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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 42 year old obese man complains of a painful swollen ankle. The pain has worsened over the past 2 weeks. He is a diabetic and gives a history of recent alcohol consumption. Joint aspirate shows rhomboid crystals with numerous neutrophils. Radiological examination shows evidence of chondrocalcinosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gouty arthritis
Correct Answer: Pseudogout
Explanation:Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Aetiology includes mostly idiopathic (primary form) and secondary form occurring as a result of joint trauma, familial chondrocalcinosis, hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis, gout, hypophosphatemia. Clinical presentation: Often asymptomatic.
Acute (pseudogout attack): monoarthritis (rarely oligoarthritis), mostly affecting the knees and other large joints (e.g., hips, wrists, and ankles). It may become chronic (can affect multiple joints). Osteoarthritis with CPPD (most common form of symptomatic CPPD): progressive joint degeneration with episodes of acute inflammatory arthritis typical of pseudogout attacks. Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases. Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals. Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils. X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis). Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 73-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes mellitus, complains of difficulty walking and trouble with his hands. It began with a tingling sensation in his soles, which later extended up to his ankles. He now feels unsteady when walking, and more recently, has noticed numbness and tingling in the fingers of both hands. On examination, he has absent ankle reflexes, a high steppage gait, and altered sensation to his mid-calves. What is the underlying pathological process?
Your Answer: Axonal degeneration
Explanation:This case presents with sensorimotor neuropathy secondary to his DM. The progression of the neuropathy, known dying-back neuropathy, is a distal axonopathy or axonal degeneration as where the sensorimotor loss begins distally and travels proximally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man who had a liver transplant just over 3 months ago, now has primary sclerosing cholangitis. He complains of fever, abdominal pain and diarrhoea, which has come on over the last week. He has a platelet count of 60 x 109/L and alanine transaminase (ALT) of 300 U/L with a normal bilirubin. He is taking tacrolimus and prednisolone for immunosuppression, and tells you that he recently stopped taking valganciclovir. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute rejection of liver transplant
Correct Answer: Donor-acquired cytomegalovirus
Explanation:The fact that he has recently stopped taking his valganciclovir, anti-viral, is key to the answer to this question. This makes the answer quite plainly donor-acquired CMV infection over all of the other answer choices. He needs to stay on prophylaxis against this, particularly in the first 3 months after transplant. Symptoms and presentations of CMV infection can include fever, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, hematologic abnormalities, retinitis, and esophagitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 80 year old woman is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. There is consolidation and a moderate sized pleural effusion on the same side. An ultrasound guided pleural fluid aspiration is performed. The appearance of the fluid is clear and is sent off for culture. Whilst awaiting the culture results, which one of the following is the most important factor when determining whether a chest tube should be placed?
Your Answer: LDH of the pleural fluid
Correct Answer: pH of the pleural fluid
Explanation:In adult practice, biochemical analysis of pleural fluid plays an important part in the management of pleural effusions. Protein levels or Light’s criteria differentiate exudates from transudates, while infection is indicated by pleural acidosis associated with raised LDH and low glucose levels. In terms of treatment, the pH may even guide the need for tube drainage, suggested by pH <7.2 in an infected effusion, although the absolute protein values are of no value in determining the likelihood of spontaneous resolution or chest drain requirements. pH is therefore the most important factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Incorrect
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All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except?
Your Answer: Slows gastric emptying
Correct Answer: Increased levels are seen in type 2 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is a 30-amino acid peptide hormone produced in the intestinal epithelial endocrine L-cells by differential processing of proglucagon. GLP-1 is released in response to meal intake.
The main actions of GLP-1 are to stimulate insulin secretion (i.e., to act as an incretin hormone) and to inhibit glucagon secretion, thereby contributing to limit postprandial glucose excursions. It also inhibits gastrointestinal motility and secretion and thus acts as an enterogastrone and part of the ileal brake mechanism. GLP-1 also appears to be a physiological regulator of appetite and food intake.
Decreased secretion of GLP-1 may contribute to the development of obesity, and exaggerated secretion may be responsible for postprandial reactive hypoglycaemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 54 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute chest pain for 3 hrs which associated with excessive sweating and vomiting. His past medical history was unremarkable but his father has passed away due to a heart attack at the age of 50. Examination findings were normal and ECG was also normal. He was pain free after 12 hours from admission. What is the most appropriate investigation that cab be done at this moment?
Your Answer: Coronary angiography
Correct Answer: Troponin T
Explanation:The positive family history and the smoking make him an ideal candidate for a myocardial infarction. The chest pain is also a suggestive symptom. So troponin is needed to rule out MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 23 year old female presents with a five month history of worsening breathlessness and daily productive cough. As a young child, she had occasional wheezing with viral illnesses and she currently works in a ship yard and also smokes one pack of cigarettes daily for the past three years. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Asthma
Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Bronchiectasis is a long-term condition where the airways of the lungs become abnormally widened, leading to a build-up of excess mucus that can make the lungs more vulnerable to infection. The most common symptoms of bronchiectasis include:
– a persistent productive cough
– breathlessness.The 3 most common causes in the UK are:
– a lung infection in the past, such as pneumonia or whooping cough, that damages the bronchi
– underlying problems with the immune system (the body’s defence against infection) that make the bronchi more vulnerable to damage from an infection
– allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) – an allergy to a certain type of fungi that can cause the bronchi to become inflamed if spores from the fungi are inhaled -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Correct
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Which is the most common type of inherited colorectal cancer:
Your Answer: Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma
Explanation:Hereditary non-polyposis syndrome (HNPCC) is the most common type of inherited colorectal cancer. It often presents in younger and younger generations down a family. FAP presents with 100’s-1000’s of polyps and is less common. Li-Fraumeni syndrome and Fanconi syndrome are rare. For Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, the thing you will look for in the question stem is discoloured spots on the lips, this is classic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment (leaving out the current NICE guidelines) for a 29 year old man with erythrodermic psoriasis and arthritis mutilans involving several digits of both hands?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Correct Answer: Etanercept
Explanation:TNF-alpha inhibitors are known to ameliorate the symptoms and disease activity of Arthritis mutilans (a rare and severe form of psoriatic arthritis), by disabling the cytokines that are involved in inflammation and joint destruction. From the mentioned choices, this would be the most effective option. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, followed by sulfasalazine used in mild to moderate forms of psoriatic arthritis but has not shown much efficacy in arthritis mutilans. Phototherapy, narrowband UVB light therapy can be very effective in clearing skin lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 77-year-old retired engineer presents with a burning sensation around his right eye. On examination, an erythematous blistering rash can be seen in the right trigeminal distribution. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
Explanation:Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) describes the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It accounts for around 10% of case of shingles. Features include a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the actual eye itself, and Hutchinson’s sign: a rash on the tip or side of the nose, indicating nasociliary involvement and is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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