00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - What is the blood product that poses the greatest risk of bacterial infection...

    Incorrect

    • What is the blood product that poses the greatest risk of bacterial infection transmission during transfusion?

      Your Answer: Packed red cells

      Correct Answer: Platelets

      Explanation:

      Storage Conditions and Bacterial Contamination Risk in Blood Products

      Platelets, which are stored at room temperature, have the highest risk of bacterial contamination among all blood products. On the other hand, packed red cells are stored at an average of 4°C, while fresh frozen plasma and cryoprecipitate are stored at −20°C. Factor VIII concentrates, which are heat inactivated freeze dried products, have a minimal risk of bacterial contamination.

      It is important to note that the risk of bacterial contamination in blood products is directly related to their storage conditions. Therefore, proper storage and handling of blood products is crucial to ensure their safety and efficacy. By following strict guidelines and protocols, healthcare professionals can minimize the risk of bacterial contamination and ensure that patients receive safe and effective blood products.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 58-year-old male presents with macrocytic anaemia and a megaloblastic bone marrow. What...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old male presents with macrocytic anaemia and a megaloblastic bone marrow. What is the most probable cause of his macrocytosis?

      Your Answer: Folate deficiency

      Explanation:

      Megaloblastic Bone Marrow and Its Causes

      A megaloblastic bone marrow is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, as well as some cytotoxic drugs. This condition is characterized by the presence of large, immature red blood cells in the bone marrow. However, other causes of macrocytosis, which is the presence of abnormally large red blood cells in the bloodstream, do not result in a megaloblastic bone marrow appearance. It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytosis to determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 14-year-old girl with known sickle-cell disease presents to the Emergency Department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl with known sickle-cell disease presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain.
      On examination, she is found to have a tachycardia of 130 bpm, with generalised abdominal tenderness and 3 cm splenomegaly. Blood tests reveal marked anaemia, and a diagnosis of splenic sequestration crisis is considered.
      Which blood vessel in the spleen is most responsible for monitoring the quality of red blood cells and removing aged ones from circulation?

      Your Answer: Trabecular artery

      Correct Answer: Splenic sinusoid

      Explanation:

      The Anatomy of the Spleen: Splenic Sinusoids, Trabecular Veins, Arteries, and Sheathed Capillaries

      The spleen is an important organ in the immune system, responsible for filtering blood and removing old or damaged red blood cells. Its unique anatomy allows it to perform this function effectively.

      One key component of the spleen is the splenic sinusoid. These sinusoids are lined with elongated, cuboidal endothelial cells that are closely associated with macrophages. The gaps between the endothelial cells and incomplete basement membrane allow for the passage of red blood cells, with younger and more deformable cells passing through easily while older or abnormal cells are more readily destroyed by the macrophages.

      The trabecular veins receive blood from the splenic sinusoids, while the trabecular arteries are branches of the afferent splenic artery. These arteries pass deep into the spleen along connective tissue trabeculae and branch into central arteries that pass through the white pulp of the spleen.

      The central arteries then lead to sheathed capillaries, which are branches of the central arteries. These capillaries open directly into the red pulp of the spleen, allowing for further filtration and removal of old or damaged red blood cells.

      Overall, the anatomy of the spleen is complex and specialized, allowing it to perform its important functions in the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old woman presents with headaches and nosebleeds and is found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with headaches and nosebleeds and is found to have a raised platelet count. She is diagnosed with essential thrombocytosis by the haematologist.
      Which of the following might be used to treat essential thrombocytosis?

      Your Answer: Ranitidine

      Correct Answer: Hydroxyurea

      Explanation:

      Common Medications and Their Uses

      Thrombocytosis and Hydroxyurea
      Thrombocytosis is a condition characterized by an elevated platelet count, which can lead to bleeding or thrombosis. Primary or essential thrombocytosis is a myeloproliferative disorder that results in overproduction of platelets by the bone marrow. Hydroxyurea is the first-line treatment for essential thrombocytosis, as it inhibits an enzyme involved in DNA synthesis and reduces the rate of platelet production.

      Interferon Gamma for Immunomodulation
      Interferon gamma is an immunomodulatory medication used to reduce the frequency of infections in patients with chronic granulomatous disease and severe malignant osteopetrosis. It is administered by subcutaneous injection.

      Cromoglycate for Inflammation
      Sodium cromoglycate is a synthetic non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used in the treatment of asthma, allergic rhinitis, and various food allergies.

      Interferon β for Multiple Sclerosis
      Interferon β is a cytokine used in the treatment of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. It is administered subcutaneously.

      Ranitidine for Acid Reduction
      Ranitidine is a H2 (histamine) receptor blocker that inhibits the production of acid in the stomach. It can be used in the treatment of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, peptic ulcer disease, and gastritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his neck. He reports no other symptoms. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 100 g/l and a white cell count of 23 × 109/l. A blood film reveals smear cells, with more than 60% of the cells being small mature lymphocytes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Leukaemia and Lymphoma: Understanding CLL and Other Types

      Leukaemia and lymphoma are two types of blood cancers that can present with similar symptoms. However, each type has distinct characteristics that can help differentiate them. Among the different types of leukaemia and lymphoma, B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (B-CLL) is the most common leukaemia in adults. It is characterized by peripheral blood lymphocytosis and uncontrolled proliferation of B cell lymphocytes in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and splenomegaly. Patients with CLL are often asymptomatic, and the condition is often picked up incidentally.

      In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is a common leukaemia of children aged 2–5 years and is very rare in adults. Multiple myeloma, on the other hand, is the uncontrolled proliferation of plasma cells and presents with bone pain, hypercalcaemia, renal failure, and neutropenia. Chronic myeloid leukaemia tends to present with more systemic, B symptoms in a slightly younger age group, and a classic symptom is massive hepatosplenomegaly.

      While lymphoma is a possibility in this age group, CLL is the most likely diagnosis as it is more common in this age group and in the western world. Further investigation would be used to confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the characteristics of each type of leukaemia and lymphoma can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 6-year-old child of African descent presents with a 2-day history of increasing...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old child of African descent presents with a 2-day history of increasing abdominal pain. It is not associated with nausea or vomiting, and the bowels are opening regularly. The child’s mother tells you that he has had a few episodes of similar symptoms in the past, but none as severe.
      On examination, the child has generalised abdominal tenderness, and splenomegaly is noted. After further investigation, the child is diagnosed with sickle-cell anaemia.
      Which organ is most responsible for the removal of sickled red blood cells from the circulatory system?

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The Role of Organs in Immune Surveillance and Blood Production

      The human body has several organs that play a crucial role in immune surveillance and blood production. The spleen, for instance, is responsible for removing abnormal and aged red blood cells from circulation and monitoring the blood for immune purposes. However, in sickle-cell anaemia patients, the spleen can become non-functional due to continuous hypoxic and thrombotic insults, leading to a process called autosplenectomy.

      Lymph nodes, on the other hand, are involved in immunological surveillance of the lymph. They can swell in response to severe bacterial infections in specific body parts, such as the axillary lymph nodes in the case of a hand infection.

      The thymus is responsible for programming pre-T cells to differentiate into T cells, which are responsible for the cellular immune response against pathogenic viruses and fungi and the destruction of malignant cells. It is most active during neonatal and pre-adolescent life.

      The bone marrow is responsible for erythropoiesis, the production of red blood cells. In sickle-cell anaemia patients, erythropoiesis in the bone marrow is stimulated.

      Finally, the liver can become a site of extramedullary erythropoiesis, which means it can produce red blood cells outside of the bone marrow.

      Overall, these organs work together to maintain a healthy immune system and blood production in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia of unknown cause – haemoglobin (Hb) 65 g/l (normal 135–175 g/l). During the third hour of the blood transfusion he spikes a temperature of 38.1°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). Otherwise the patient is asymptomatic and his other observations are normal.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what should you do?

      Your Answer: Temporarily stop transfusion, repeat clerical checks. Then treat with paracetamol and repeat observations more regularly (every 15 minutes)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Non-Haemolytic Febrile Transfusion Reaction

      Non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction is a common acute reaction to plasma proteins during blood transfusions. If a patient experiences this reaction, the transfusion should be temporarily stopped, and clerical checks should be repeated. The patient should be treated with paracetamol, and observations should be repeated more regularly (every 15 minutes).

      If the patient’s temperature is less than 38.5 degrees, and they are asymptomatic with normal observations, the transfusion can be continued with more frequent observations and paracetamol. However, if the patient experiences transfusion-associated circulatory overload, furosemide is a suitable treatment option.

      Adrenaline is not needed unless there are signs of anaphylaxis, and antihistamines are only suitable for urticaria during blood transfusions. Therefore, it is essential to identify the specific type of transfusion reaction and provide appropriate treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient on the ward receiving a blood transfusion after knee replacement surgery...

    Correct

    • A patient on the ward receiving a blood transfusion after knee replacement surgery is noted to have rigors.

      On examination, their temperature is 39°C (baseline 36.5°C). They also complain of abdominal pain and their blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg (baseline 126/84 mmHg).

      What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop the transfusion immediately and commence IV fluids

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction

      When a patient experiences a temperature rise of more than 2°C, abdominal pain, and hypotension after a blood transfusion, an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction should be suspected. In such cases, the transfusion must be stopped immediately, and the set should be taken down. Saline infusion should be initiated to maintain the patient’s blood pressure.

      The blood bank should be notified of the suspected reaction, and a sample may need to be collected for further investigation. However, the priority is to manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent further complications. If the reaction is severe, the transfusion should not be continued.

      In summary, prompt recognition and management of acute haemolytic transfusion reactions are crucial to prevent serious complications. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in monitoring patients who receive blood transfusions and act quickly if any adverse reactions occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man comes to you seeking advice. He had a splenectomy ten...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man comes to you seeking advice. He had a splenectomy ten years ago after a cycling accident and has been in good health since. However, a friend recently told him that he should be receiving treatment for his splenectomy. He is currently not taking any medication.

      What would you recommend to him?

      Your Answer: Pneumococcal vaccination

      Explanation:

      Asplenic Patients and the Importance of Vaccination

      Asplenic patients are individuals who have had their spleen removed, leaving them at risk of overwhelming bacterial infections, particularly from pneumococcus and meningococcus. To prevent such infections, it is recommended that these patients receive the Pneumovax vaccine two weeks before surgery or immediately after emergency surgery. This vaccine should be repeated every five years. Additionally, influenzae vaccination is also recommended to prevent super added bacterial infections.

      While oral penicillin is recommended for children, its long-term use in adults is a topic of debate. However, current guidance suggests that splenectomized patients should receive both antibiotic prophylaxis and appropriate immunization. It is crucial to take these preventative measures to protect asplenic patients from potentially life-threatening infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 5-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 5-month history of night sweats and weight loss. He has no history of cough, shortness of breath or foreign travel. He denies any back or joint pain. He is normally fit and well, except for high blood pressure for which he takes enalapril. He continues to drink ten units of alcohol per week.
      On examination, he is noted to have cervical and groin lymphadenopathy, with an enlarged spleen. The remainder of the examination and observations are normal.
      Which of the following is most likely to be used in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Rituximab

      Explanation:

      The patient in question is displaying symptoms of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, including night sweats, weight loss, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. While other symptoms may include pruritus, fever, and shortness of breath, the most common treatment for progressive non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a combination chemotherapy called R-CHOP, which includes rituximab. Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody used for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis. The other options, including infliximab, lenalidomide, radiotherapy, and rifampicin, are used for different conditions such as Crohn’s disease, multiple myeloma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and tuberculosis, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      65.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (6/10) 60%
Passmed