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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old overweight woman presents to her General Practitioner with right upper-quadrant pain after eating. She drinks around 13 units of alcohol per week.
She undergoes some blood tests:
Investigation Result Normal value
γ-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 90 IU/l 11–50 IU/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 48 IU/l 4–45 IU/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 48 IU/l < 40 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 240 IU/l 25–130 IU/l
Bilirubin 23 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
Albumin 40 g/l 38–50 g/l
Prothrombin time (PT) 12 s 12–14.8 s
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:Interpreting Liver Enzyme Results: Differential Diagnosis
When interpreting liver enzyme results, it is important to consider the pattern of elevation and accompanying symptoms to arrive at a differential diagnosis. Here are some possible diagnoses for a patient with elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) levels:
Gallstones: A cholestatic picture with a more significant rise in ALP and GGT over alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST) suggests an obstructive or cholestatic condition. Accompanied by right upper-quadrant pain after eating, gallstones are the most likely diagnosis.
Alcohol abuse: Disproportionate elevation of GGT compared to other liver enzymes may indicate alcohol abuse or alcoholic liver disease. In this case, the ALP is also elevated to the same extent as the GGT, but the patient drinks below the recommended alcohol intake per week.
Paget’s disease: Paget’s disease may cause bone pain and elevated ALP levels. However, the accompanying rise in GGT provides a sensitive indicator of hepatobiliary disease, which is not associated with skeletal disease.
Pancreatitis: Although raised GGT levels have been reported in pancreatic disease, the accompanying derangement of other liver enzymes suggests a liver or biliary cause.
Viral hepatitis: A cholestatic picture with more significant rises in ALP and GGT over ALT and AST is not typical of acute hepatitis, which presents with a hepatocellular picture.
In summary, interpreting liver enzyme results requires careful consideration of the pattern of elevation and accompanying symptoms to arrive at a differential diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with insulin-dependent type 2 diabetes mellitus has visited his GP after experiencing his second severe hypoglycaemic episode. During both episodes, he had limited awareness and required his wife to administer glucose gel. He currently holds a group 1 driving licence. What advice should be given regarding his ability to drive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop driving immediately and inform the DVLA
Explanation:Individuals with diabetes who have experienced two episodes of hypoglycemia requiring assistance are required to relinquish their driving license.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 85-year-old gentleman with advanced dementia was found to have bradycardia during a routine medical check-up. The patient did not show any symptoms and his general examination was unremarkable. He is currently taking atorvastatin and galantamine. An ECG taken at rest showed sinus bradycardia with a rate of 56 beats per minute. Blood tests, including electrolytes, calcium, magnesium, and thyroid function, were all within normal limits.
What is the MOST APPROPRIATE NEXT step in management? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop galantamine and inform memory clinic
Explanation:Sinus Bradycardia and its Management
Sinus bradycardia is a condition where the heart rate is slower than normal. If the cause of sinus bradycardia is unknown and it doesn’t cause any symptoms, no intervention may be required. However, more information is needed before making a decision. A 24-hour ECG can be useful in characterizing the heart rhythm, but it may take several days to organize as an outpatient.
There is no need to discuss sinus bradycardia with the on-call team unless the patient experiences symptoms such as dizziness, shortness of breath, or chest pain, or if there is evidence of heart failure. It is important to note that statins are not associated with bradycardia, but all AChEs are associated with it, and withholding the drug is necessary if bradycardia occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with concerns about her eyelids drooping. She reports that her family has commented on this for several months and she has also been experiencing double vision and fatigue. Upon further questioning, she mentions difficulty lifting her arms above her head. On examination, there is slight ptosis but no ophthalmoplegia. Power in her arms is slightly reduced for extension, but tone, coordination, and reflexes are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Myasthenia gravis is a condition caused by autoantibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors, resulting in symptoms such as double vision, drooping eyelids, and muscle weakness. It is important to review medication use as certain drugs can worsen symptoms. Testing for anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies is the first step in diagnosis. Thymoma should be ruled out in newly diagnosed patients. Treatment typically involves oral pyridostigmine and, if necessary, surgery for thymoma. Immunomodulatory agents may be used as the disease progresses.
Motor neurone disease, specifically amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is characterized by the degeneration of upper and lower motor neurones, leading to progressive muscle weakness without sensory symptoms.
Multiple sclerosis often presents with a variety of neurological symptoms and signs, including motor, sensory, and autonomic issues. Diagnosis requires objective evidence of dissemination in time and space of typical lesions and the exclusion of other possible explanations.
Myalgic encephalomyelitis, also known as chronic fatigue syndrome, causes long-term fatigue and other symptoms such as cognitive difficulties, sleep disturbance, and muscle and joint pains.
Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory condition with an unknown cause that presents with severe pain and stiffness in the shoulder, neck, and pelvic girdle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You speak with a 27-year-old care assistant who works in the local residential care home. She has a sore throat, fever and rash. She requests antibiotics as she is eager to get back to work for her night shifts in 2 days. Her 4-year-old son recently had a course of antibiotics following a similar presentation.
On examination, she has a fine rough feeling rash on her torso and her tongue appears red and swollen. Her observations are normal.
Given the likely diagnosis, what advice from the options below would be most appropriate to give?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise her that you need to contact the Local Health Protection Agency (HPA) and she should not go into work. If she doesn't consent, confirm that you will still need to inform the HPA
Explanation:Kindly request that she notifies her workplace and the Local Health Protection Agency (HPA) and arranges a discussion with them regarding her return date.
Sharing patient information is crucial for providing safe and effective care, especially in multi-disciplinary teams. However, it is important to ensure that information is shared in a legal and ethical manner while facilitating access to those who require it. Inappropriate sharing of information can have significant consequences for the clinician-patient relationship and the wider profession. Patients generally expect some information to be shared with those involved in their care, but if they object, the information should not be disclosed unless it is justified for the public interest or the patient lacks capacity. It is important to explain the potential consequences of not sharing personal information and reach a compromise where possible.
When sharing information, it is essential to access it to support the patient’s direct care or be satisfied that it is being shared for that purpose. Patients should be informed about how their personal information will be used, and they have the right to object. It is also crucial to ensure that anyone who receives the information understands that it is given in confidence. When sharing information with friends or relatives, it is necessary to establish the patient’s wishes and gain explicit consent. In cases where the patient lacks capacity, it is essential to consider various factors, such as the patient’s beliefs and values, before disclosing information.
Disclosing information without the patient’s express consent is generally not allowed, except when required by law or justified in the public interest. In exceptional circumstances, such as gunshot wounds and knife injuries, the police should be informed, but personal information should not be disclosed initially. It is crucial to follow the relevant guidelines to avoid inappropriate information sharing and maintain transparency between the doctor and patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 67-year-old woman with longstanding varicose veins. A couple of weeks ago, she experienced pain and redness around one of them, which resolved after using ibuprofen gel for a few weeks. Upon examination, her legs appear normal except for the varicose veins, and she has normal distal pulses. Based on current NICE guidelines, what is the most suitable next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine referral to vascular services
Explanation:Patients with varicose veins and a history of superficial thrombophlebitis should be referred for routine referral to vascular services according to NICE guidance. This condition is usually self-limiting but has a high likelihood of recurrence without treatment. Dermatology is not involved in this condition, and ABPI is usually used in the context of peripheral arterial disease or compression bandaging. Class 2 compression stockings are used in the treatment of varicose veins without complications in primary care.
Understanding Varicose Veins
Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.
To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.
In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old new mother is brought to the surgery by her concerned partner. Their baby daughter is six days old.
For the last 48 hours the mother has been very tearful, anxious and irritable. The partner has read about postnatal depression and is worried as she seemed so happy in the first days after the birth. The baby is formula-fed and is thriving.
When asked, she feels exhausted, and is in some discomfort following the delivery. She doesn't feel depressed but says it is very unusual for her to be so emotional and crying all the time.
What is your diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Postnatal depression
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Mood Disorders
Baby blues are a common experience for new mothers, affecting between 50-70% of women. This short-lived disturbance of mood typically begins between the third and sixth day post-delivery and resolves within 10 days. While it can cause anxiety, it doesn’t indicate an anxiety disorder and doesn’t affect a mother’s ability to function. Supportive treatment is all that is required.
Postnatal depression is a more serious condition, affecting 10-15% of pregnancies with the highest incidence occurring three months postpartum. Symptoms may include persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and a loss of interest in activities. Treatment may involve therapy, medication, or a combination of both.
Puerperal psychosis is a rare but severe condition affecting 1-2 in 1000 births. Symptoms may include delusions, hallucinations, and clouding of consciousness. Delusions may be centered around the baby, putting the child at risk of harm or neglect. This condition is typically managed in a specialist mother and baby unit.
It’s important for new mothers to be aware of these postpartum mood disorders and seek help if they experience symptoms. With proper treatment and support, women can recover and enjoy the joys of motherhood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 2-year-old child to see you. The child has had diarrhoea and been vomiting for the last 48 hours.
On further questioning, the child has had four very loose stools today and vomited three times. The child has no significant past medical history and is usually well. There has been no blood in the faeces. There is no history of foreign travel. On examination the child has a temperature of 37.5°C, is not dehydrated and has a soft abdomen with no focal findings. You diagnose gastroenteritis.
What is the most appropriate way of managing this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conservative treatment with advice regarding hydration and when to seek further advice
Explanation:Managing Gastroenteritis in Children
Gastroenteritis is a common childhood illness that requires effective management to determine whether the child can be treated at home or needs referral to a hospital. It is important to note that not all children develop lactose intolerance after gastroenteritis, so switching to lactose-free formula is not recommended. Antibiotics are also usually unnecessary, as gastroenteritis is typically viral. The decision to manage the illness at home depends on the child’s hydration status and the parents’ ability to maintain that hydration.
Hydration status is assessed clinically based on various factors such as alertness, pulse rate, capillary refill time, mucous membranes, skin turgor, and urine output. In primary care, taking blood to check for signs of dehydration is not routinely recommended. Referral to paediatrics should not be the default option for children under 12 months of age; the decision to treat at home or refer should be based on the clinical assessment. If the child is not clinically dehydrated and there are no atypical features, it would be reasonable to monitor them at home with advice on how to maintain hydration and when to seek review if their condition worsens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Coeliac disease screening should be conducted for all patients diagnosed with?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks' pregnant attends for a routine antenatal check-up. Routine urine dipstick reveals blood and protein and urine culture is positive for Escherichia coli. She has no symptoms of urinary tract infection. A second specimen confirms the positive culture.
What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat with amoxicillin
Explanation:Management of Asymptomatic Bacteriuria in Pregnancy
Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common occurrence in pregnant women and can lead to complications such as pyelonephritis, pre-eclampsia, anaemia, and premature birth. Therefore, it is important to screen for and treat positive cultures in pregnant women. Tetracyclines, sulphonamides, and quinolones should be avoided, but alternatives such as amoxicillin, ampicillin, nitrofurantoin, and oral cephalosporins may be considered. Nitrofurantoin should be avoided near term due to the risk of haemolysis in the newborn. Repeat urine samples should be sent to ensure eradication. Referral to a specialist is not necessary unless there are other indications for specialist-led care. Trimethoprim should be avoided in the first trimester due to the risk of teratogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of feeling tired and experiencing episodes of dizziness. During the examination, the GP observes an absent pulse in the patient's left radial artery. The following blood test results are obtained:
- Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l
- Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
- Urea: 2.3 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 77 µmol/l
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 66 mm/hr
Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Takayasu's arteritis
Explanation:Takayasu’s arteritis is a type of vasculitis that affects the large blood vessels, often leading to blockages in the aorta. This condition is more commonly seen in young women and Asian individuals. Symptoms may include malaise, headaches, unequal blood pressure in the arms, carotid bruits, absent or weak peripheral pulses, and claudication in the limbs during physical activity. Aortic regurgitation may also occur in around 20% of cases. Renal artery stenosis is a common association with this condition. To diagnose Takayasu’s arteritis, vascular imaging of the arterial tree is necessary, which can be done through magnetic resonance angiography or CT angiography. Treatment typically involves the use of steroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A woman who is 32-weeks pregnant comes for antenatal check-up. She has been healthy and has not experienced any pregnancy-related issues so far. What is not required as part of her regular evaluation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Auscultation of the fetal heart
Explanation:NICE doesn’t recommend routine auscultation for the fetal heart, but if the mother requests it, it may provide reassurance.
Antenatal care is an important aspect of pregnancy, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. The guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 visits for subsequent pregnancies, provided that the pregnancy is uncomplicated. Women do not need to see a consultant if their pregnancy is uncomplicated.
The timetable for antenatal visits begins with a booking visit between 8-12 weeks, where general information is provided on topics such as diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, and antenatal classes. Blood and urine tests are also conducted to check for conditions such as hepatitis B, syphilis, and asymptomatic bacteriuria. An early scan is conducted between 10-13+6 weeks to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancies, while Down’s syndrome screening is conducted between 11-13+6 weeks.
At 16 weeks, women receive information on the anomaly and blood results, and if their haemoglobin levels are below 11 g/dl, they may be advised to take iron supplements. Routine care is conducted at 18-20+6 weeks, including an anomaly scan, and at 25, 28, 31, and 34 weeks, where blood pressure, urine dipstick, and symphysis-fundal height (SFH) are checked. Women who are rhesus negative receive anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks.
At 36 weeks, presentation is checked, and external cephalic version may be offered if indicated. Information on breastfeeding, vitamin K, and ‘baby-blues’ is also provided. Routine care is conducted at 38 weeks, and at 40 weeks (for first pregnancies), discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy takes place. At 41 weeks, labour plans and the possibility of induction are discussed. The RCOG advises that either a single-dose or double-dose regime of anti-D prophylaxis can be used, depending on local factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A father asks for some advice regarding the hearing test result of his 6-month-old baby. He tells you that he was told that the baby's hearing was 'not clear' in both ears when it was tested at the pediatrician's office. He says that the hearing test was repeated at the office and the repeat test gave the same result.
You check the clinical record and the screening result sent to the office confirms 'not clear' responses in both ears on both screening tests. He says that he was given some information at the time about the result of the hearing test but cannot remember what was said and cannot find the leaflet he was given.
Which of the following should you advise?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can be reassured that even with 'not clear' responses in both ears then the baby will be very unlikely have a hearing problem
Explanation:Newborn Hearing Screening in the UK
The newborn hearing screening is a routine test that takes place shortly after birth in hospitals across the UK. If a clear response is found in both ears, no further action is needed. However, if there is not a clear response in both ears, further testing may be required. The screening programmes differ between England, Scotland, and Wales. In Wales, a clear response in one ear doesn’t automatically prompt further investigation, but parents are given the option to have another hearing screening test or wait until their baby is nine months old for a hearing test. In England and Scotland, further testing is automatically arranged if there is a clear response in only one ear.
For newborns with ‘not clear’ responses bilaterally, further testing is necessary to determine if there is a significant hearing deficit. It is important to note that early detection and intervention for hearing loss can greatly improve a child’s language and communication skills. The UK National Screening Committee provides more information on newborn hearing screening across the UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
In what age group is the highest incidence rate per 100,000 population with this type of malignancy in the US?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 60-69 years
Explanation:Melanoma Skin Cancer in the UK
According to Cancer Research UK, melanoma skin cancer is the 5th most common cancer in the UK, accounting for 4% of all new cancer cases. Every year, there are approximately 16,700 new cases of melanoma skin cancer in the UK, which equates to 46 new cases every day.
Melanoma skin cancer affects both males and females, with around 8,400 new cases reported in each gender annually. The incidence rates for melanoma skin cancer are highest in people aged 85 to 89.
It is important to be aware of the risks and symptoms of melanoma skin cancer, such as changes in the size, shape, or color of moles or other skin lesions. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of successful treatment and recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man who is known to be an intravenous heroin user presents as an emergency with a persistent fever, blood in his urine and shortness of breath. On further questioning he admits to recent weight loss and night sweats. On examination he has splinter haemorrhages, microscopic haematuria and a systolic heart murmur.
What is most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis
Explanation:Infective Endocarditis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Diagnosis
Infective endocarditis is a serious infection of the heart’s inner lining and valves. The classic diagnostic triad of this condition includes fever, new or changing murmurs, and embolic phenomena. Other symptoms may include fatigue, shortness of breath, and weight loss.
Certain risk factors increase the likelihood of developing infective endocarditis. These include intravenous drug abuse, having artificial heart valves, congenital heart defects such as ventricular septal defects, and undergoing invasive surgical procedures, especially dental work.
Diagnosis of infective endocarditis typically involves a combination of physical examination, blood tests, and imaging studies such as echocardiography. Treatment may involve antibiotics and, in some cases, surgery to repair or replace damaged heart valves. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial for a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with excessive bleeding during a routine dental extraction. Upon examination, petechial skin haemorrhages are observed. Blood tests reveal:
- Hb: 12.3 g/dl
- Plt: 255 * 109/l
- WBC: 7.9 * 109/l
- PT: 13.3 secs
- APTT: 39 secs
- Factor VIII activity: 87%
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Von Willebrand's disease
Explanation:Von Willebrand’s disease is the most probable diagnosis due to the presence of a petechial skin rash, along with a slightly increased APTT and decreased factor VIII activity.
Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease
Von Willebrand’s disease is a genetic bleeding disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive manner. It is the most common inherited bleeding disorder, and it behaves like a platelet disorder. Patients with this condition often experience epistaxis and menorrhagia, while haemoarthroses and muscle haematomas are rare.
The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and serves as a carrier molecule for factor VIII. There are three types of von Willebrand’s disease: type 1, which involves a partial reduction in vWF and accounts for 80% of cases; type 2, which is characterized by an abnormal form of vWF; and type 3, which involves a total lack of vWF and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
To diagnose von Willebrand’s disease, doctors may perform a bleeding time test, measure APTT, and check factor VIII levels. Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin is also a common finding. Treatment options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of vWF, and factor VIII concentrate. The type of von Willebrand’s disease a patient has doesn’t necessarily correlate with their symptoms, but common themes include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising without trauma, and menorrhagia in females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother to the Out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in centre. She reports that he is thought to have an allergy to peanuts and is waiting for an Allergy Clinic outpatient appointment. He has eaten a piece of birthday cake at a party about 30 minutes ago and has quickly developed facial flushing, with swelling of the lips and face. He has become wheezy and is now unable to talk in complete sentences.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer 300 µg 1: 1000 adrenaline IM
Explanation:Correct and Incorrect Management Options for Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate management. The correct management options include administering adrenaline 1:1000 intramuscularly (IM) at appropriate doses based on the patient’s age and weight. However, there are also incorrect management options that can be harmful to the patient.
One incorrect option is administering chlorphenamine IM. While it is a sedating antihistamine, it should not be used as a first-line intervention for airway, breathing, or circulation problems during initial emergency treatment. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilisation.
Another incorrect option is advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department instead of administering immediate drug management. Out-of-hours centres should have access to emergency drugs, including adrenaline, and GPs working in these settings should be capable of administering doses in emergencies.
It is also important to administer the correct dose of adrenaline based on the patient’s age and weight. Administering a dose that is too high, such as 1000 µg for a 7-year-old child, can be harmful.
In summary, the correct management options for anaphylaxis include administering adrenaline at appropriate doses and avoiding incorrect options such as administering chlorphenamine IM or advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department without administering immediate drug management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 27 year-old female patient, who is not pregnant, reports experiencing dysuria, urinary frequency, and low abdominal pain for the past two days. She denies having a fever or loin pain and is not currently menstruating. Upon conducting a urine dip, it was discovered that she has 3+ leucocytes, nitrites, and 2+ blood. The patient has no prior history of UTI. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Send a urine sample for culture and treat with oral antibiotics for 3 days
Explanation:For women with haematuria and suspected UTI, NICE recommends urine culture and sensitivity to confirm infection. Treatment with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for 3 days is recommended, which may be extended to 5-10 days in certain cases. After treatment, urine should be re-tested for blood. Persistent haematuria requires urgent referral to exclude urological cancer. For non-visible haematuria in women under 50, urine albumin/creatinine ratio and serum creatinine levels should be measured. Referral to a renal physician is necessary if there is proteinuria or declining eGFR, and referral to a urologist is needed if eGFR is normal and there is no proteinuria.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy comes to the GP with his mother who is worried about his social interaction at school. She had previously raised these concerns with his previous GP a few years ago but has now moved to a new practice. The boy started a new school 8 months ago and his teachers have reported that he often isolates himself during class and break times. He has a strict routine of having lunch at 12.30 and can become challenging to handle if this is disrupted.
What could be the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autism
Explanation:Autism is characterized by a triad of symptoms including communication impairment, impairment of social relationships, and ritualistic behavior. In this case, the child’s lack of interaction in class represents communication impairment, spending much time alone represents impairment of social relationships, and difficulty changing routine represents ritualistic behavior.
It is important to note that the child’s behavior doesn’t meet the criteria for conduct disorder, which is characterized by repetitive and persistent behavior that violates the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate norms.
While depression and social anxiety may coexist with autism, they would not fully account for the child’s ritualistic behavior and are therefore not the most likely diagnoses.
Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental condition that affects social interaction, communication, and behavior. It can be diagnosed in early childhood or later in life and is more common in boys than girls. Around 50% of children with ASD also have an intellectual disability. Symptoms can range from subtle difficulties in understanding and social function to severe disabilities. While there is no cure for ASD, early diagnosis and intensive educational and behavioral management can improve outcomes. Treatment involves a comprehensive approach that includes non-pharmacological therapies such as applied behavioral analysis, structured teaching methods, and family counseling. Pharmacological interventions may also be used to reduce symptoms like repetitive behavior, anxiety, and aggression. The goal of treatment is to increase functional independence and quality of life while decreasing disability and comorbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What are the two components that the 'Personal Independence Payment' benefit is split into and assessed for a 59-year-old woman named Sarah who has relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis and is applying for the benefit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Daily living component and mobility component
Explanation:The Personal Independence Payment is a benefit for those aged 16 to 64 who have long-term ill health or disability that affects their daily living or mobility for at least 3 months and is expected to last for 9 months. The daily living component covers assistance with tasks such as eating, bathing, dressing, communication, medication management, and financial decision-making. The mobility component covers assistance with moving around and going out. There are standard and enhanced levels for each component based on the level of need. Terminally ill patients automatically receive the enhanced level of the daily living component.
Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.
Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to your clinic with a large scaly erythematous eruption on the left side of his chest with a few smaller patches nearby. He believes it started about a year ago. The edge of the lesion looks a bit more inflamed than the central parts. It is itchy. Your colleague gave him topical steroids, and he thinks there may have been some improvement, but it never went away and worsened on stopping the treatment.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tinea corporis
Explanation:Understanding Different Epidermal Conditions: Distinguishing Features and Diagnosis
When it comes to epidermal conditions, eczema and psoriasis are often the first to come to mind. However, there are other conditions that produce scale and have distinct features that set them apart. One such condition is ringworm, which is characterized by asymmetrical lesions with an active scaly edge and central clearing. To diagnose ringworm, skin scrapings should be taken and sent for fungal analysis, as it is often caused by the dermatophyte Trichophyton rubrum.
It is important to note that treating a potential tinea infection with potent steroids can alter the appearance of the lesion and even produce pustules. Therefore, it is crucial to have a negative skin scraping before using strong steroids. Additionally, tinea infections may also be present on the feet with nail involvement.
Other epidermal conditions, such as pityriasis rosea and pityriasis versicolor, have their own distinct features. Pityriasis rosea begins with a herald patch followed by smaller oval red scaly patches mainly on the chest and back. Pityriasis versicolor, on the other hand, affects the trunk, neck, and/or arms and is caused by a yeast infection rather than a dermatophyte infection.
In summary, understanding the distinguishing features and proper diagnosis of different epidermal conditions is crucial in providing effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
Select from the list the single factor that best predicts long-term maintenance of sinus rhythm following this procedure.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absence of structural or valvular heart disease
Explanation:Factors Affecting Success of Cardioversion
Cardioversion is a medical procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, the success of cardioversion can be influenced by various factors.
Factors indicating a high likelihood of success include being under the age of 65, having a first episode of atrial fibrillation, and having no evidence of structural or valvular heart disease.
On the other hand, factors indicating a low likelihood of success include being over the age of 80, having atrial fibrillation for more than three years, having a left atrial diameter greater than 5cm, having significant mitral valve disease, and having undergone two or more cardioversions.
Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider these factors when deciding whether or not to perform cardioversion on a patient with atrial fibrillation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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As the on-call physician, a mother of a 4-year-old boy seeks your guidance. Due to a recent outbreak of roseola infantum at her son's daycare, she is curious about the duration of time her child should stay away from the facility. Despite being healthy and showing no symptoms, what recommendation would you provide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is no school exclusion
Explanation:No need for school exclusion with roseola infantum as it is a self-limiting condition.
Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). The incubation period for this disease is between 5 to 15 days, and it typically affects children between the ages of 6 months to 2 years.
The symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms that may be present include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea. In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of cases.
While roseola infantum can lead to other complications such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis, school exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 12-month-old girl comes in with a unilateral purulent nasal discharge and worsening bad breath over the past few days. However, she doesn't exhibit any systemic symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergic rhinitis
Explanation:Unilateral Discharge in Children: A Possible Sign of Foreign Body
The occurrence of unilateral discharge in an otherwise healthy child may indicate the presence of a foreign body, especially in this age group. It is important to consider the child’s history to determine the possible cause of the discharge. If a foreign body is suspected, prompt removal is necessary to prevent further complications. Fortunately, removal of the foreign body is usually curative and can alleviate the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are contemplating recommending ulipristal (EllaOne) for a female who has come in seeking emergency contraception. What is the timeframe for using ulipristal after unprotected sexual intercourse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 120 hours (5 days)
Explanation:Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old boy presents with a runny nose, cough and a temperature of 38.5°C. On auscultation, he has widespread, fine inspiratory crackles and a faint wheeze. He is not tachypnoeic, he remains alert and is taking most feeds. There is slight intercostal and subcostal recession.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol, ibuprofen and review in 24 hours
Explanation:Management of Bronchiolitis in Infants
Bronchiolitis is an acute infectious disease of the lower respiratory tract that commonly affects infants aged between two and six months. It is caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and peaks during the winter months. Supportive measures such as fluid input, feeding, and temperature control are the mainstay of treatment. Antibiotics are not indicated as bronchiolitis is usually caused by a virus. Hospital admission is only necessary in severe cases or if there are significant comorbidities. Salbutamol via a spacer is not indicated in bronchiolitis. Careful safety netting is important to teach parents to spot deterioration and seek medical attention if necessary. Most infants with bronchiolitis have a mild, self-limiting illness that lasts for seven to ten days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy presents to the paediatric department with a 5-day history of fever and bilateral red eyes. He also has a widespread raised red rash and peeling of his toes.
During the examination, his temperature is 37.8ºC. The skin on his feet is peeling. He has cervical lymphadenopathy. He is alert and energetic. His pulse is 92 beats per minute.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Kawasaki disease is indicated by a high fever lasting more than five days, along with red palms that peel and a tongue that looks like a strawberry. It is important to diagnose this systemic vasculitis promptly, as it can lead to cardiovascular complications. Other symptoms to look out for include conjunctivitis, which causes red, gritty eyes with discharge and a history of the eyes sticking together. Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that causes a low-grade fever, sore throat, cough, abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and a rash on the mouth, hands, and feet. Meningitis should be suspected in children with a headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, fever, nausea, and lethargy. Roseola infantum starts with viral symptoms like fever, sore throat, and a runny nose, followed by a rash.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days, which is resistant to antipyretics. Other features include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms instead of angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease include coronary artery aneurysm, which can be life-threatening. Early recognition and treatment of Kawasaki disease can prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents for follow-up of her depression. Despite taking citalopram 20 mg once daily for 4 months, she has not experienced any significant improvement in her symptoms. The decision is made to switch her medication to imipramine. What is the recommended approach for transitioning to imipramine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Period of cross-tapering of the two drugs
Explanation:Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl has been excluded from school because of her conduct. Her mother wonders if a psychological problem might explain her behaviour. What is conduct disorder and how might it be related to the girl's behaviour?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may be associated with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
Explanation:Understanding Conduct Disorder: Characteristics and Prevalence
Conduct disorder (CD) is a behavioral disorder that is characterized by aggressive, antisocial, and defiant behavior in children. Children with CD exhibit behaviors such as physical cruelty, destructiveness, lying, stealing, and truancy. To be diagnosed with CD, a child must exhibit at least three of these characteristics over the past year, with at least one in the last six months.
CD can be classified into two types: early-onset CD, which occurs before the age of 10 and is less common, and adolescent-onset CD, which is more common and may be associated with ADHD. A UK government report found that 5% of children aged 5-15 years had conduct disorder, and 1% had ADHD/hyperkinetic disorder. The male to female ratio is 3:1.
The severity of CD depends on the number of problems the child has and the effect on others. Children with CD may exhibit persistent antisocial behavior, and temper tantrums are common. Stealing, assault, and destruction of property can lead to legal consequences for the child.
In conclusion, understanding the characteristics and prevalence of conduct disorder is crucial in identifying and addressing this behavioral disorder in children. Early intervention and treatment can help improve outcomes for children with CD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You design a clinical trial to test a new shingles vaccine. You begin by collecting data on the age shingles was contracted by members of your local population. You notice this data set is positively skewed.
What does that mean?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mean > median > mode
Explanation:When data is positively skewed, the mean is greater than the median, which is also greater than the mode. Skewness refers to how much a dataset deviates from a symmetrical bell curve, which is seen in normally distributed data. In positively skewed data, the tail is longer on the positive side of the peak. This is in contrast to normally distributed data, where the median, mode, and mean are all equal. To remember the order of these values, write them in alphabetical order and use ‘>’ to indicate greater than for positively skewed data. For negatively skewed data, use ‘<' to indicate less than. The mean is the average of all the numbers, the mode is the most frequently occurring number, and the median is the middle number in a sequential list of the data. Skewed Data: Understanding the Relationship between Mean, Median, and Mode Skewness is a measure of the degree of asymmetry of a distribution. In a negatively skewed data set, the bulk of data is concentrated to the right of the figure, and the left tail is longer. Conversely, in a positively skewed data set, the bulk of data is concentrated to the left of the figure, and the right tail is longer. In such cases, the median is always positioned between the mode and the mean, as it represents the halfway point. The mode corresponds to the peak of the distribution, representing the most common value. However, the mean moves away from the median in the direction of the tail, as it is affected by extreme values or outliers. In contrast, in a normally distributed data set, a bell-shaped curve is seen that is symmetrical. In such cases, the median, mode, and mean are all equal. Understanding the relationship between mean, median, and mode is crucial in analyzing skewed data sets. For positively skewed data, the mean is greater than the median, which is greater than the mode. Conversely, for negatively skewed data, the mode is greater than the median, which is greater than the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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