00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by: ...

    Correct

    • The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by:

      Your Answer: Chromosomal analysis (Karyotyping)

      Explanation:

      Standard karyotyping is the best confirmatory test for the diagnosis of Turner syndrome among patients who have some doubtful clinical presentations. It is done on peripheral blood mononuclear cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The second meiotic division of the oocyte is normally completed: ...

    Correct

    • The second meiotic division of the oocyte is normally completed:

      Your Answer: After the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte

      Explanation:

      Upon penetration, if all is normally occurring, the process of egg-activation occurs, and the oocyte is said to have become activated. This is thought to be induced by a specific protein phospholipase c zeta. It undergoes its secondary meiotic division, and the two haploid nuclei (paternal and maternal) fuse to form a zygote.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - When does Oocytogenesis complete? ...

    Correct

    • When does Oocytogenesis complete?

      Your Answer: Birth

      Explanation:

      During the early fetal life, oogonia proliferate by mitosis. They enlarge to form primary oocyte before birth. No primary oocyte is form after birth. The primary oocyte is dormant is the ovarian follicles until puberty. As the follicle matures, the primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division and gives rise to secondary oocyte. During ovulation the secondary oocytes starts the second meiotic division but is only completed if a sperm penetrates it. This 1st and 2nd meiotic division is known as ootidogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal...

    Correct

    • Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?

      Your Answer: Foramen Ovale

      Explanation:

      Oxygenation of fetal blood occurs in the placenta before it returns in the umbilical vein which joins the left branch of the portal vein. It bypasses the capillaries of the liver by going through the ductus venosus, which is obliterated after birth and becomes the ligamentum venosum. The oxygenated blood enters the inferior vena cava and is transported to the right atrium and
      then through the patent foramen ovale to the left atrium and on to the left ventricle. From the left ventricle, the blood flows into the aorta and through the fetal vascular network. Blood returning from the head of the foetus passes through the superior vena cava to the right atrium and straight on to the right ventricle and pulmonary artery. However, it does not enter the pulmonary
      circulation, being short-circuited by the ductus arteriosus to the aorta. Aortic blood is carried via the umbilical arteries back to the placenta for reoxygenation. At birth, the three short circuits, the ductus venosus, foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus, close.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes? ...

    Correct

    • Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes?

      Your Answer: 46XY

      Explanation:

      Genetically, patients suffering from androgen insensitivity syndrome are 46XY. They are males but insensitive to male hormones i.e. androgens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Branches V2 and V3 of the trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?...

    Correct

    • Branches V2 and V3 of the trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      Trigeminal nerve has three divisions, the first is the ophthalmic division that does not originate from any of the pharyngeal arches, the second and third divisions, namely, the maxillary and the mandibular region develop from the first pharyngeal arch.
      Pharyngeal Arches:
      1st = Trigeminal V2 & V3 (CN V)
      2nd = Facial (CN VII)
      3rd = Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
      4th and 6th = Vagus (CN X)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding the development of external...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding the development of external genitalia?

      Your Answer: The genital fold forms the scrotum in males

      Explanation:

      Genital folds lead to the formation of the scrotum in males while in females they form the posterior labial commissure. Genital tubercles form the labia majora whereas the tubercle itself becomes the mons pubis. The labia minora is formed by the urogenital folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 15 year old girl is being investigated for primary amenorrhoea. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl is being investigated for primary amenorrhoea. She has normal FSH,LH and E2 levels on hormone profiling and normal secondary sexual characteristics. An ultrasound shows no uterus. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Testicular Feminisation Syndrome

      Correct Answer: Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome

      Explanation:

      Mullerian agenesis occurs in 1 in 5000 to 1 in 40000 girls. The Mullerian system does not develop which results in an absent uterus and upper vagina. This condition is also known as Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome, The ovarian function is normal and so the most common presentation is amenorrhea in the presence of an otherwise normal pubertal development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      104.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following statements is related to testicular feminization syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements is related to testicular feminization syndrome?

      Your Answer: There are usually normal testes

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity (testicular feminization) syndrome is a rare inherited form of male pseudo hermaphroditism that occurs in phenotypically normal women with adequate breast development, normal external genitalia, a vagina of variable depth, absent uterus, and sparse or absent pubic hair and axillary hair. Testosterone levels are normal or elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which pharyngeal arch is closest to the head of the embryo? ...

    Correct

    • Which pharyngeal arch is closest to the head of the embryo?

      Your Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The arches are numbered according to their proximity to the head i.e. the 1st is the closest to the head end of the embryo and the 6th closest to the tail end as shown by the diagram below the table

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following features is associated with Turner's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following features is associated with Turner's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Primary amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients present with primary amenorrhea. These ladies have non functional or streak ovaries and they cant conceive. Their genetic traits is 45X. They have a shielded chest, webbed neck and low height. These patients suffer from primary amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the...

    Correct

    • Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?

      Your Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Normal closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) is brought about by a number of mechanisms. Upon delivery the new born babies first breath inflates the lungs and this causes a rise in pO2. Oxygen is known to cause constriction of the DA in vivo and in vitro. In addition the decreased vascular resistance means the pressure within the lumen of the DA drops aiding closure. In addition on inflation of the lungs, the lungs produce bradykinin which stimulates smooth muscle constriction of the ductus. The most important factor is thought to be the drop in Prostaglandin E2. Prostaglandin E2 maintains patency of the Ductus in the unborn child but after birth is metabolised in the lungs and its levels fall rapidly within 3 hours of birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst hatch from the zone pellucida?...

    Correct

    • How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst hatch from the zone pellucida?

      Your Answer: 5-Jul

      Explanation:

      Shortly after the morula enters the uterus, around the 4th day after fertilization, a clear cystic cavity starts forming inside the morula. The fluid passes through the zona pellucida from the uterine cavity and hence forms the blastocyst.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis? ...

    Correct

    • Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis?

      Your Answer: 1st and 2nd Meiotic Divisions

      Explanation:

      Oogonium become Primary Oocyte via Growth/Maturation. This process is called oocytogenesis Primary Oocyte undergoes 2 meiotic divisions to become Ootids. This process is called Ootidogenesis Ootids differentiate into Ovum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - In fetal circulation: ...

    Correct

    • In fetal circulation:

      Your Answer: Most of the blood entering the right atrium flows into the left atrium

      Explanation:

      Circulation in the foetus: 1. Deoxygenated fetal blood is conducted to the placenta via the two umbilical arteries. The umbilical arteries arise from the internal iliac arteries.
      2. Gas exchange occurs in placenta.
      3. Oxygenated blood from the placenta passes through the single umbilical vein and enters the inferior vena cava (IVC).
      4. About 50% of the blood in the IVC passes through the liver and the rest bypasses the liver via the ductus venosus. The IVC also drains blood returning from the lower trunk and extremities.
      5. On reaching the heart, blood is effectively divided into two streams by the edge of the interatrial septum (crista dividens) (1) a larger stream is shunted to the left atrium through the foramen ovale (lying between IVC and left atrium) (2) the other stream passes into right atrium where it is joined by blood from SVC which is blood returning from the myocardium and upper parts of body. This stream therefore has a lower partial pressure of oxygen.
      6. Because of the large pulmonary vascular resistance and the presence of the ductus arteriosus most of the right ventricular output passes into the aorta at a point distal to the origin of the arteries to the head and upper extremities. The diameter of the ductus arteriosus is similar to the descending aorta. The patency of the ductus arteriosus is maintained by the low oxygen tension and the vasodilating effects of prostaglandin E2;
      7. Blood flowing through the foramen ovale and into left atrium passes into the left ventricle where it is ejected into the ascending aorta. This relatively oxygen rich blood passes predominantly to the head and upper extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 2nd

      Correct Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The external carotid develops from the 1st arch. The common and internal carotid develop from the 3rd arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop? ...

    Correct

    • From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop?

      Your Answer: Endoderm

      Explanation:

      The GI tract forms from the endoderm. The endoderm grows laterally and then ventrally finally folding on its self to form the gut tube.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - All of the following statements are true regarding Turner's syndrome except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are true regarding Turner's syndrome except?

      Your Answer: Have female internal genitalia

      Correct Answer: The streak ovaries should be removed surgically due to 25% tendency to be malignant

      Explanation:

      Girls with Turner’s syndrome (45,X) are not at risk for malignancy. Patients with feminizing testicular syndrome with XY chromosome composition and patients with mixed gonadal dysgenesis are at risk for malignancy, and bilateral gonadectomy is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal...

    Correct

    • Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?

      Your Answer: Foramen Ovale

      Explanation:

      Blood enters the right atrium of the fetal heart and most passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. From there it is pumped through the aorta. The foramen ovale is the major structure for bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation. Some of the blood in the right atrium does enters the right ventricle and then into the pulmonary artery however most of this passes through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta thus bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - How many days after fertilisation does the morula form? ...

    Correct

    • How many days after fertilisation does the morula form?

      Your Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      When there are about 12-32 blastomeres, the developing human is referred to as morula. It enters the uterine cavity around the 4th day after fertilization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      7.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Embryology (17/20) 85%
Passmed