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Question 1
Correct
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A 54-year-old white woman without past medical history presents with pallor, shortness of breath, palpitations and difficulty balancing.
On examination, her vitals are heart rate 110 bpm at rest and 140 bpm on ambulation, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute, temperature 37 ° C and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. She is pale. Her lungs are clear to auscultation; her heart rate is regular without murmurs, rubs or gallops; her abdomen is soft and non-tender; she is moving all extremities equally, and a stool guaiac test is heme-negative. Her gait is wide and she has difficulty balancing. She has decreased sensation to fine touch in her feet. Her mini-mental status exam is normal.
Blood work shows:
Haematocrit: 0.19 (0.35–0.55)
Mean cell volume: 110 fl (76–98 fl)
White blood cell count: 5 × 109/l (4–11 × 109/l)
Which one of the following findings would most likely lead to the correct diagnosis?Your Answer: Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
Explanation:Causes and Symptoms of Vitamin B12 Deficiency
Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to macrocytic anaemia and neurological symptoms. The most common cause of this deficiency is the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of dietary vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum. Without it, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed, leading to deficiency and anaemia. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include fatigue, lethargy, dyspnoea on exertion, and neurological symptoms such as peripheral loss of vibration and proprioception, weakness, and paraesthesiae. If left untreated, it can lead to hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and demyelination of the spinal cord, causing ataxia.
Diagnosis can be made with a vitamin B12 level test, which reveals anaemia, often pancytopenia, and a raised MCV. A blood film reveals hypersegmented neutrophils, megaloblasts, and oval macrocytes. Treatment involves replacement of vitamin B12.
Other possible causes of vitamin B12 deficiency include intestinal tapeworm, which is rare, and gastrointestinal malignancy, which causes iron deficiency anaemia with a low MCV. Destruction of the anterior and lateral horns of the spinal cord describes anterolateral sclerosis (ALS), which is characterised by progressive muscle weakness and would not cause anaemia or loss of sensation. Enlargement of the ventricles on head CT indicates hydrocephalus, which could explain the wide-based gait but not the anaemia and other symptoms. A haemoglobin A1c of 12.2% is associated with diabetes, which could explain decreased peripheral sensation to fine touch but would not be associated with megaloblastic anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents to the Emergency Department with a swollen, erythematosus right leg with a 4-cm difference in circumference between the right and left leg. Routine blood tests show:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 10.1 mmol 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 120 μmol 50–120 µmol/l
eGFR 60ml/min/1.73m2
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.25 mmol 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Bilirubin 7 μmol 2–17 µmol/l
Albumin 32 g/l 35–55 g/l
Alkaline phosphatase 32 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Aspartate transaminase (AST) 15 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 32 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 15 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Haemoglobin 78 g/l
Males: 135–175 g/l
Females: 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 92 fl 76–98 fl
Platelets 302 x 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.5 x 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Which of the following should be commenced after confirmation of the diagnosis?Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin
Correct Answer: Apixaban
Explanation:According to NICE guidance, the first-line treatment for a confirmed proximal deep vein thrombosis is a direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban or rivaroxaban. When warfarin is used, an initial pro-coagulant state occurs, so heparin is needed for cover until the INR reaches the target therapeutic range and until day 5. Low-molecular-weight heparin is typically used with warfarin in the initial anticoagulation phase, but it can accumulate in patients with renal dysfunction. Unfractionated heparin infusion is used in these cases. For patients with normal or slightly deranged renal function, low-molecular-weight heparin can be given once per day as a subcutaneous preparation. However, warfarin is not the first-line treatment according to NICE guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl injures her leg while playing soccer at the park. Her mother takes her to the emergency doctor at their GP clinic later that day as the bleeding has not stopped. The cut is not very big and is on the girl's calf. They immediately applied pressure to the wound and then a bandage, however on examination the wound is still bleeding a little bit. The girl's mother knows that there is a bleeding disorder in her family.
What is the most suitable course of action for this patient, given the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Give recombinant factor 8
Correct Answer: Give desmopressin and tranexamic acid
Explanation:Treatment Options for Bleeding Disorders: Haemophilia A and Von Willebrand Disease
Haemophilia A, a genetic bleeding disorder affecting men, is characterized by a propensity to bleed with minor injuries. Diagnosis is made through a prolonged APTT on a background of normal PT and bleeding time. Treatment for minor bleeds includes desmopressin and tranexamic acid, while major bleeds require infusion with recombinant factor 8. Fresh-frozen plasma and platelets are used in major trauma as replacement therapy, while heparin is an anticoagulant and should be avoided. Von Willebrand factor is given once the diagnosis of Von Willebrand disease is confirmed. Children with severe haemophilia A should receive prophylactic infusion of factor 8 at least once a week until physical maturity, and those undergoing elective surgery or pregnant women will require prophylactic treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Correct
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What is the diagnostic tool for beta thalassaemia?
Your Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Beta Thalassaemia
Beta thalassaemia can be diagnosed through the presence of mild microcytic anaemia, target cells on the peripheral blood smear, and a normal red blood cell count. However, the diagnosis is confirmed through the elevation of Hb A2, which is demonstrated by electrophoresis. In beta thalassaemia patients, the Hb A2 level is typically around 4-6%.
It is important to note that in rare cases where there is severe iron deficiency, the increased Hb A2 level may not be observed. However, it becomes evident with iron repletion. Additionally, patients with the rare delta-beta thalassaemia trait do not exhibit an increased Hb A2 level.
In summary, the diagnosis of beta thalassaemia can be suggested through certain symptoms and blood tests, but it is confirmed through the measurement of Hb A2 levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old African-American has marked left-sided weakness and an expressive aphasia. He is diagnosed with a stroke. Blood results show the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 90 g/l 135–175 g/l
Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
calcium 3.80 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
creatinine 128 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which investigation is likely to reveal the cause of this man’s stroke?Your Answer: MRI head
Correct Answer: Urinary Bence Jones proteins
Explanation:Investigations for a Patient with Stroke and Suspected Multiple Myeloma
When a patient presents with symptoms of stroke and possible multiple myeloma, several investigations may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the cause of the stroke. The mnemonic CRAB (high Calcium, Renal insufficiency, Anaemia and Bone lesions) can help identify the key symptoms of multiple myeloma.
One potential test is a urinary Bence Jones protein test, which can confirm the presence of multiple myeloma. However, this test alone cannot determine the cause of the stroke.
An MRI of the head may show areas of damage, but it will not reveal the cause of the stroke. A CT scan of the head, on the other hand, can identify changes caused by an ischaemic stroke, but it cannot differentiate the cause of the clot.
Liver function tests and X-rays of the spine are not first-line investigations for this condition, but they may be useful in identifying bone lesions associated with multiple myeloma.
Overall, a combination of tests and imaging may be necessary to diagnose and treat a patient with stroke and suspected multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman comes to Haematology complaining of fatigue, anaemia and splenomegaly. She is diagnosed with a genetic disorder that causes abnormal blood cell shape due to a dysfunctional membrane protein. As a result, these cells are broken down by the spleen, leading to haemolytic anaemia and splenomegaly. What is the most probable abnormality observed in a blood film of individuals with this condition?
Your Answer: Sphere-shaped red blood cells
Explanation:Understanding Abnormalities in Red Blood Cells: Hereditary Spherocytosis and Other Conditions
Hereditary spherocytosis is an inherited condition that causes red blood cells to take on a sphere shape instead of their normal biconcave disc shape. This abnormality leads to increased rupture of red blood cells in capillaries and increased degradation by the spleen, resulting in hypersplenism, splenomegaly, and haemolytic anaemia. Patients with hereditary spherocytosis often present with jaundice, splenomegaly, anaemia, and fatigue.
Schistocytes, irregular and jagged fragments of red blood cells, are not typically seen in hereditary spherocytosis. They are the result of mechanical destruction of red blood cells in conditions such as haemolytic anaemia.
Acanthocytes or spur cells, which have a spiked, irregular surface due to deposition of lipids and/or proteins on the membrane, are not typically seen in hereditary spherocytosis. They are seen in several conditions, including cirrhosis, anorexia nervosa, and pancreatitis.
Microcytic red blood cells, which are smaller than normal red blood cells but have a normal shape, are typically seen in iron deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, and anaemia of chronic disease.
Teardrop-shaped red blood cells are seen in conditions where there is an abnormality of bone marrow function, such as myelofibrosis. This is different from hereditary spherocytosis, which is a primary disorder of abnormal red blood cell shape.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 45-year-old patient presents with the following full blood count (FBC) result: Hb 105 g/L (130-180), RBC 4.5 ×1012/L, Hct 0.353 (0.4-0.52), MCV 75 fL (80-96), MCH 32.5 pg (28-32), Platelets 325 ×109/L (150-400), WBC 7.91 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 6.15 ×109/L (1.5-7.0), Lymphocytes 1.54 ×109/L (1.5-4.0), Monocytes 0.33 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.16 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), Basophils 0.08 ×109/L (0-0.1), Others 0.14 ×109/L. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation for this FBC result?
Your Answer: Ferritin concentration
Explanation:Interpretation of FBC Results
When analyzing a full blood count (FBC), a microcytosis with low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and anaemia (low Hb) is indicative of iron deficiency anaemia. To confirm this, a ferritin test should be requested, followed by an investigation into the source of blood loss if iron deficiency is confirmed. If faecal occult blood is positive, an endoscopy may be necessary. On the other hand, macrocytic anaemia with elevated MCV is caused by folate and B12 deficiency, while hypothyroidism is associated with elevated MCV. While a bone marrow biopsy can also show iron deficiency, it is an invasive procedure and is not necessary in a primary care setting. Therefore, interpreting FBC results requires a thorough of the different types of anaemia and their associated causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male has a history of severe rheumatoid arthritis for the past four years. Despite being compliant with therapy (NSAIDs and methotrexate), the disease remains poorly controlled. Recently, he has been experiencing extreme fatigue. Upon conducting an FBC, the following results were obtained:
- Haemoglobin 70 g/L (120-160)
- White cell count 1.5 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelet count 40 ×109/L (150-400)
What could be the possible cause of his pancytopenia?Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Pancytopenia in a Patient with Erosive Rheumatoid Arthritis
This patient is showing signs of pancytopenia, a condition where there is a decrease in all three blood cell types (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Given her history of erosive rheumatoid arthritis for the past three years, it is likely that she has been on immunosuppressive therapy, which can lead to this type of blood disorder.
Immunosuppressive drugs such as methotrexate, sulfasalazine, penicillamine, and gold can all have an impact on blood cell production and lead to pancytopenia. It is important to monitor patients on these medications for any signs of blood disorders and adjust treatment accordingly. Early detection and management can prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents with fatigue, pallor and shortness of breath. He has been battling with an indolent colon carcinoma for the past 5 years. He also suffers from insulin-dependent diabetes, hypertension, coronary artery disease and rheumatoid arthritis. He has been feeling unwell for the past few weeks. He denies any history of melaena or haematochezia and has been amenorrhoeic for decades. A bedside stool guaiac test is negative for any blood in the stool. He is well nourished, reports taking daily supplements and is not a vegetarian. He reports that his haematocrit is 0.28 (0.35–0.55) and haemoglobin level 100 g/l (115–155 g/l).
What additional findings would you expect to observe in his full blood count?Your Answer: Increased ferritin
Explanation:Understanding Anaemia of Chronic Disease: Increased Ferritin and Decreased TIBC
Anaemia of chronic disease is a type of anaemia that is commonly seen in patients with chronic inflammatory conditions. It is characterised by a low haemoglobin level and low haematocrit, but unlike iron deficiency anaemia, it is associated with increased ferritin levels and decreased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). This is because ferritin is a serum reactive protein that is elevated in response to the underlying inflammatory process.
Diagnosis of anaemia of chronic disease requires the presence of a chronic inflammatory condition and anaemia, which can be either normocytic or microcytic. It is important to note that a haemoglobin level of <80 g/l is very rarely associated with this type of anaemia. Treatment involves addressing the underlying disorder causing the anaemia and monitoring the haemoglobin level. Blood transfusion is only used in severe cases. It is important to differentiate anaemia of chronic disease from other types of anaemia. For example, it is characterised by a low reticulocyte count, and not reticulocytosis. Serum transferrin receptor is not affected in anaemia of chronic disease and would therefore be normal. Additionally, TIBC is reduced in anaemia of chronic disease, whereas it is increased in iron deficiency anaemia. Finally, anaemia of chronic disease is associated with either microcytosis or normocytosis, whereas macrocytosis is associated with other types of anaemia such as folate deficiency, vitamin B12 deficiency, alcohol excess, and myelodysplastic disease. In summary, understanding the unique features of anaemia of chronic disease, such as increased ferritin and decreased TIBC, can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which autoantibody is correctly matched with its associated disease in the following list?
Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia and anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
Explanation:Autoimmune Disorders and Associated Antibodies
Autoimmune disorders occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells and tissues in the body. These disorders are often associated with the presence of specific antibodies that can help diagnose and monitor the disease. Here are some examples:
Pernicious Anaemia and Anti-Intrinsic Factor Antibodies
Pernicious anaemia is a type of anaemia caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. It is associated with the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies, which bind to intrinsic factor and prevent the absorption of vitamin B12 in the gut.Primary Biliary Cholangitis and Anti-Jo-1 Antibodies
Primary biliary cholangitis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the liver. It is associated with the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies, but not anti-Jo-1 antibodies, which are associated with other autoimmune disorders like polymyositis and dermatomyositis.Myasthenia Gravis and Voltage-Gated Calcium Channel Antibodies
Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue. It is associated with the presence of anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies, but not anti-striated muscle antibodies, which are found in other autoimmune disorders.Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA) and Anti-Myeloperoxidase (p-ANCA) Antibody
GPA is a type of vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized blood vessels. It is associated with the presence of cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (c-ANCA), but not p-ANCA, which are found in other types of vasculitis.Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis and Thyroid-Stimulating Antibodies
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is associated with the presence of anti-thyroglobulin and anti-thyroperoxidase antibodies, which attack the thyroid gland and cause inflammation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient presented with red rashes on their feet. Upon examination, they were found to be pale with purpuric spots on their lower legs. Their temperature was 38.3 °C and they also complained of nausea. On the second day of admission, their fever increased and they became disoriented. New bleeding spots started appearing on their face. Blood reports revealed low hemoglobin, high white cell count, low platelets, and high creatinine levels. A peripheral blood smear showed helmet cells and anisocytosis. The CSF study was normal. What test should be done next for this patient?
Your Answer: Antiplatelet antibody
Correct Answer: Urinary β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)
Explanation:The patient is presenting with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), which is characterized by low platelet count due to clotting and platelet sequestration in small vessels. TTP is associated with haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenic purpura, fever, and neurological and renal abnormalities. The patient’s risk factors for TTP include being female, obese, pregnant, and of Afro-Caribbean origin. To determine the appropriate management, a urinary β-hCG test should be performed to establish pregnancy status. The first-line treatment for TTP is plasma exchange with fresh frozen plasma. Blood cultures should also be performed to check for underlying septicaemia. Antiplatelet antibody titres can be raised in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), but ITP does not cause renal failure. A bone marrow study is appropriate to rule out leukaemia. Illicit drug use should also be considered as a cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic with complaints of abdominal discomfort and bloating that have been progressively worsening over the past few months. Upon examination, her GP discovered a complex left ovarian cyst. Which blood test would be the most useful in determining if the cyst is cancerous?
Your Answer: CA125
Explanation:Tumor Markers and Their Association with Different Cancers
Tumor markers are substances that are produced by cancer cells or by normal cells in response to cancer. These markers can be used to detect the presence of cancer, monitor the progress of treatment, and detect the recurrence of cancer. One such tumor marker is CA125, which is associated with ovarian carcinoma. However, elevations in CA125 can also be seen in uterine cancer, pancreas, stomach, and colonic tumors. In some cases, benign ovarian tumors can also cause a rise in CA125 levels. If a patient has a CA125 level of over 200U/ml and an abnormal ultrasound scan, it is highly likely that they have ovarian carcinoma.
Other tumor markers include CA19-9, which is primarily associated with pancreatic tumors, beta-HCG, which is associated with germ cell tumors, alpha-fetoprotein, which is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen, which is associated with colonic carcinoma. While AFP and beta-HCG can rarely be secreted by ovarian tumors, it is important to check CA125 levels first, as they are much more frequently elevated. By monitoring tumor markers, doctors can detect cancer early and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 13
Correct
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What is true for a patient with blood type group O before receiving a blood transfusion?
Your Answer: The red cells have absent A/B antigen and plasma has anti A and anti B antibodies
Explanation:Blood Groups
Blood groups are determined by the presence or absence of certain antigens on the surface of red blood cells and the corresponding antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group O has no A or B antigens on the red cells and has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group AB has both A and B antigens on the red cells but no antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group A has only A antigens on the red cells and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group B has only B antigens on the red cells and anti-A antibodies in the plasma. It is important to know your blood group for medical purposes, such as blood transfusions, as incompatible blood types can cause serious health complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents to his GP after discovering a low haemoglobin level during a routine blood donation. He has been experiencing fatigue and breathlessness during mild exertion for the past few weeks. He has donated blood twice before, with the most recent donation being a year ago. He has been taking 30 mg lansoprazole daily for several years to manage his acid reflux, which is well controlled. He also takes cetirizine for hay fever. He denies any nausea, vomiting, changes in bowel habits, or blood in his stools or urine. His diet is diverse, and he is not a vegetarian or vegan. Physical examinations of his chest and abdomen are normal, and urinalysis is unremarkable. The following are his blood test results:
- Haemoglobin: 100 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l)
- Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 72.0 fl (normal range: 82-100 fl)
- White cell count (WCC): 6.1 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l)
- Platelets: 355 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
- Ferritin: 6.0 µg/l (normal range: 20-250 µg/l)
- Immunoglobulin A (IgA) tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTGA) is negative, and IgA level is normal.
What is the most appropriate initial management step?Your Answer: Trial of oral iron (eg ferrous sulphate), with repeat full blood count in 3 weeks
Correct Answer: Referral to gastroenterology
Explanation:Management of Unexplained Microcytic Anemia with Low Ferritin
Unexplained microcytic anemia with low ferritin levels requires prompt investigation to identify the underlying cause. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, men with unexplained iron deficiency anemia and a hemoglobin level below 110 g/l should be urgently referred for upper and lower gastrointestinal investigations, regardless of age. A trial of oral iron may be appropriate in pregnant women or premenopausal women with a history of menorrhagia and without gastrointestinal symptoms or a family history of gastrointestinal cancer.
A faecal occult blood test is not recommended as it has poor sensitivity and specificity. Referral to haematology is not necessary as first-line investigations would be upper and lower gastrointestinal investigations, and thus a referral to gastroenterology would be warranted. It is important to rule out blood loss, in particular, through gastrointestinal investigations, before implicating poor dietary intake as the cause of the patient’s low iron stores and microcytic anemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presented with fever and body ache for 6 months. His blood tests revealed a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 121 mm in the first hour. Serum protein electrophoresis revealed an M band in the gamma globulin region with a total IgG level of 70 g/l. Bone marrow biopsy shows plasma cells in the marrow of 11%. A skeletal survey reveals no abnormalities. Other blood tests revealed:
Test Parameter Normal range
Calcium 2.60 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Creatinine 119 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Phosphate 1.30 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Lactate dehydrogenase 399 IU/l 100–190 IU/l
His body weight was 80 kg.
What is his condition better known as?Your Answer: Multiple myeloma
Correct Answer: Smouldering myeloma
Explanation:Smouldering myeloma is a stage between monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance (MGUS) and myeloma. To diagnose this condition, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of at least 30 g/l and monoclonal plasma cells of at least 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, but no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients with smouldering myeloma should be closely monitored as they are at high risk of developing symptomatic myeloma.
Multiple myeloma is a malignant neoplasm where there is clonal proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to the secretion of a monoclonal antibody and light immunoglobulin chains that cause organ damage. Patients with multiple myeloma present with various symptoms, including lethargy, bone pain, pathological fractures, renal impairment, amyloidosis, and pancytopenia due to marrow infiltration. To diagnose multiple myeloma, the patient must have a monoclonal antibody in serum and/or urine, clonal plasma cells of at least 10% on bone marrow biopsy, and evidence of end-organ damage.
MGUS is a condition where low levels of paraprotein are detected in the blood, but they are not causing clinically significant symptoms or end-organ damage. To diagnose MGUS, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of less than or equal to 30 g/l, monoclonal plasma cells of less than or equal to 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, and no evidence of end-organ damage.
Non-secretory myeloma is a rare variant of multiple myeloma where the bone marrow findings and end-organ damage are similar to myeloma, but there is no detectable monoclonal protein in the serum or urine. This makes it difficult to diagnose.
Plasma cell leukemia is a rare and aggressive form of multiple myeloma characterized by high levels of plasma cells circulating in the peripheral blood. It can occur as a primary condition or a secondary leukaemic transformation of multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 16
Correct
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A patient on a medical ward received a transfusion 72 hours ago for symptomatic anaemia on a background of chronic renal disease and obstructive airways disease. He has a history of previous transfusions in the last six months. The patient, who is in his 60s, has now dropped his Hb by 20 g/L compared to his pretransfusion level and reports a dark coloured urine. The LDH and bilirubin are elevated. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?
Your Answer: Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction
Explanation:Delayed Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction
A delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction can occur 24 hours after a transfusion in patients who have been previously immunised through transfusions or pregnancy. Initially, the antibodies are not detectable, but they become apparent as a secondary immune response to the antigen exposure during the transfusion. In such cases, it is essential to carry out a haemoglobin level, blood film, LDH, direct antiglobulin test, renal profile, serum bilirubin, haptoglobin, and urinalysis for haemoglobinuria. Additionally, the group and antibody screen should be repeated.
It is unlikely that the patient is experiencing a transfusion-associated graft versus host disease or acute hepatitis as both would occur within a week or two. Furthermore, this is not an acute haemolysis that would be expected to occur during the transfusion. The rise in bilirubin and LDH levels indicates a haemolytic reaction. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor the patient’s condition and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 17
Correct
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The most common error in transfusion according to the SHOT (serious hazards of transfusion) analysis?
Your Answer: Wrong identification or mislabelling of patient or sample
Explanation:Common Causes of Transfusion Errors
Mislabelling of samples, requests, or misidentifying recipients are the most frequent causes of transfusion errors. This was confirmed by the SHOT study, which examined transfusion errors and near-misses in a nationwide audit in the United Kingdom. Although other errors, such as cross-match errors, incorrect storage, and transfusion reactions due to undetected antibodies, do occur, they are infrequent.
In summary, the SHOT study found that the most common causes of transfusion errors are related to labelling and identification. Therefore, it is crucial to implement strict protocols and procedures to ensure that samples and requests are correctly labelled and recipients are accurately identified to prevent these errors from occurring. While other errors may occur, they are rare and can be mitigated through proper training and adherence to established guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 23-year-old female patient presents at the clinic for a check-up. She complains of irregular, heavy menstrual periods, has a BMI of 30 kg/m2, and experiences acne and excessive facial hair growth. She is not taking any medication. Her sister has been diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), and she suspects that she may have the same condition.
During the physical examination, her blood pressure is 149/90 mmHg, and her pulse is regular at 78 bpm. She has excessive hair growth on her beard line and upper torso, and central obesity. However, the rest of her physical examination is normal.
Which blood test is the most diagnostic for PCOS?Your Answer: Total/free testosterone
Explanation:Diagnosis and Associated Risks of Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is diagnosed when there is evidence of at least two out of three features, with other potential causes excluded. These features include oligoamenorrhoea, elevated levels of total/free testosterone (or clinical features suggestive of hyperandrogenism), or the presence of polycystic ovaries on ultrasound. While an extremely marked elevation in testosterone can suggest an androgen-secreting tumor, this is rare. Additionally, raised luteinising hormone (LH) with a normal follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) can lead to an elevated LH/FSH ratio, but this is not diagnostic.
PCOS is associated with an increased risk of impaired glucose tolerance, although this may take a number of years to become apparent. Furthermore, there may be a reduction in levels of oestriol, although this is not always a consistent finding. It is important to diagnose PCOS early on to manage the associated risks and prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man experiences sudden paralysis on the right side of his body. He has been a smoker for 30 years, consuming 15 cigarettes a day. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2°C, pulse 80/minute, respiratory rate 18/minute, and blood pressure 150/95 mm Hg. An angiogram of the brain shows blockage in a branch of the middle cerebral artery. Laboratory results indicate a haemoglobin A1c level of 80 mmol/mol (9.5%). Which component of blood lipids is the most significant factor in contributing to his condition?
Your Answer: High density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol
Correct Answer: Oxidised low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
Explanation:The patient had a stroke likely caused by cerebral atherosclerosis or embolic disease from the heart due to ischaemic heart disease from atherosclerosis. LDL brings cholesterol to arterial walls, and when there is increased LDL or hypertension, smoking, and diabetes, there is more degradation of LDL to oxidised LDL which is taken up into arterial walls via scavenger receptors in macrophages to help form atheromas. Chylomicrons transport exogenous products and are formed in intestinal epithelial cells. HDL particles remove cholesterol from the circulation and transport it back to the liver for excretion or re-utilisation. Lipoprotein lipase hydrolyses triglycerides in lipoproteins and promotes cellular uptake of chylomicron remnants, lipoproteins, and free fatty acids. VLDL transports endogenous triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol and cholesteryl esters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 20
Correct
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What is true regarding the production of pooled plasma derivatives?
Your Answer: The end product is a freeze dried product
Explanation:Preparation of Plasma Derivatives
The preparation of plasma derivatives, such as factor VIII, involves pooling several thousand plasma donations, typically 20,000 or 5,000 kg of plasma at a time. To avoid the risk of vCJD, pooled plasma has been sourced from outside the UK since 1999. The process includes several chemical steps, including ethanol extraction, chromatography, and viral inactivation, resulting in a freeze-dried product. These products have a long shelf life of several months to years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which statement about rhesus antibodies in pregnancy is correct?
Your Answer: D positive women are less likely than D negative women to form antibodies to other red cell antigens (such as Kell and Duffy)
Correct Answer: Following delivery, the degree of fetomaternal haemorrhage should be calculated on a blood sample from a D negative mother
Explanation:Important Points to Remember about Fetomaternal Haemorrhage
Following the delivery of a baby, it is crucial to determine the degree of fetomaternal haemorrhage (FMH) in a D negative mother. This is done by analyzing a blood sample to adjust the dose of anti-D in the mother if she has delivered a D positive child. It is important to note that D positive and D negative women have the same likelihood of developing antibodies to other red cell antigens. Therefore, all pregnant women should undergo a blood group and antibody screen in their first trimester or at the time of presentation, whichever comes first. The fetal Rh type is determined by the Rh typing of both the mother and father. Additionally, maternal antibody titres are indicative of the degree of haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). For more information on the management of women with red cell antibodies during pregnancy, refer to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) Green-top Guideline No. 65.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman who gave birth three weeks ago is feeling very fatigued after walking to the park and back. The birth was via a caesarean section and she needed one unit of blood transfusion. She visits her family doctor and denies experiencing any chest pain, heart palpitations, shortness of breath, or further bleeding.
During the examination, there are no indications of ongoing bleeding, and the caesarean section incision is healing properly. The blood test results are as follows:
- Hb 95 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
- Platelets 240 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 7.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Ferritin 6 µg/L (15 - 300)
What is the minimum haemoglobin level for this patient to be prescribed iron supplements?Your Answer: <100 g/L
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The appropriate cut-off for determining if iron supplementation is necessary in the postpartum period is <100 g/L. It is important to continue oral iron for three months after normalizing ferritin levels to ensure adequate stores for efficient oxygen delivery to the tissues. Cut-offs of <105 g/L, <110 g/L, and <120 g/L are incorrect for iron supplementation in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, first trimester of pregnancy, and postpartum period, respectively. However, the decision to administer iron for anaemia should be based on the doctor's discretion and the patient's symptoms. During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum. If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What are the products of VLDL digestion by lipoprotein lipase in peripheral tissues?
Your Answer: Oxidised low density lipoprotein
Correct Answer: Low density lipoprotein (LDL) and free fatty acids
Explanation:Different types of lipoproteins carry lipids and cholesterol throughout the body. Chylomicrons transport dietary lipids, VLDLs transport liver-synthesized lipids, LDLs carry cholesterol, and HDLs transport cholesterol back to the liver for breakdown. Fatty acids are broken down by pancreatic lipase and absorbed as free fatty acids and monoglycerides, which are then reformed into triglycerides and packaged into chylomicrons. The liver processes chylomicron remnants and liposomes into various lipoprotein forms, including VLDL and LDL. Apolipoproteins are proteins that bind to lipids to form lipoproteins. HDL particles remove cholesterol from circulation and transport it back to the liver. Oxidized LDL is harmful to the body and promotes atherosclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old donor experiences a sudden fainting spell during blood donation. What should be the immediate course of action to manage this adverse event?
Your Answer: Check now if the haemoglobin of the donor meets the minimum requirement for donation
Correct Answer: Temporarily cease the donation, consider fluid replacement and elevate the donor's legs
Explanation:Donor safety is important in blood donation. Fainting is a common adverse event and should be treated by stopping the donation and reviving the donor. Elevation of the legs and monitoring vitals is necessary. Donors should be counseled on pre-donation expectations and encouraged to drink fluids after recovery. Hemoglobin checks are no longer required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic with a four-month history of abdominal swelling and discomfort along with breathlessness. Upon examination, he appears unwell and pale. The liver is palpable 12 cm below the right costal margin, and the spleen is palpable 15 cm below the left costal margin. No lymphadenopathy is detected. The following investigations were conducted:
Hb 59 g/L (130-180)
RBC 2.1 ×1012/L -
PCV 0.17 l/l -
MCH 30 pg (28-32)
MCV 82 fL (80-96)
Reticulocytes 1.4% (0.5-2.4)
Total WBC 23 ×109/L (4-11)
Normoblasts 8% -
Platelets 280 ×109/L (150-400)
Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7)
Lymphocytes 5.2 ×109/L (1.5-4)
Monocytes 1.3 ×109/L (0-0.8)
Eosinophils 0.2 ×109/L (0.04-0.4)
Basophils 0.2 ×109/L (0-0.1)
Metamyelocytes 5.1 ×109/L -
Myelocytes 1.6 ×109/L -
Blast cells 0.4 ×109/L -
The blood film shows anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, and occasional erythrocyte tear drop cells. What is the correct term for this blood picture?Your Answer: Myeloid leukaemia
Correct Answer: Leukoerythroblastic anaemia
Explanation:Leukoerythroblastic Reactions and Myelofibrosis
Leukoerythroblastic reactions refer to a condition where the peripheral blood contains immature white cells and nucleated red cells, regardless of the total white cell count. This means that even if the overall white cell count is normal, the presence of immature white cells and nucleated red cells can indicate a leukoerythroblastic reaction. Additionally, circulating blasts may also be seen in this condition.
On the other hand, myelofibrosis is characterized by the presence of tear drop cells. These cells are not typically seen in other conditions and are therefore considered a hallmark of myelofibrosis. Tear drop cells are red blood cells that have been distorted due to the presence of fibrous tissue in the bone marrow. This condition can lead to anemia, fatigue, and other symptoms.
Overall, both leukoerythroblastic reactions and myelofibrosis are conditions that can be identified through specific characteristics in the peripheral blood. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these findings in order to properly diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency assessment unit with concerns of fluid leakage from her vagina. Upon examination, her pad is saturated with what appears to be amniotic fluid. What component of the fluid may indicate premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?
Your Answer: Prolactin
Correct Answer: Alpha fetoprotein
Explanation:Using Biomarkers to Detect Premature Rupture of Membranes
Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) can be difficult to diagnose in some cases. In 2006, a study was conducted to determine if measuring certain biomarkers in vaginal fluid could be used as an indicator of membrane rupture. The study found that alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) had the highest accuracy in predicting PROM, with a specificity and sensitivity of 94%. This suggests that AFP could be used as a marker in cases where diagnosis is uncertain.
In addition to AFP, other biomarkers have been identified for different purposes. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumor marker for colon cancer, while cancer antigen 125 (CA125) is a tumor marker for ovarian cancer. By measuring these biomarkers, doctors can detect the presence of cancer and monitor its progression. Overall, biomarkers have proven to be a valuable tool in diagnosing and monitoring various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman on vacation complained of a swollen left calf. She mentioned having the 'factor V Leiden mutation'. Can you explain the pathophysiology of this mutation?
Your Answer: Activated protein C resistance
Explanation:Factor V Leiden: A Genetic Condition Affecting Blood Clotting
Factor V is a protein that acts as a cofactor to allow the generation of an enzyme called thrombin, which is responsible for cleaving fibrinogen to fibrin. This process leads to the formation of a dense meshwork that makes up the majority of a clot. Activated protein C (aPC) is a natural anticoagulant that limits clotting by degrading factor V. However, in individuals with Factor V Leiden, a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, the coagulation factor cannot be destroyed by aPC.
Factor V Leiden is caused by a single nucleotide substitution of adenine for guanine in the gene encoding factor V. This mutation changes the protein’s 506th amino acid from arginine to glutamine, which prevents efficient inactivation of factor V. As a result, factor V remains active, leading to overproduction of thrombin and excess fibrin generation, which in turn causes excess clotting.
In summary, Factor V Leiden is a genetic condition that affects blood clotting by preventing the efficient inactivation of factor V. This leads to excess clotting, which can increase the risk of developing blood clots and related complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old Afro-Caribbean male with sickle cell disease complains of right upper abdominal pain and exhibits tenderness upon palpation. What diagnostic test should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Abdominal X ray
Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan
Explanation:Pigment Gallstones and High Haem Turnover
In cases of chronic haemolysis, such as sickle cell disease or thalassaemia, the presence of unconjugated bilirubin in bile can lead to the formation of pigment gallstones. These stones are black in color and are caused by the precipitation of calcium bilirubinate from solution. The high concentration of unconjugated bilirubin in bile is a result of the increased turnover of haemoglobin. This can cause pain and discomfort for the patient. It is important to manage the underlying condition causing the high haem turnover to prevent the formation of pigment gallstones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Correct
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Who among the following prospective blood donors would be ineligible to donate whole blood or plasma?
Your Answer: A 32-year-old lady whose sister was diagnosed with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease three years ago
Explanation:Blood Donation Guidelines
Blood donation guidelines set by the National Blood Service UK state that individuals who have a family member (parent or sibling) with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease cannot donate blood. This is due to the risk of transmitting the disease through blood transfusion.
Other factors that may exclude individuals from donating blood include hepatitis or jaundice within the last 12 months, acupuncture within the last four months (unless performed by a registered professional), body piercing or tattoos within the last six months, any infection within the preceding two weeks, or a course of antibiotics within the last seven days.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the donor and the recipient. By excluding individuals who may have a higher risk of transmitting diseases or infections, the blood supply can remain safe and effective for those in need of transfusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her parents. She is worried about not having started her periods yet, while many of her peers have. Her medical history includes a lack of sense of smell, which she has had since childhood. On examination, she has normal height, early breast development, and minimal secondary sexual hair. Her BMI is 22. What blood test would be most helpful in determining the underlying cause of her amenorrhea?
Your Answer: Growth hormone
Correct Answer: FSH
Explanation:Kallmann’s Syndrome and its Differential Diagnosis
Anosmia and primary amenorrhoea are two symptoms that may indicate the presence of Kallmann’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by the underdevelopment of the olfactory bulb, which leads to a loss of the sense of smell, and the failure to produce gonadotrophin releasing hormone. As a result, low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone may cause a partial or complete failure to enter puberty in women.
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, on the other hand, may cause electrolyte imbalances, but it is typically associated with abnormal female virilization. Prolactinoma, a type of pituitary tumor, is usually linked to secondary amenorrhoea. Meanwhile, thyrotoxicosis, a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, may cause menstrual cessation, but it is less likely to be the cause of primary amenorrhoea, especially in the absence of hyperthyroidism symptoms.
In summary, Kallmann’s syndrome should be considered as a possible diagnosis in patients presenting with anosmia and primary amenorrhoea. However, other conditions such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia, prolactinoma, and thyrotoxicosis should also be ruled out through proper evaluation and testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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