crepitations. His last ECHO, performed 3 years ago, showed moderately impaired LV function and mitral regurgitation. He is currently taking bisoprolol, aspirin, simvastatin, furosemide, ramipril, and gliclazide. Which medication, if added, would provide prognostic benefit?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Heart Failure Medications: Prognostic and Symptomatic Benefits

      Heart failure is a prevalent disease that can be managed with various medications. These medications can be divided into two categories: those with prognostic benefits and those with symptomatic benefits. Prognostic medications help improve long-term outcomes, while symptomatic medications provide relief from symptoms.

      Prognostic medications include selective beta-blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin II antagonists, and spironolactone. In the RALES trial, spironolactone was shown to reduce all-cause mortality by 30% in patients with heart failure and an ejection fraction of less than 35%.

      Symptomatic medications include loop diuretics, digoxin, and vasodilators such as nitrates and hydralazine. These medications provide relief from symptoms but do not improve long-term outcomes.

      Other medications, such as nifedipine, sotalol, and naftidrofuryl, are used to manage other conditions such as angina, hypertension, and peripheral and cerebrovascular disorders, but are not of prognostic benefit in heart failure.

      Treatment for heart failure can be tailored to each individual case, and heart transplant remains a limited option for certain patient groups. Understanding the benefits and limitations of different medications can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old female with Down's syndrome presents with a systolic murmur on clinical...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female with Down's syndrome presents with a systolic murmur on clinical examination. What is the most prevalent cardiac anomaly observed in individuals with Down's syndrome that could account for this murmur?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Endocardial Cushion Defects

      Endocardial cushion defects, also referred to as atrioventricular (AV) canal or septal defects, are a group of abnormalities that affect the atrial septum, ventricular septum, and one or both of the AV valves. These defects occur during fetal development when the endocardial cushions, which are responsible for separating the heart chambers and forming the valves, fail to develop properly. As a result, there may be holes or gaps in the septum, or the AV valves may not close properly, leading to a mix of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the heart. This can cause a range of symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, poor growth, and heart failure. Treatment for endocardial cushion defects typically involves surgery to repair the defects and improve heart function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 11 - A 65 year old man with a BMI of 29 was diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man with a BMI of 29 was diagnosed with borderline hypertension during a routine check-up with his doctor. He is hesitant to take any medications. What dietary recommendations should be given to help lower his blood pressure?

      Your Answer: Aim for dietary sodium at 7 g daily

      Correct Answer: Consume a diet rich in fruits and vegetables

      Explanation:

      Tips for a Hypertension-Friendly Diet

      Maintaining a healthy diet is crucial for managing hypertension. Here are some tips to help you make the right food choices:

      1. Load up on fruits and vegetables: Consuming a diet rich in fruits and vegetables can reduce blood pressure by 2-8 mmHg in hypertensive patients. It can also aid in weight loss, which further lowers the risk of hypertension.

      2. Limit cholesterol intake: A reduction in cholesterol is essential for patients with ischaemic heart disease, and eating foods that are low in fat and cholesterol can reduce blood pressure.

      3. Moderate alcohol consumption: Men should have no more than two alcoholic drinks daily to lower their risk of hypertension.

      4. Eat oily fish twice a week: Eating more fish can help lower blood pressure, but having oily fish twice weekly is advised for patients with ischaemic heart disease, not hypertension alone.

      5. Watch your sodium intake: Restricting dietary sodium is recommended and can lower blood pressure. A low sodium diet contains less than 2 g of sodium daily. Aim for a maximum of 7 g of dietary sodium daily.

      By following these tips, you can maintain a hypertension-friendly diet and reduce your risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old with cystic fibrosis was evaluated for cor pulmonale to determine eligibility...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old with cystic fibrosis was evaluated for cor pulmonale to determine eligibility for a deceased donor double-lung transplant.
      What is the surface landmark used to identify right ventricular hypertrophy?

      Your Answer: Fourth intercostal space, left parasternal area

      Explanation:

      Anatomical Landmarks for Cardiac Examination

      When examining the heart, it is important to know the anatomical landmarks for locating specific valves and ventricles. Here are some key locations to keep in mind:

      1. Fourth intercostal space, left parasternal area: This is the correct location for examining the tricuspid valve and the right ventricle, particularly when detecting a right ventricular heave.

      2. Second intercostal space, left parasternal area: The pulmonary valve can be found at this location.

      3. Second intercostal space, right parasternal area: The aortic valve is located here.

      4. Fourth intercostal space, right parasternal area: In cases of true dextrocardia, the tricuspid valve and a right ventricular heave can be found at this location.

      5. Fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line: This is the location of the apex beat, which can be examined for a left ventricular heave and the mitral valve.

      Knowing these landmarks can help healthcare professionals accurately assess and diagnose cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with shortness of breath. He describes shortness of breath on exertion and feeling short of breath when he lies flat. He now uses four pillows when sleeping. His past medical history is remarkable for hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and type II diabetes.
      On examination, he has bilateral crepitation, a jugular venous pressure (JVP) of 5 cm and pitting oedema up to his shins. Despite these symptoms, his oxygen saturation is 99% and he is functioning normally at home. He says the symptoms started gradually about 6 months ago and have progressed slowly since.
      Which of the following should the GP do first to confirm the provisional diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)

      Explanation:

      The first-line investigation for heart failure in primary care is checking the levels of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP), according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. BNP levels are widely available, non-invasive, quick, and cost-efficient. A normal BNP level can rule out heart failure, but if it is abnormal, an echocardiogram should be done within 6 weeks if it is raised and within 2 weeks if it is very high. Patients with a history of myocardial infarction should have an echocardiogram straightaway. An echocardiogram is the most definitive test diagnostically, as it can accurately assess various parameters. Troponin T level is used to assess myocardial injury resulting from a myocardial infarction, but it is not relevant in chronic heart failure. Myocardial perfusion scans are useful in the diagnosis of coronary artery disease, but they are not the first-line investigation for heart failure. An ECG may be helpful, but it is not sensitive or specific enough to be used as a conclusive diagnostic tool. A chest X-ray can show features of heart failure, but they are usually found in progressed chronic congestive heart failure, which are unlikely to be present at the very first presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea on exertion and palpitations. She has an...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea on exertion and palpitations. She has an irregularly irregular and tachycardic pulse, and a systolic murmur is heard on auscultation. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation and right axis deviation, while an echocardiogram shows an atrial septal defect.
      What is the process of atrial septum formation?

      Your Answer: The septum secundum grows down to the right of the septum primum

      Explanation:

      During embryonic development, the septum primum grows down from the roof of the primitive atrium and fuses with the endocardial cushions. It initially has a hole called the ostium primum, which closes as the septum grows downwards. However, a second hole called the ostium secundum develops in the septum primum before fusion can occur. The septum secundum then grows downwards and to the right of the septum primum and ostium secundum. The foramen ovale is a passage through the septum secundum that allows blood to shunt from the right to the left atrium in the fetus, bypassing the pulmonary circulation. This defect closes at birth due to a drop in pressure within the pulmonary circulation after the infant takes a breath. If there is overlap between the foramen ovale and ostium secundum or if the ostium primum fails to close, an atrial septal defect results. This defect does not cause cyanosis because oxygenated blood flows from left to right through the defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 15 - A 29-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset palpitation and chest pain that began 1...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset palpitation and chest pain that began 1 hour ago. The palpitation is constant and is not alleviated or aggravated by anything. She is worried that something serious is happening to her. She recently experienced conflict at home with her husband and left home the previous day to stay with her sister. She denies any medication or recreational drug use. Past medical history is unremarkable. Vital signs are within normal limits, except for a heart rate of 180 bpm. Electrocardiography shows narrow QRS complexes that are regularly spaced. There are no visible P waves preceding the QRS complexes. Carotid sinus massage results in recovery of normal sinus rhythm.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Tachycardia

      Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) is a sudden-onset tachycardia with a heart rate of 180 bpm, regularly spaced narrow QRS complexes, and no visible P waves preceding the QRS complexes. Carotid sinus massage or adenosine administration can diagnose PSVT, which is commonly caused by atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia.

      Sinus tachycardia is characterized by normal P waves preceding each QRS complex. Atrial flutter is less common than atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia and generally does not respond to carotid massage. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by irregularly spaced QRS complexes and does not respond to carotid massage. Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia is associated with wide QRS complexes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 16 - Which congenital cardiac defect is correctly matched with its associated syndrome from the...

    Correct

    • Which congenital cardiac defect is correctly matched with its associated syndrome from the following options?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome and coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Common Cardiovascular Abnormalities Associated with Genetic Syndromes

      Various genetic syndromes are associated with cardiovascular abnormalities. Turner syndrome is linked with coarctation of the aorta, aortic stenosis, bicuspid aortic valve, aortic dilation, and dissection. Marfan syndrome is associated with aortic root dilation, mitral valve prolapse, mitral regurgitation, and aortic dissection. Kartagener syndrome can lead to bicuspid aortic valve, dextrocardia, bronchiectasis, and infertility. However, congenital adrenal hyperplasia is not associated with congenital cardiac conditions. Finally, congenital rubella syndrome is linked with patent ductus arteriosus, atrial septal defect, and pulmonary stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old male smoker presents with a 6-hour history of gradual-onset central chest...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male smoker presents with a 6-hour history of gradual-onset central chest pain. The chest pain is worse on inspiration and relieved by leaning forward. He reports recently suffering a fever which he attributed to a viral illness. He has no significant past medical history; however, both his parents suffered from ischaemic heart disease in their early 60s. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals PR depression and concave ST-segment elevation in most leads. He is haemodynamically stable.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis: Understanding the Clinical Scenario

      Acute pericarditis can be caused by a variety of factors, including infection, inflammation, and metabolic issues. The condition is typically characterized by gradual-onset chest pain that worsens with inspiration and lying flat, but improves with leaning forward. ECG findings often show concave ST-segment elevation and PR depression in certain leads, along with reciprocal changes in others.

      Understanding Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of headache, dizziness, and claudication....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of headache, dizziness, and claudication. Upon measuring his blood pressure, it is found that he has hypertension in his upper limbs and hypotension in his lower limbs. What other finding is most likely to be present in this case?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Notching of the inferior margins of the ribs

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Cardiovascular Disorders in Adults

      Cardiovascular disorders are a leading cause of morbidity and mortality in adults. Among the most common causes of these disorders are aortic coarctation, patent ductus arteriosus, aortic valvular stenosis, pulmonary valvular stenosis, and vasculitis involving the aortic arch.

      Notching of the Inferior Margins of the Ribs: Aortic Coarctation
      Aortic coarctation is caused by stenosis in the aortic arch, leading to hypertension proximal to and hypotension distal to the stenotic segment. Enlarged intercostal arteries produce notching of the inferior margins of the ribs, which is diagnostic of this condition.

      Chronic Cor Pulmonale: Patent Ductus Arteriosus
      Patent ductus arteriosus leads to shunting of blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery, eventually causing chronic cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure.

      Systolic Hypotension: Aortic Valvular Stenosis
      Aortic valvular stenosis is caused by a congenitally malformed valve, usually a valve with two cusps or a single cusp. It manifests with systolic hypotension, recurrent syncope, and hypertrophy/dilation of the left ventricle.

      Chronic Cor Pulmonale and Heart Failure: Pulmonary Valvular Stenosis
      Pulmonary valvular stenosis is a rare form of congenital heart disease that leads to chronic cor pulmonale and heart failure.

      Ischemia in the Upper Body: Vasculitis Involving the Aortic Arch
      Vasculitis involving the aortic arch is found in Takayasu arthritis, causing chronic inflammatory changes in the aortic arch and its branches. This condition leads to stenosis of these arteries, resulting in signs and symptoms of ischemia in the upper part of the body. It is also known as pulseless disease due to weak or absent radial pulses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old man presents with chest pain, 5/10 in intensity, which is aggravated...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with chest pain, 5/10 in intensity, which is aggravated by breathing deeply and improved by leaning forward. The chest pain is not radiating. He has a mild fever but denies nausea, vomiting, cough or haemoptysis. He has self-medicated for a common cold and sore throat 5 days previously. On the electrocardiogram (ECG), there is diffuse, mild ST segment elevation (on leads II, aVF and V2–V6) and PR depression.
      Which of the following findings is most likely to be observed on physical examination?

      Your Answer: Soft-blowing early diastolic decrescendo murmur, loudest at the third left intercostal space

      Correct Answer: Triphasic systolic and diastolic rub

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and Their Characteristics

      Pericarditis: Triphasic Systolic and Diastolic Rub
      Pericarditis is characterized by pleuritic chest pain that improves by leaning forward. A pericardial friction rub, with a scratchy, rubbing quality, is the classic cardiac auscultatory finding of pericarditis. It is often a high-pitched, triphasic systolic and diastolic murmur due to friction between the pericardial and visceral pericardium during ventricular contraction, ventricular filling, and atrial contraction.

      Mitral Regurgitation: High-Pitched Apical Pan-Systolic Murmur Radiating to the Axilla
      A high-pitched apical pan-systolic murmur radiating to the axilla is heard in mitral regurgitation.

      Coarctation of the Aorta: Continuous Systolic and Diastolic Murmur Obscuring S2 Sound and Radiating to the Back
      A continuous systolic and diastolic murmur obscuring S2 sound and radiating to the back is heard in coarctation of the aorta.

      Mitral Stenosis: Apical Opening Snap and Diastolic Rumble
      An apical diastolic rumble and opening snap are heard in mitral stenosis.

      Aortic Regurgitation: Soft-Blowing Early Diastolic Decrescendo Murmur, Loudest at the Third Left Intercostal Space
      A soft-blowing early diastolic decrescendo murmur, loudest at the second or third left intercostal space, is heard in aortic regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old female presents with palpitations, chest pain, and shortness of breath that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents with palpitations, chest pain, and shortness of breath that radiates to her left arm. These symptoms began six weeks ago after she witnessed her father's death from a heart attack. Over the past decade, she has undergone various investigations for abdominal pain, headaches, joint pains, and dyspareunia, but no significant cause has been identified for these symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatisation Disorder as the Most Likely Diagnosis

      Somatisation disorder is the most probable diagnosis for the given scenario, although it lacks sufficient criteria for a complete diagnosis. This disorder is characterised by recurring pains, gastrointestinal, sexual, and pseudo-neurologic symptoms that persist for years. To meet the diagnostic criteria, the patient’s physical complaints must not be intentionally induced and must result in medical attention or significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. Typically, the first symptoms appear during adolescence, and the full criteria are met by the age of 30.

      Among the other disorders, factitious disorder is the least likely explanation. The other three disorders are possible explanations, but they are not as likely as somatisation disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0.9
      Seconds

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