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  • Question 1 - A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling....

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that she was previously an intravenous drug abuser. There were unremarkable first-trimester investigations, except for her chronic Hepatitis B infection. All of the following statements is considered true regarding Hepatitis B infection during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: A Screening for HBV is not recommended for a pregnant woman with previous vaccination

      Explanation:

      The principal screening test for detecting maternal HBV infection is the serologic identification of HBsAg. Screening should be performed in each pregnancy, regardless of previous HBV vaccination or previous negative HBsAg test results.

      A test for HBsAg should be ordered at the first prenatal visit. Women with unknown HBsAg status or with new or continuing risk factors for HBV infection (e.g., injection drug use or a sexually transmitted infection) should be screened at the time of admission to a hospital or other delivery setting.

      Interventions to prevent perinatal transmission of HBV infection include screening all pregnant women for HBV, vaccinating infants born to HBV-negative mothers within 24 hours of birth, and completing the HBV vaccination series in infants by age 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The testicular arteries are branches of what? ...

    Correct

    • The testicular arteries are branches of what?

      Your Answer: Aorta

      Explanation:

      The testicular artery arises from the aorta and supplies the testis and the epididymis. The testis is supplied by 3 arteries.: Testicular artery, cremasteric artery that arises from the inferior hypogastric artery and the artery to the vas deferens from the internal iliac artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 23-year-old lady comes to you for hirsutism therapy. She is overweight, with...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old lady comes to you for hirsutism therapy. She is overweight, with hirsutism and facial pimples on her face and peri areolar areas, as well as a masculine escutcheon. Serum LH levels range from 1.9 to 12.5 IU/L, whereas FSH levels range from 4.5 to 21.5 IU/L. The levels of androstenedione and testosterone are somewhat higher, while the serum DHAS is normal. The patient does not want to start a family right now. Which of the single medications listed below is the best therapy for her condition?

      Your Answer: GnRH

      Correct Answer: Oral contraceptives

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture, unusually high LH-to-FSH ratio (which should ordinarily be around 1:1), and higher androgens but normal DHAS all point to polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). DHAS is an indicator of adrenal androgen production; when normal, it rules out adrenal hyperandrogenism. Several drugs have been used to treat PCOS-related hirsutism. Contraceptives were the most often used medications for many years; they can decrease hair growth in up to two-thirds of individuals. They work by decreasing ovarian steroid production and increasing hepatic-binding globulin production, which binds circulating hormones and lowers metabolically active (unbound) androgen concentrations. Clinical improvement, on the other hand, can take up to 6 months to show.
      Medroxyprogesterone acetate, spironolactone, cimetidine, and GnRH agonists, all of which decrease ovarian steroid synthesis, have also shown potential. GnRH analogues, on the other hand, are costly and have been linked to severe bone demineralization in some patients after only 6 months of treatment. Given the efficacy of pharmacologic medications and the ovarian adhesions that were usually linked with this surgery, surgical wedge resection is no longer regarded as an appropriate therapy for PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of...

    Incorrect

    • To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of the following?

      Your Answer: Rhesus positive mother, metal cord blood Rhesus negative

      Correct Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive

      Explanation:

      The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and even abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers who give birth to Rh-positive children to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers; its administration could result in maternal blood being bound and taken out of circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      45.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - There are increasing rates of pregnancies among teenagers especially in low socioeconomic rural...

    Correct

    • There are increasing rates of pregnancies among teenagers especially in low socioeconomic rural areas. What is the contraception method of choice for teenagers with high risk of unplanned pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine Contraceptive Device

      Explanation:

      The use of long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) is globally accepted as a strategy that is successful in decreasing rates of unintended pregnancy, especially in very young women.
      Long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) are defined as any contraceptive that requires administration less than once per cycle (i.e. per month). This includes copper and progestogen-only intrauterine devices (IUDs), and progestogen subdermal implants and injections. However, subdermal implants and IUDs, which have a life of at least three years, have superior efficacy over injections, which require administration every three months. Implants and IUDs are highly cost-effective when compared with other contraceptive methods.

      LARCs are widely recommended by professional bodies and the World Health Organization (WHO) as first-line contraception for young women as they are safe, effective and reversible. Young women should be offered the choice of a LARC as part of a fully informed decision for their first form of contraception.

      LARCs surpass barrier methods and contraceptive pills in effectiveness and safety therefore all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You have just clerked in a patient on the labour ward who has...

    Correct

    • You have just clerked in a patient on the labour ward who has SLE. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is SLE an example of?

      Your Answer: Type III

      Explanation:

      SLE is a type III hypersensitivity reaction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 38 year old women attends clinic follow up. You note pelvic ultrasound...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year old women attends clinic follow up. You note pelvic ultrasound shows a 36mm simple cyst. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding this cyst according to the RCOG green top guidelines?

      Your Answer: Annual ultrasound follow up

      Correct Answer: Discharge with no follow up

      Explanation:

      As this is a simple cyst less than 50mm in diameter the patient does not require further investigation or routine follow up

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is the most appropriate for diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most appropriate for diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?

      Your Answer: Amsel's criteria

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis can be made using the Amsel’s criteria:
      1. Presence of clue cells on microscopic examination (these cells are epithelial cells covered with the bacteria).
      2. Creamy greyish discharge.
      3. Vaginal pH of more than 4.5.
      5. Positive whiff test – release of fishy odour on addition of alkali solution. Other criteria include the nugent score and the Hay/Ison criteria. The Nugent score estimates the relative proportions of bacterial morphotypes to give a score between 0 and 10 (<4 = normal, 4-6 = intermediate, >6 = BV)
      The Hay/Ison criteria
      Grade 1 (Normal): Lactobacillus morphotypes predominate
      Grade 2 (Intermediate): Mixed flora with some Lactobacilli present, but Gardnerella or Mobiluncus morphotypes also present
      Grade 3 (BV): Predominantly Gardnerella and/or Mobiluncus morphotypes. Few or absent Lactobacilli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Beta and Delta Thalassemia are associated with abnormalities to which chromosome ...

    Correct

    • Beta and Delta Thalassemia are associated with abnormalities to which chromosome

      Your Answer: Chromosome 11

      Explanation:

      Fetal haemoglobin (HBF) is the main haemoglobin type in the foetus and persists after birth for around 6 months. Fetal haemoglobin is composed of two alpha and two gamma subunits The alpha globulin chain is coded for by genes on Chromosome 16. Alpha Thalassemia are therefore associated with Chromosome16 defects The beta and delta globulin chains are coded for by genes on Chromosome 11. Beta and Delta Thalassemia are therefore associated with Chromosome 11 Defects

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The typical female breast contains how many lobes? ...

    Incorrect

    • The typical female breast contains how many lobes?

      Your Answer: 4

      Correct Answer: 15-20

      Explanation:

      The female breast is made of about 15 to 20 individual lobes. The lobules each consists of alveoli which drain into a single lactiferous duct. The ductal system leads to lactiferous sinuses and collecting ducts which expel milk from openings in the nipple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - YasminĀ®, which contains 3 mg of drospirenone and 30 mcg of ethinyl oestradiol,...

    Incorrect

    • YasminĀ®, which contains 3 mg of drospirenone and 30 mcg of ethinyl oestradiol, has been approved for usage in South Africa. Which of the following factors has contributed to it becoming the most popular oral contraceptive pill among South African women?

      Your Answer: It has a protective effect against cervical cancer

      Correct Answer: It has not weight gain as an adverse effect and may be associated with weight loss

      Explanation:

      Yasmin has been linked to decreased fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCs, which is why most women who experience this side effect prefer YasminĀ®.
      Due to its anti-mineralocorticoid properties, drospirenone, unlike earlier progestogens, is associated with no weight gain or even moderate weight loss.
      Yasmin has a similar failure rate to other COCs. No evidence using Yasmin is linked to a lower risk of cervical cancer as a long-term side effect of COCs. Yasmin, like all COCs, can cause spotting and irregular bleeding in the first few months of use.
      Drospirenone, a progesterone component, has antiandrogenic properties and is slightly more successful in treating acne, but the difference is not big enough to make it preferable in terms of acne therapy or prevention when compared to other COCs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve? ...

    Correct

    • Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?

      Your Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The Pudendal nerve divides into inferior rectal, perineal and dorsal nerve of the clitoris (or penis in males). The dorsal nerve of clitoris supplies sensory innervation to the clitoris. The perineal branch supplies sensory innervation to the skin of the labia majora and minora and the vestibule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure?

      Your Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Correct Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Explanation:

      The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal and lacunar ligaments are part of the floor The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which spinal segment is the lumbar plexus derived from? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which spinal segment is the lumbar plexus derived from?

      Your Answer: L2-L4

      Correct Answer: T12-L4

      Explanation:

      The lumbar plexus is formed via contributions from the T12-L4 spinal cord segment. The plexus is responsible for the motor and sensory innervation of portions of the lower extremities and some parts of the lower abdomen and pelvis. Nerves arising from the plexus include the Iliohypogastric, ilioinguinal, genitofemoral, lateral femoral cutaneous, femoral nerve, obturator, and nerve to the lumbosacral trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Galactopoiesis is maintained by which hormone? ...

    Correct

    • Galactopoiesis is maintained by which hormone?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The production of milk is regulated by the hormone Prolactin. Oxytocin on the other hand is responsible for the let down reflex that occurs during breast feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to the proximal medial thigh following abdominal hysterectomy. You suspect genitofemoral nerve injury. What spinal segment(s) is the genitofemoral nerve derived from?

      Your Answer: L1,L2

      Explanation:

      The genitofemoral nerves takes its origin from the L1 and L2 spinal segments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - All of the following statements are considered correct regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy, except:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered correct regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: Thyroxine dose should be increased by 30% at the beginning of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Thyroxin requirement does not increase in pregnancy and maintenance dose must be continued

      Explanation:

      Thyroid disease is the second most common endocrine disorder after diabetes in pregnancy. Thyroid disease poses a substantial challenge on the physiology of pregnant women and has significant maternal and fetal implications. Research shows during pregnancy, the size of the thyroid gland increases by 10% in countries with adequate iodine stores and by approximately 20% to 40% in countries with iodine deficiency. During pregnancy, thyroid hormone production increases by around 50% along with a similar increase in total daily iodine requirements.

      The different changes occurring in thyroid physiology are as follow:
      – An increase in serum thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) leading to an increase in the total T4 and total T3 concentrations
      – Stimulation of the thyrotropin (TSH) receptor by human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) which increases thyroid hormone production and subsequently reduces serum TSH concentration.

      Therefore, compared to the non-pregnant state, women tend to have lower serum TSH concentrations during pregnancy.
      The need to adjust levothyroxine dose manifests itself as early as at 4-8 weeks of gestation, therefore justifying the adjustment of levothyroxine replacement to ensure that maternal euthyroidism is maintained during early gestation. Most of well-controlled hypothyroid pregnant women need increased dosage of thyroid hormone after pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      119.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What percentage of infants will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of infants will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of brachial plexus injury secondary to shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer: <10%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the anterior or posterior fetal shoulder impacts on the maternal symphysis or sacrum and may require additional manevours to release the shoulders after gentle downward traction has failed. The most common injury that can occur, is to the brachial plexus due to lateral flexion of the head during traction. This may cause a neurological disability, Erb’s Palsy ( injury to C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus) in which there is a less than 10% chance that this injury would be permanent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - High levels of alpha feto protein are found in all, EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • High levels of alpha feto protein are found in all, EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Neural tube defects

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Pregnant maternal serum AFP levels elevated: Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly); Omphalocele; Gastroschisis.

      Pregnant maternal serum AFP low levels: Down syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 26-year old woman, 36 weeks age of gestation, is admitted for deep...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year old woman, 36 weeks age of gestation, is admitted for deep venous thrombosis (DVT) of the right calf. She receives heparin treatment. Which of the following is true regarding the use of heparin rather than a coumarin derivative for anticoagulation?

      Your Answer: The foetus cannot metabolise the coumarin derivatives, so their effect on the foetus is increased.

      Correct Answer: Reversal of the anticoagulant effect of heparin in the mother can be achieved more quickly than that of coumarin, should labour occur.

      Explanation:

      Heparin is a large-sized molecule and does not cross the placenta; it can provide anticoagulation in the mother, however, has no effect on the baby. Heparin is the preferred anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy.
      Moreover, the anticoagulant effect of heparin can be rapidly reversed by protamine sulphate.
      Warfarin, a coumarin derivative, takes much longer to be reversed compared to heparin. This can be given to the mother between 13 and 36 weeks of pregnancy, however, should be avoided in the first trimester due to its teratogenic effects.
      The anticoagulant effect of coumarin derivatives on the baby also takes longer to be reversed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      756.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 1 in 10,000

      Explanation:

      The incidence of listeria infection in pregnant women is estimated at 12 per 100 000 compared to 0.7 per 100 000 in the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 23-year-old female came to see you because of absent menses for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female came to see you because of absent menses for the last 5 months. She reports that in the past, menstrual periods were regular, every 28 days. Her first menstrual periods were at the age of 12. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and they use condoms consistently. She does not use oral contraceptive pills. She eats a healthy diet and does not smoke or drink alcohol. Physical examination is non-remarkable. Pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this patient?

      Your Answer: Order FSH and LH level

      Correct Answer: Order TSH and prolactin level

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with secondary amenorrhea, a condition diagnosed in patients with – 3 months of absence of menstruation when they had regular menstruation previously or absence of menstruation for 9 months in a patient who had oligomenorrhea- This differs from primary amenorrhea, which is defined as absence of menstrual periods in a female by the age 16 when she has other secondary sexual characteristics or absence of menstrual periods by the age of 14 when she does not have any other secondary sexual characteristics.

      In female patients of child-bearing age, the initial test in evaluating secondary amenorrhea is the pregnancy test. This test has been done in this patient and it is negative- The next step in evaluation in this patient should be serum TSH and prolactin level measurements. Thyroid disease and pituitary pathologies are some of the most common causes of secondary amenorrhea- If these tests were to be found normal, the progesterone challenge test would be the following test as this allows evaluation whether amenorrhea is due to progesterone deficiency in a patient with normal oestrogen levels.

      ā†’ Order FSH and LH level is incorrect. These studies are done if the progesterone withdrawal test is negative but the oestrogen-progesterone challenge test is positive; however, the patient should first have TSH and prolactin level measured; the progesterone withdrawal test is only done if TSH and prolactin are normal.
      ā†’ Order a progesterone withdrawal test is incorrect. As explained above, this test is ordered if TSH and prolactin levels are normal in a patient suspected to have secondary amenorrhea.
      ā†’ Order pelvic ultrasound is incorrect. This study is more important in primary amenorrhea evaluation as it can help confirm the presence or absence of a uterus. This patient who has had menstrual periods before does certainly have a uterus.
      ā†’ Order brain MRI is incorrect. Given how expensive this study is, it should not be done before prolactin levels are found to be significantly high, raising suspicion of a pituitary pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeksā€™ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeksā€™ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with irregular uterine contractions for the past 24 hours and has concerns about premature delivery. She delivered her first child at 38 weeks of gestation and her second at 39 weeks gestation. On examination, BP and urinalysis have come back normal. Her symphysis-fundal height measures 27cm, the uterus is lax and non-tender. Fetal heart rate is 148/min. She also undergoes a pelvic examination along with other investigations. Which findings would suggest that delivery is most likely going to happen before 30 weeksā€™ of gestation?

      Your Answer: The cervix is closed, but the fetal fibronectin test on cervical secretions is positive.

      Explanation:

      Predisposing factors of preterm delivery include a short cervix (or if it shortens earlier than in the third trimester), urinary tract or sexually transmitted infections, open cervical os, and history of a previous premature delivery. Increased uterine size can also contribute to preterm delivery and is seen with cases of polyhydramnios, macrosomia and multiple pregnancies. The shorter the cervical length, the greater the risk of a premature birth.
      In this case, the risk of bacterial vaginosis and candidiasis contributing to preterm delivery would be lower than if in the context of an open cervical os. However, the risk of premature delivery is significantly increased if it is found that the fetal fibronectin test is positive, even if the os is closed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal...

    Correct

    • You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends through the vaginal mucosa into the perineal muscle and fascia. The external anal sphincter appears to be in tact. How would you classify this tear?

      Your Answer: 2nd

      Explanation:

      If the external anal sphincter is in tact then this is a 1st or 2nd degree tear. As the perineal muscles are involved this is 2nd degree tear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      89.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following statements is true regarding heart rate in pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding heart rate in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Heart rate increases by 15 beats per minute

      Explanation:

      During the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, cardiac output increases by about 30-50%. To maintain this increase, systemic vascular resistance decreases by 20-30%, while stroke volume and the heart rate increase by 25-30% and 15 beats per minute respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient is at 14 weeks estimated gestational age by last menstrual period, and ultrasonography at 8 weeks gestation was consistent with these dates. Fetal heart tones are not heard by handheld Doppler. Transvaginal ultrasonography reveals an intrauterine foetus without evidence of fetal cardiac activity. The patient has not had any bleeding or cramping, and otherwise feels fine. A pelvic examination reveals a closed cervix without any signs of bleeding or products of conception. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: A missed abortion

      Explanation:

      In this case, the patient has a missed abortion, which is defined as a dead foetus or embryo without passage of tissue and with a closed cervix. This condition often presents with failure to detect fetal heart tones or a lack of growth in uterine size.

      – By 14 weeks estimated gestational age, fetal heart tones should be detected by both handheld Doppler and ultrasonography.
      – An inevitable abortion presents with a dilated cervix, but no passage of fetal tissue.
      – A blighted ovum involves failure of the embryo to develop, despite the presence of a gestational sac and placental tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which organism is the most common cause of puerperal sepsis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which organism is the most common cause of puerperal sepsis?

      Your Answer: Group B Streptococcus

      Correct Answer: Group A Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Puerperal sepsis is defined as sepsis occurring after birth until 6 weeks postnatal. The most common cause of puerperal sepsis is Group A streptococcus. Until 1937, puerperal sepsis was the major cause of maternal mortality. The discovery of sulphonamides in 1935 and the simultaneous reduction in the virulence of the haemolytic streptococcus resulted in a dramatic fall in maternal mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      926.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Looking at the picture below what is the diagnosis?

    Correct

    • Looking at the picture below what is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Linea Nigra

      Explanation:

      This is Linea Nigra. It occurs in 3/4 of pregnancies and is due to increased melanocyte-stimulating hormone production by the placenta. This also causes melasma and darkening of the nipples.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms,...

    Correct

    • A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms, and increased nervousness. Along with TSH what other investigations should be done for this patient?

      Your Answer: Free T4

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned in the case has developed thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy. TSH level should be tested, and if the result shows any suppressed or elevated TSH level, then it is mandatory to check for free T4 level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following factors is fetal nutrition dependant on? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors is fetal nutrition dependant on?

      Your Answer: Placental exchange

      Correct Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Fetal nutrition is dependant upon multiple factors such as maternal nutritional state, quality of maternal diet, malnutrition, anorexia nervosa, metabolic rate of the mother or whether they suffer from malabsorption syndrome or other related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 25-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to fever and dysuria...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to fever and dysuria which has been going on for the past 3 days. The presence a pruritic, erythematous vulvar rash that is particularly painful during urination was also noted on the patient. Upon history taking, she mentioned that she is sexually active with one partner, and they use condoms inconsistently. Physical examination was done and the following are her results: Temperature is 38.7 deg C, Blood pressure is 120/80mmHg, Pulse is 84/min. Abdominal examination was done and revealed that there is suprapubic fullness. Upon pelvic examination, the presence of several tender ulcerated lesions with circular borders on the inside of the left labia minora were noted. Speculum examination revealed no cervical friability or mucopurulent discharge. There is also enlarged and tender left inguinal lymph nodes. Urethral catheterization was then performed due to difficulty with spontaneous voiding. The results of her urinalysis are as follows: Leukocyte esterase = positive, Nitrites = negative, Bacteria = none, White blood cells = 15/hpf. Her urine pregnancy test turned out negative. Which of the following tests will most likely be considered to establish the patientā€™s diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rapid plasma reagin testing for Treponema pallidum

      Correct Answer: Viral culture of lesion for herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      While HSV-1 often affects the perioral region and can be known to cause genital lesions, HSV-2 is more commonly the consideration when patients present with genital lesions.
      HSV-2 is transmitted through direct contact of sections in a seropositive individual who is actively shedding the virus. The virus preferentially affects the skin and mucous membranes with the virus invading epithelial cells on initial exposure and ultimately replicating intracellularly at that site.

      HSV-2, in particular, may present as a primary infection with painful genital ulcers, sores, crusts, tender lymphadenopathy, and dysuria. The classical features are of macular or papular skin and mucous membrane lesions progressing to vesicles and pustules that often last for up to 3 weeks. Genital lesions can be especially painful, leading to swelling of the vulva in women, burning pain, and dysuria.

      Given that symptoms can mimic acute urinary tract infection, consider urinalysis and culture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      51.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - The most common aetiology for spontaneous abortion of a recognized first trimester gestation:...

    Correct

    • The most common aetiology for spontaneous abortion of a recognized first trimester gestation:

      Your Answer: Chromosomal anomaly in 50-60% of gestations

      Explanation:

      Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of first trimester miscarriage and are detected in 50-85% of pregnancy tissue specimens after spontaneous miscarriage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Rhesus D immunoglobin treatment utilises what class of antibody? ...

    Correct

    • Rhesus D immunoglobin treatment utilises what class of antibody?

      Your Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      It utilizes the IgG class of the antibody.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Excessive increased level of Ī²-HCG is expected in: ...

    Correct

    • Excessive increased level of Ī²-HCG is expected in:

      Your Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Human chorionic gonadotropin levels dynamically increase during early gestation and the levels are significantly greater in viable pregnancies than in ectopic gestation, biochemical pregnancy, or spontaneous abortions. Similarly, the hCG concentrations are significantly higher in multiple pregnancy as compared with singleton.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Oestrogen have all of the following actions, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Oestrogen have all of the following actions, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Prevention of thrombosis

      Explanation:

      The properties of oestrogen:
      Structure: Stimulates endometrial growth, maintenance of vessels and skin,
      reduces bone resorption, increases bone formation, increases uterine growth
      Protein synthesis: Increases hepatic synthesis of binding proteins
      Coagulation: Increases circulating levels of factors II, VII, IX, X, antithrombin III and plasminogen; increases platelet adhesiveness
      Lipid: Increases HDL and reduces LDL,increases triglycerides, reduces
      ketone formation, increases fat deposition
      Fluid balance: Salt and water retention
      Gastrointestinal: Reduces bowel motility, increases cholesterol in bile

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - What is the incubation period of Rubella (in days)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incubation period of Rubella (in days)?

      Your Answer: 21-28

      Correct Answer: Dec-23

      Explanation:

      Rubella typically has an incubation period of around 14 days. Rage 12-23 days

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - ...

    Incorrect

    • Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Penicillin allergy skin testing and penicillin desensitization, if necessary

      Explanation:

      Penicillin is the treatment of choice for treating syphilis.Ā For treatment of syphilis during pregnancy, no proven alternatives to penicillin exist.Ā Treatment guidelines recommend desensitization in penicillin-allergic pregnant women, followed by treatment with penicillin.Ā Syphilis in pregnancy is associated with mental retardation, stillbirth and sudden infant death syndrome; therefore it should be treated promptly.

      –Ā Data are insufficient to recommend ceftriaxone for treatment of maternal infection and prevention of congenital syphilis.
      – Erythromycin and azithromycin should not be used, because neither reliably cures maternal infection or treats an infected foetus.
      – Tetracycline and doxycycline are contraindicated in pregnancy and ceftriaxone is much less effective than penicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 75 year old woman has a lesion biopsied from the cervix that...

    Correct

    • A 75 year old woman has a lesion biopsied from the cervix that is histologically confirmed as endometrial carcinoma. Further staging investigations shows no spread to the serosa or adnexa, no spread to the para-aortic, pelvic or inguinal lymph nodes and no evidence of distant metastasis. What FIGO stage is this?

      Your Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      It is stage 2 of the disease.

      Staging:
      1 Confined to uterus
      1A < 50% myometrial invasion
      1B > 50% myometrial invasion
      2 Cervical stromal invasion but not beyond uterus
      3 Extension beyond the uterus
      3A Tumour invades the serosa or adnexa
      3B Vaginal and/or parametrial invasion
      3C1 Pelvic nodal involvement
      3C2 Para aortic nodal involvement
      4 Distant Metastasis
      4A Tumour invasion of the bladder and/or bowel mucosa
      4B Distant metastases including abdominal metastases and/or inguinal lymph nodes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 25 year old female who was on sodium valproate for epilepsy came...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female who was on sodium valproate for epilepsy came for the advice about contraception. Which of the following is accurate?

      Your Answer: She canā€™t use COCP

      Correct Answer: She can use COCP

      Explanation:

      There are no interactions between the combined oral contraceptive pill, progesterone-only pill, medroxyprogesterone injections or levonorgestrel implants and the AEDs valproic acid (sodium valproate), vigabatrin, lamotrigine, gabapentin, tiagabine, levetiracetam, zonisamide, ethosuximide and the benzodiazepines. So she can use COCP along with Sodium valproate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on...

    Correct

    • In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 5 weeks + 3 days

      Explanation:

      The gestational sac can be visualized from as early as 4ā€“5 weeks of gestation and the yolk sac at about 5 weeks (Figure 6.3). The embryo can be observed and measured at 5ā€“6 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - You see a 28 year old woman who is 22 weeks pregnant. She...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 28 year old woman who is 22 weeks pregnant. She complains of vaginal soreness and yellow frothy discharge. Microscopy confirms Trichomoniasis. What percentage of infected pregnant women present with yellow frothy discharge?

      Your Answer: 70%

      Correct Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection found both in men and women, and is caused by the flagellate protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The organism is mainly found in the vagina and the urethra. Though many infected women can be asymptomatic, they can also present with yellow frothy vaginal discharge, itching and vaginitis, dysuria or an offensive odour. About 20-30% of women with the infection however are asymptomatic. For the diagnosis of t. vaginalis in women, a swab is taken from the posterior fornix during speculum examination and the flagellates are detected under light-field microscopy. The recommended treatment for t. vaginalis during pregnancy and breastfeeding is 400-500mg of metronidazole twice daily for 5 -7 days. High dose metronidazole as a 2g single dose tablet is not advised during pregnancy. All sexual partners should also be treated and screened for other STIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual periods. Her general physical examination, pelvic examination, and HPV test are normal and she has a negative pregnancy test. A CBC and chemistry profile are also normal. The next step in her workup should be:

      Your Answer: Administration of oestrogen

      Correct Answer: Cyclic administration of progesterone for 3 months

      Explanation:

      Abnormal uterine bleeding is a relatively common disorder which may be due to functional disorders of the hypothalamus, pituitary, or ovary, as well as uterine lesions. However, the patient who is younger than 30 years of age will rarely be found to have a structural uterine defect. Once pregnancy, hematologic disease, and renal impairment are excluded, administration of intramuscular or oral progesterone will usually produce definitive flow and control the bleeding. No further evaluation should be necessary unless the bleeding recurs.

      Endometrial aspiration, dilatation and curettage, and other diagnostic procedures are appropriate for recurrent problem or for older women. Oestrogen would only increase the problem, which is usually due to anovulation with prolonged oestrogen secretion, producing a hypertrophic endometrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer: High grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (HSIL)

      Correct Answer: Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL)

      Explanation:

      HPV types 6 and 11 are associated with low risk, low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. While types 16,18,31 and 33 are associated with high risk, high grade neoplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 22-year-old primigravid woman present to the emergency department. She is at 40...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old primigravid woman present to the emergency department. She is at 40 weeks gestation and complains of a 24-hour history of no fetal movements. On auscultation, fetal heart beats are clearly audible with a measurement of 140/min. On diagnostic testing, the cardiotocograph (CTG) is normal and reactive. On physical examination, her cervix is 2cm dilated and fully effaced. She is reassured and allowed to return home. 24 hours later, she calls to complain she has still felt no fetal movements, adding up to a 48 hour history. What is the best next step in management?

      Your Answer: Admit for induction of labour.

      Explanation:

      Labour induction is indicated as no fetal movements have been felt for 24 hours, with a normal cardiotocograph (CTG) and the pregnancy is at near/full term with a favourable cervix.

      Amniotic fluid volume assessment would have been indicated 24 hours earlier as, if it was low, induction would have been indicated then, despite a normal CTG.

      Ultrasound examination of the foetus is not indicated as it is necessary to expedite delivery.

      Carrying out another CTG, with or without oxytocin challenge, is not indicated, although MG monitoring during induced labour would be mandatory.

      Delivery immediately by Caesarean section is not indicated unless the lack of fetal movements is due to fetal hypoxia. This can result in fetal distress during labour, necessitating an emergency Caesarean section if the cervix is not fully dilated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 24 year old lady is rushed to the emergency department complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 24 year old lady is rushed to the emergency department complaining of vaginal spotting and abdominal cramping. Her 6 week pregnancy was confirmed by ultrasound scan last week. On speculum examination, the cervical os is open with blood noted around it. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inevitable Miscarriage

      Explanation:

      A miscarriage is defined as the spontaneous loss of a pregnancy before the age of viability at 24 weeks in the UK. An inevitable miscarriage occurs with the usual symptoms of a miscarriage such as menstrual-like cramping, vaginal bleeding and a dilated cervix. The gestational sac has ruptured but products of conception have not been passed. The products of conception will eventually pass.

      A missed miscarriage is described as a loss of pregnancy without vaginal bleeding, loss of tissue, cervical changes or abdominal pain. During a scan, a fetal heartbeat is not observed, and the gestational sac may be small.

      A threatened miscarriage is when the cervix dilates and uterine bleeding is seen; the pregnancy could still be viable.

      A complete miscarriage occurs when all the products of conception are expelled from the uterus, bleeding has stopped, and the cervix has closed up after dilation. Recurrent miscarriages are described as spontaneous pregnancy loss of more than 2 to 3 consecutive times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - You see a patient in fertility clinic who you suspect has Klinefelters. What...

    Correct

    • You see a patient in fertility clinic who you suspect has Klinefelters. What is the likely karyotype?

      Your Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome occurs in 1:1000 individuals. They are phenotypically male and genotypically they have 47,XXY chromosomes. These individuals have small testes, are tall with disproportionate long lower limbs.40% will also have gynecomastia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 33-year-old female patient walks into your office to speak with you about...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old female patient walks into your office to speak with you about her recent pap smear result. A low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion was discovered (LSIL). Her most recent pap smear, performed two years ago, came back normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Correct Answer: Repeat the pap smear in one year

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age.

      For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      Referring the patient to an oncologist is not acceptable since there is no established diagnosis of malignancy that has been made. All other options are unacceptable since Pap smear must be done in 12 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due...

    Correct

    • A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due to labour for eight hours. Two hours prior to onset of contractions, her membranes have allegedly ruptured. Fetal heart rate is at 144/min. Contractions are of good quality, noted every 2-3 minutes, with a duration of 45 seconds. On examination, her cervix is fully dilated and the patient has been pushing all throughout. Vertex is palpated in the occipito-anterior (OA) position and has descended to station 2 cm below the ischial spines in the previous hour. Which of the following most likely depicts the current condition of the patient?

      Your Answer: Normal progress.

      Explanation:

      The patient’s condition can be described as a normal progress of labour. The scenario shows a normal descent of the head in the pelvic cavity, with a favourable position, and occurring within an hour of the second stage of labour. A normal second stage of labour in a nulliparous individual occurs at a maximum of two hours, which is consistent with this patient. Hence, there is no delay in the second stage.

      There is evident progress of labour in this patient, hence, obstructed labour or cephalopelvic disproportion is ruled out.

      No signs of maternal distress such as tachycardia or pyrexia is described in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      155.5
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Spinnbarkheit is a term which means: ...

    Correct

    • Spinnbarkheit is a term which means:

      Your Answer: Threading of the cervical mucous

      Explanation:

      Spinnability (orĀ Spinnbarkeit), which measures the capacity of fluids to be drawn into threads, represents an indirect measurement of the adhesive and elastic properties of mucus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which statement given below is correct regarding the management of deep venous thrombosis...

    Correct

    • Which statement given below is correct regarding the management of deep venous thrombosis during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Warfarin therapy is contraindicated throughout pregnancy but safe during breast feeding

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy is considered as a hypercoagulable state with an increased risk for the development of conditions like deep venous thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). Among these two PE is the considered the most significant cause for maternal death in Australia.
      A pregnant women with venous thromboembolism should be treated with heparin as warfarin is contraindicated. Warfarin should be avoided throughout pregnancy and especially during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy as it crosses the placenta. Intake of warfarin at 6-12 weeks of pregnancy can results in fetal warfarin syndrome which is characterised by:
      – A characteristic nasal hypoplasia
      – Short fingers with hypoplastic nails
      – Calcified epiphyses, namely chondrodysplasia punctuta which is evident by stippling of epiphyses on X-ray.
      – Intellectual disability
      – Low birth weight
      Recent studies show that the risk of fetal warfarin syndrome is around 5 % more in babies of women who require warfarin throughout pregnancy and the risk is always dose dependent.
      Later exposure to warfarin, as in after 12 weeks, is mostly associated with central nervous system anomalies like microcephaly, hydrocephalus, agenesis of corpus callosum, Dandy-Walker malformation which is characterised by complete absence of cerebellar vermis along with enlarged fourth ventricle and mental retardation. Eye anomalies such as optic atrophy, microphthalmia, and Peter anomaly which is the dysgenesis of the anterior segment are also found in association. Newborns exposed to warfarin in all three trimesters are prone to present with blindness. Other complications found in neonates exposed to warfarin are perinatal intracranial hemorrhage and other major bleeding episodes.

      Warfarin is not secreted into the breast milk and is so safe to use during the postpartum period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (8/12) 67%
Anatomy (4/7) 57%
Gynaecology (1/7) 14%
Immunology (2/3) 67%
Clinical Management (5/9) 56%
Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Microbiology (1/3) 33%
Physiology (3/4) 75%
Biophysics (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Passmed