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  • Question 1 - The etiology of osteopetrosis is most effectively described by a malfunction in which...

    Incorrect

    • The etiology of osteopetrosis is most effectively described by a malfunction in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Osteoblast function

      Correct Answer: Osteoclast function

      Explanation:

      Understanding Osteopetrosis: A Rare Disorder of Bone Resorption

      Osteopetrosis, also known as marble bone disease, is a rare disorder that affects the normal function of osteoclasts, leading to a failure of bone resorption. This results in the formation of dense, thick bones that are more prone to fractures. Individuals with osteopetrosis often experience bone pains and neuropathies. Despite the abnormal bone growth, levels of calcium, phosphate, and ALP remain normal.

      Treatment options for osteopetrosis include stem cell transplant and interferon-gamma therapy. However, these treatments are not always effective and may have significant side effects. As such, early diagnosis and management of osteopetrosis is crucial in preventing complications and improving quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A basketball enthusiast in his early twenties visits his GP complaining of discomfort...

    Correct

    • A basketball enthusiast in his early twenties visits his GP complaining of discomfort in his right shoulder and neck, and also reports an unusual appearance on the right side of his upper back.

      To assess the condition, the GP asks the patient to stand facing a wall and extend his arms straight in front of him, with his palms flat against the wall. The GP then instructs the patient to bend his arms and push away from the wall. During the movement, the patient's right shoulder blade protrudes from his back.

      Based on the symptoms, which nerve is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Explanation:

      The correct nerve that supplies the serratus anterior muscle is the long thoracic nerve. This muscle is responsible for pulling the scapula around the thorax, and damage to this nerve can cause medial winging of the scapula.

      The axillary nerve is not the correct answer as it supplies the deltoid muscle, which is responsible for shoulder abduction. Damage to this nerve results in a flattened deltoid muscle, not winging of the scapula.

      The musculocutaneous nerve supplies the biceps brachii muscle, which is responsible for elbow flexion. Damage to this nerve does not affect the scapulae.

      The spinal accessory nerve supplies the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, and injury to this nerve may result in difficulty turning the head from side to side or shrugging the shoulders. It does not affect the scapulae.

      Trauma to the thoracodorsal nerve may cause atrophy of the latissimus dorsi muscle and difficulty moving the affected shoulder, but it does not cause winging of the scapula.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of crushing chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of crushing chest pain. Her ECG shows no abnormalities. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis managed with methotrexate, hypertension, and type II diabetes. Her BMI is 34 kg/m². As a healthcare provider, you initiate aspirin therapy.

      What is the most significant risk this patient is facing?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow toxicity

      Explanation:

      Taking aspirin while on methotrexate treatment can be dangerous as it reduces the excretion of methotrexate, leading to an increased risk of toxicity and bone marrow problems. However, some studies suggest that methotrexate may be helpful in treating severe osteoarthritis and polymyositis. All other options are incorrect.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 15-year-old girl presents with a painful swelling in her distal femur. After...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with a painful swelling in her distal femur. After diagnosis, it is revealed that she has osteoblastic sarcoma. What is the most probable site for metastasis of this lesion?

      Your Answer: Lung

      Explanation:

      Sarcomas that exhibit lymphatic metastasis can be remembered using the acronym ‘RACE For MS’, which stands for Rhabdomyosarcoma, Angiosarcoma, Clear cell sarcoma, Epithelial cell sarcoma, Fibrosarcoma, Malignant fibrous histiocytoma, and Synovial cell sarcoma. Alternatively, the acronym ‘SCARE’ can be used to remember Synovial sarcoma, Clear cell sarcoma, Angiosarcoma, Rhabdomyosarcoma, and Epithelioid sarcoma. While sarcomas typically metastasize through the bloodstream and commonly spread to the lungs, lymphatic metastasis is less common but may occur in some cases. The liver and brain are typically spared from initial metastasis.

      Sarcomas: Types, Features, and Assessment

      Sarcomas are malignant tumors that originate from mesenchymal cells. They can either be bone or soft tissue in origin. Bone sarcomas include osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, and chondrosarcoma, while soft tissue sarcomas are a more diverse group that includes liposarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and synovial sarcomas. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is a sarcoma that can arise in both soft tissue and bone.

      Certain features of a mass or swelling should raise suspicion for a sarcoma, such as a large (>5cm) soft tissue mass, deep tissue or intra-muscular location, rapid growth, and a painful lump. Imaging of suspicious masses should utilize a combination of MRI, CT, and USS. Blind biopsy should not be performed prior to imaging, and where required, should be done in such a way that the biopsy tract can be subsequently included in any resection.

      Ewing’s sarcoma is more common in males, with an incidence of 0.3/1,000,000 and onset typically between 10 and 20 years of age. Osteosarcoma is more common in males, with an incidence of 5/1,000,000 and peak age 15-30. Liposarcoma is rare, with an incidence of approximately 2.5/1,000,000, and typically affects an older age group (>40 years of age). Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is the most common sarcoma in adults and is usually treated with surgical resection and adjuvant radiotherapy.

      In summary, sarcomas are a diverse group of malignant tumors that can arise from bone or soft tissue. Certain features of a mass or swelling should raise suspicion for a sarcoma, and imaging should utilize a combination of MRI, CT, and USS. Treatment options vary depending on the type and location of the sarcoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old man falls and suffers a fracture to the medial third of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man falls and suffers a fracture to the medial third of his clavicle. What is the vessel that is most vulnerable to injury?

      Your Answer: Subclavian artery

      Correct Answer: Subclavian vein

      Explanation:

      The subclavian vein is situated at the back of the subclavius muscle and the medial portion of the clavicle. It is positioned below and in front of the third segment of the subclavian artery, resting on the first rib, and then on scalenus anterior, which separates it from the second segment of the artery at the back.

      Anatomy of the Clavicle

      The clavicle is a bone that runs from the sternum to the acromion and plays a crucial role in preventing the shoulder from falling forwards and downwards. Its inferior surface is marked by ligaments at each end, including the trapezoid line and conoid tubercle, which provide attachment to the coracoclavicular ligament. The costoclavicular ligament attaches to the irregular surface on the medial part of the inferior surface, while the subclavius muscle attaches to the intermediate portion’s groove.

      The superior part of the clavicle’s medial end has a raised surface that gives attachment to the clavicular head of sternocleidomastoid, while the posterior surface attaches to the sternohyoid. On the lateral end, there is an oval articular facet for the acromion, and a disk lies between the clavicle and acromion. The joint’s capsule attaches to the ridge on the margin of the facet.

      In summary, the clavicle is a vital bone that helps stabilize the shoulder joint and provides attachment points for various ligaments and muscles. Its anatomy is marked by distinct features that allow for proper function and movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a car accident with...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a car accident with complaints of shortness of breath and right shoulder pain. Upon examination, his vital signs are as follows: temperature of 36.5ºC, heart rate of 96 bpm, respiratory rate of 36 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 125/95 mmHg. The right clavicle is tender and deformed, and there is hyper resonance over the right thorax. A chest x-ray is ordered, which reveals a right-sided apical pneumothorax. Which part of the clavicle is most likely fractured?

      Your Answer: Medial third of the clavicle

      Correct Answer: Middle third of the clavicle

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the middle third of the clavicle. The apex of the pleural cavity is located behind this area, with its tip situated in the supraclavicular fossa.

      The acromioclavicular junction, lateral third of the clavicle, medial third of the clavicle, and sternoclavicular junction are all incorrect answers. These areas have different anatomical structures and functions.

      Anatomy of the Clavicle

      The clavicle is a bone that runs from the sternum to the acromion and plays a crucial role in preventing the shoulder from falling forwards and downwards. Its inferior surface is marked by ligaments at each end, including the trapezoid line and conoid tubercle, which provide attachment to the coracoclavicular ligament. The costoclavicular ligament attaches to the irregular surface on the medial part of the inferior surface, while the subclavius muscle attaches to the intermediate portion’s groove.

      The superior part of the clavicle’s medial end has a raised surface that gives attachment to the clavicular head of sternocleidomastoid, while the posterior surface attaches to the sternohyoid. On the lateral end, there is an oval articular facet for the acromion, and a disk lies between the clavicle and acromion. The joint’s capsule attaches to the ridge on the margin of the facet.

      In summary, the clavicle is a vital bone that helps stabilize the shoulder joint and provides attachment points for various ligaments and muscles. Its anatomy is marked by distinct features that allow for proper function and movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which muscle is not a part of the rotator cuff? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscle is not a part of the rotator cuff?

      Your Answer: Deltoid

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles

      The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.

      The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.

      Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A young woman presents with the inability to extend her wrist. Examination confirms...

    Correct

    • A young woman presents with the inability to extend her wrist. Examination confirms this and is consistent with a 'wrist drop'. Which nerve has most likely been affected?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      If the radial nerve is damaged, it can lead to wrist drop because it is responsible for innervating the extensor muscles that help extend the hand against gravity. This symptom is unique to radial nerve damage and is not seen with any of the other nerves listed.

      Damage to the axillary nerve would affect the deltoid muscle and cause problems with arm abduction.

      Impaired biceps brachii muscle function and arm flexion would result from damage to the musculocutaneous nerve.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve would cause weakness in the lateral two fingers, resulting in a claw-like appearance.

      Paralysis of the thenar muscles due to damage to the median nerve would lead to an inability to abduct and oppose the thumb.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following is not a pathological response to extensive burns...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is not a pathological response to extensive burns in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Absolute polycythaemia

      Explanation:

      The primary pathological response is haemolysis.

      Pathology of Burns

      Extensive burns can cause various pathological changes in the body. The heat and microangiopathy can damage erythrocytes, leading to haemolysis. The loss of capillary membrane integrity can cause plasma leakage into the interstitial space, resulting in hypovolaemic shock. This shock can occur up to 48 hours after the injury and can cause a decrease in blood volume and an increase in haematocrit. Additionally, protein loss and secondary infections, such as Staphylococcus aureus, can occur. There is also a risk of acute peptic stress ulcers, known as Curling’s ulcers. Furthermore, full-thickness circumferential burns in an extremity can lead to compartment syndrome.

      The healing process of burns depends on the severity of the burn. Superficial burns can heal through the migration of keratinocytes to form a new layer over the burn site. However, full-thickness burns can result in dermal scarring, which may require skin grafts to provide optimal coverage. It is important to understand the pathology of burns to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old woman experiences a fracture at the surgical neck of her humerus...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman experiences a fracture at the surgical neck of her humerus and requires surgery. During the operation, there are challenges in realigning the fracture, and a blood vessel located behind the surgical neck is damaged. What is the most probable vessel that was injured?

      Your Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral artery

      Explanation:

      The surgical neck is where the circumflex humeral arteries are located, with the posterior circumflex humeral artery being the most susceptible to injury in this situation. The thoracoacromial and transverse scapular arteries are situated in a more superomedial position. It is worth noting that the axillary artery gives rise to the posterior circumflex humeral artery.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A histopathologist receives multiple muscle tissue specimens and wants to identify the muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A histopathologist receives multiple muscle tissue specimens and wants to identify the muscle type based on the presence of nuclei. Which muscle type has a single nucleus located centrally along the muscle fiber?

      Your Answer: Cardiac and skeletal muscle

      Correct Answer: Cardiac and smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      There are three categories of muscle: skeletal, cardiac, and smooth.

      The Process of Muscle Contraction

      Muscle contraction is a complex process that involves several steps. It begins with an action potential reaching the neuromuscular junction, which causes a calcium ion influx through voltage-gated calcium channels. This influx leads to the release of acetylcholine into the extracellular space, which activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, triggering an action potential. The action potential then spreads through the T-tubules, activating L-type voltage-dependent calcium channels in the T-tubule membrane, which are close to calcium-release channels in the adjacent sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium, which binds to troponin C, causing a conformational change that allows tropomyosin to move, unblocking the binding sites. Myosin then binds to the newly released binding site, releasing ADP and pulling the Z bands towards each other. ATP binds to myosin, releasing actin.

      The components involved in muscle contraction include the sarcomere, which is the basic unit of muscles that gives skeletal and cardiac muscles their striated appearance. The I-band is the zone of thin filaments that is not superimposed by thick filaments, while the A-band contains the entire length of a single thick filament. The H-zone is the zone of the thick filaments that is not superimposed by the thin filaments, and the M-line is in the middle of the sarcomere, cross-linking myosin. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ion in response to depolarization, while actin is the thin filaments that transmit the forces generated by myosin to the ends of the muscle. Myosin is the thick filaments that bind to the thin filament, while titin connects the Z-line to the thick filament, altering the structure of tropomyosin. Tropomyosin covers the myosin-binding sites on actin, while troponin-C binds with calcium ions. The T-tubule is an invagination of the sarcoplasmic reticulum that helps co-ordinate muscular contraction.

      There are two types of skeletal muscle fibres: type I and type II. Type I fibres have a slow contraction time, are red in colour due to the presence of myoglobin, and are used for sustained force. They have a high mitochondrial density and use triglycerides as

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 43-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of pain in her...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of pain in her left hand. She reports experiencing occasional pins and needles in her left thumb and index fingers on the palm of her hand for the past two months. The pain is more severe at night and sometimes prevents her from sleeping.

      Which nerve is responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing paraesthesia (pins and needles) and pain in the thumb and index finger, which worsens at night. This is likely due to nerve compression, specifically the median nerve, which supplies sensation to the palmar aspect of the lateral 3½ fingers.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - During a hip examination, Sarah, a 65-year-old female, is found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • During a hip examination, Sarah, a 65-year-old female, is found to have a positive trendelenburg's sign. When she stands on only her left leg, her right pelvis drops.

      If the cause of her positive trendelenburg's sign is neurological, which nerve is affected in Sarah?

      Your Answer: Left superior gluteal

      Correct Answer: Right superior gluteal

      Explanation:

      If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. This nerve is responsible for providing innervation to the gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles, which are important for abducting and medially rotating the lower limb, as well as preventing pelvic drop of the opposing limb. For example, when standing on only the right leg, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles stabilize the pelvis. However, if the right superior gluteal nerve is damaged, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles will not receive proper innervation, leading to instability and a drop in the left pelvis when standing on the right leg. On the other hand, the inferior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus maximus muscles, which are responsible for extending the thigh and performing lateral rotation.

      The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function

      The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.

      When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.

      To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.

      It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      73.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which muscle is responsible for causing flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle is responsible for causing flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the index finger?

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus

      Correct Answer: Flexor pollicis longus

      Explanation:

      There are a total of 8 muscles that are involved in the movement of the thumb. These include two flexors, namely flexor pollicis brevis and flexor pollicis longus, two extensors, namely extensor pollicis brevis and longus, two abductors, namely abductor pollicis brevis and longus, one adductor, namely adductor pollicis, and one muscle that opposes the thumb by rotating the CMC joint, known as opponens pollicis. The flexor and extensor longus muscles are responsible for moving both the MCP and IP joints and insert on the distal phalanx.

      Anatomy of the Hand: Fascia, Compartments, and Tendons

      The hand is composed of bones, muscles, and tendons that work together to perform various functions. The bones of the hand include eight carpal bones, five metacarpals, and 14 phalanges. The intrinsic muscles of the hand include the interossei, which are supplied by the ulnar nerve, and the lumbricals, which flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joint. The thenar eminence contains the abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and flexor pollicis brevis, while the hypothenar eminence contains the opponens digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and abductor digiti minimi.

      The fascia of the palm is thin over the thenar and hypothenar eminences but relatively thick elsewhere. The palmar aponeurosis covers the soft tissues and overlies the flexor tendons. The palmar fascia is continuous with the antebrachial fascia and the fascia of the dorsum of the hand. The hand is divided into compartments by fibrous septa, with the thenar compartment lying lateral to the lateral septum, the hypothenar compartment lying medial to the medial septum, and the central compartment containing the flexor tendons and their sheaths, the lumbricals, the superficial palmar arterial arch, and the digital vessels and nerves. The deepest muscular plane is the adductor compartment, which contains adductor pollicis.

      The tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) enter the common flexor sheath deep to the flexor retinaculum. The tendons enter the central compartment of the hand and fan out to their respective digital synovial sheaths. The fibrous digital sheaths contain the flexor tendons and their synovial sheaths, extending from the heads of the metacarpals to the base of the distal phalanges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old man is stabbed in the neck, in the area between the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is stabbed in the neck, in the area between the omohyoid and digastric muscles. During surgery to explore the injury, a nerve injury is discovered just above the lingual artery where it branches off from the external carotid artery. What is the most probable outcome of this injury?

      Your Answer: Abduction of the ipsilateral vocal cord

      Correct Answer: Paralysis of the ipsilateral side of the tongue

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery is located posterior to the hypoglossal nerve, while the lingual arterial branch is situated below it. In case of damage to the nerve, the genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles on the same side will become paralyzed. When the patient is instructed to stick out their tongue, it will deviate towards the affected side.

      The Anterior Triangle of the Neck: Boundaries and Contents

      The anterior triangle of the neck is a region that is bounded by the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lower border of the mandible, and the anterior midline. It is further divided into three sub-triangles by the digastric muscle and the omohyoid muscle. The muscular triangle contains the neck strap muscles, while the carotid triangle contains the carotid sheath, which houses the common carotid artery, the vagus nerve, and the internal jugular vein. The submandibular triangle, located below the digastric muscle, contains the submandibular gland, submandibular nodes, facial vessels, hypoglossal nerve, and other structures.

      The digastric muscle, which separates the submandibular triangle from the muscular triangle, is innervated by two different nerves. The anterior belly of the digastric muscle is supplied by the mylohyoid nerve, while the posterior belly is supplied by the facial nerve.

      Overall, the anterior triangle of the neck is an important anatomical region that contains many vital structures, including blood vessels, nerves, and glands. Understanding the boundaries and contents of this region is essential for medical professionals who work in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Samantha, a 65-year-old female, visits a vascular clinic and complains of leg pain...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 65-year-old female, visits a vascular clinic and complains of leg pain while walking, which subsides when she rests. However, she has recently experienced night pain in her leg that wakes her up. She has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and hypercholesterolemia, and her BMI is 29kg/m².

      The surgeon suspects peripheral vascular disease and conducts a peripheral vascular exam. During the exam, the surgeon finds it difficult to palpate the posterior tibial pulse.

      Where is the posterior tibial pulse located anatomically?

      Your Answer: Superior posteriorly to the medial malleolus

      Correct Answer: Inferior posteriorly to the medial malleolus

      Explanation:

      The posterior tibial pulse is located inferiorly and posteriorly to the medial malleolus. It is not found superiorly or anteriorly to the medial malleolus, nor is it located posterior to the lateral malleolus. It is important to accurately locate the pulse for proper assessment and diagnosis.

      Anatomy of the Posterior Tibial Artery

      The posterior tibial artery is a major branch of the popliteal artery that terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar arteries. It is accompanied by two veins throughout its length and its position corresponds to a line drawn from the lower angle of the popliteal fossa to a point midway between the medial malleolus and the most prominent part of the heel.

      The artery is located anteriorly to the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles, and posteriorly to the surface of the tibia and ankle joint. The posterior tibial nerve is located 2.5 cm distal to its origin. The proximal part of the artery is covered by the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, while the distal part is covered by skin and fascia. The artery is also covered by the fascia overlying the deep muscular layer.

      Understanding the anatomy of the posterior tibial artery is important for medical professionals, as it plays a crucial role in the blood supply to the foot and ankle. Any damage or blockage to this artery can lead to serious complications, such as peripheral artery disease or even amputation.

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  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a fractured neck of...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a fractured neck of femur. The trauma and orthopaedic team decides that a total hip replacement is necessary. What is the most significant danger of leaving hip fractures untreated?

      Your Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

      Explanation:

      Fractures in the neck of the femur can be extremely dangerous, especially in elderly women with osteoporosis who experience minor trauma. However, they can also be caused by a single traumatic event.

      When the femoral neck is fractured, the femur is displaced anteriorly and superiorly, resulting in a shortened leg. This displacement causes the medial rotators to become lax and the lateral rotators to become taut, leading to lateral rotation of the leg.

      The blood supply to the femoral neck is delicate and is provided by the lateral and medial circumflex femoral arteries, which give off reticular arteries that pierce the joint capsule. These arteries are branches of the femoral artery.

      The hip joint is supplied by two anastomoses: the trochanteric anastomosis, formed by the circumflex femoral arteries and the descending branch of the superior gluteal, and the Cruciate anastomosis, formed by the circumflex femoral, descending branch of the inferior gluteal, and ascending branch of the first perforating artery.

      The femoral head has a high metabolic rate due to its wide range of movement, which stimulates bone turnover and remodeling. This requires an adequate blood supply.

      Intracapsular fractures in the cervical or subcapital regions can impede blood supply and lead to avascular necrosis of the head. However, intertrochanteric fractures spare the blood supply.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures are classified based on their location, either intracapsular or extracapsular. The Garden system is a commonly used classification system that categorizes fractures into four types based on stability and displacement. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV.

      Undisplaced intracapsular fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures require replacement arthroplasty, with total hip replacement being preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with no more than a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular fractures are managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures and an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

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  • Question 18 - A 42-year-old woman is experiencing cubital tunnel syndrome in her left arm. Can...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman is experiencing cubital tunnel syndrome in her left arm. Can you identify which muscle in her forearm may be impacted by this condition?

      Your Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve supplies the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, while all other flexor muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm are innervated by the median nerve. Therefore, the correct answer is flexor carpi ulnaris.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

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  • Question 19 - A 48-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of tiredness, increased urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of tiredness, increased urinary frequency, constipation, and low back pain for the past 3 months. She has a 20-year history of smoking 1 pack of cigarettes per day and drinks socially. Her family is concerned about depression. On examination, her pulse is 72/min, and her blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg.

      The following are her lab results:

      - Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 2.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 75 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - PTH 19 pmol/L (0.8 - 8.5)
      - Vitamin D 35 nmol/L (> 25)
      - Serum calcium (corrected) X mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      - Serum phosphate Y mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      - Alkaline phosphatase Z umol/L (30-100)

      What are the possible values for X, Y, and Z in this patient?

      Your Answer: X = 2.5; Y = 1.1; Z = 45

      Correct Answer: X = 3.7; Y = 0.4; Z = 175

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is indicated by elevated levels of serum calcium, decreased levels of serum phosphate, increased levels of ALP, and increased levels of PTH.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information about the condition. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically normal. However, in osteomalacia, calcium and phosphate levels are decreased while ALP and PTH levels are increased. Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can result in secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is marked by decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels. Paget’s disease, on the other hand, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels but increased ALP levels. Finally, osteopetrosis is associated with normal levels of calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH. By analyzing these lab values, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat bone disorders.

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  • Question 20 - A mother brings her 3-year-old son to the GP worried about his motor...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 3-year-old son to the GP worried about his motor development. Since he started walking 9 months ago, the child has been limping and avoiding weight bearing on the left leg. He has otherwise been healthy. He was born at term via a caesarean section, due to his breech position, and weighed 4.5kg. What is the probable reason for his limp?

      Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

      Correct Answer: Developmental dysplasia of the hip

      Explanation:

      The condition is developmental dysplasia of the hip, which is typically observed in individuals under the age of 4.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

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  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old man visits the GP complaining of weakness in his right foot...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man visits the GP complaining of weakness in his right foot muscles. The GP observes difficulty with inversion and suspects weakness in the posterior leg muscles.

      Which muscle is responsible for this movement?

      Your Answer: Peroneus longus

      Correct Answer: Tibialis posterior

      Explanation:

      The muscles located in the deep posterior compartment are:

      Muscular Compartments of the Lower Limb

      The lower limb is composed of different muscular compartments that perform various actions. The anterior compartment includes the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor hallucis longus muscles. These muscles are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve and are responsible for dorsiflexing the ankle joint, inverting and evert the foot, and extending the toes.

      The peroneal compartment, on the other hand, consists of the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles, which are innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. These muscles are responsible for eversion of the foot and plantar flexion of the ankle joint.

      The superficial posterior compartment includes the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for plantar flexion of the foot and may also flex the knee.

      Lastly, the deep posterior compartment includes the flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for flexing the toes, flexing the great toe, and plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, respectively.

      Understanding the muscular compartments of the lower limb is important in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect these muscles. Proper identification and management of these conditions can help improve mobility and function of the lower limb.

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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old male is requested to hold a pen between his thumb and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is requested to hold a pen between his thumb and index finger. He finds it difficult to accomplish this task.

      What other activity is the patient likely to have difficulty with?

      Your Answer: Abduction of the thumb

      Correct Answer: Adduction of his fingers

      Explanation:

      If a patient exhibits a positive Froment’s sign, it suggests that they may have ulnar nerve palsy. The ulnar nerve is responsible for controlling finger adduction and abduction. Meanwhile, the median nerve is responsible for thumb abduction and wrist pronation, while the radial nerve controls wrist extension.

      Nerve signs are used to assess the function of specific nerves in the body. One such sign is Froment’s sign, which is used to assess for ulnar nerve palsy. During this test, the adductor pollicis muscle function is tested by having the patient hold a piece of paper between their thumb and index finger. The object is then pulled away, and if the patient is unable to hold the paper and flexes the flexor pollicis longus to compensate, it may indicate ulnar nerve palsy.

      Another nerve sign used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome is Phalen’s test. This test is more sensitive than Tinel’s sign and involves holding the wrist in maximum flexion. If there is numbness in the median nerve distribution, the test is considered positive.

      Tinel’s sign is also used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. During this test, the median nerve at the wrist is tapped, and if the patient experiences tingling or electric-like sensations over the distribution of the median nerve, the test is considered positive. These nerve signs are important tools in diagnosing and assessing nerve function in patients.

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  • Question 23 - A 20-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with an infectious episode that caused...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with an infectious episode that caused a sore throat. The illness was found to be caused by a gram-positive cocci in chains. Two weeks later, he developed teardrop erythematous lesions on his trunk and arms. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Impetigo

      Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Guttate psoriasis is frequently seen after a streptococcal infection, with group-A streptococcus being the likely culprit. The condition is characterized by the appearance of small, teardrop shaped red lesions. Scarlet fever, which is also caused by group-A streptococcus, presents with a rough rash, fever, swollen lymph nodes, and a red tongue. Pityriasis rosea, on the other hand, typically follows a viral infection and is identified by a single scaly patch followed by a widespread salmon-pink rash. Acne vulgaris and impetigo are not commonly associated with a streptococcal sore throat.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The condition is characterized by the presence of tear drop-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, along with pink, scaly patches or plaques of psoriasis. The onset of guttate psoriasis tends to be acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis resolves on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections associated with the condition. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, which is another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is typically preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear drop-shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple erythematous, slightly raised oval lesions with a fine scale. Pityriasis rosea is self-limiting and resolves after around 6 weeks.

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  • Question 24 - A 26-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of low back pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of low back pain. She is in good health otherwise. She reports several finger and wrist fractures during her childhood. Her father and sister have also experienced multiple fractures throughout their lives. On examination, she displays paralumbar tenderness and scoliosis. Her sclera is blue-grey. What type of collagen mutation is likely responsible for her condition?

      Your Answer: Type 1

      Explanation:

      Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by an abnormality in type 1 collagen, which is the primary component of bone, skin, and tendons. The diagnosis is based on a combination of factors, including a history of fractures, scoliosis, family history, and physical examination findings. In contrast, mutations in type 2 collagen can lead to chondrodysplasias, while mutations in type 3 collagen may cause a type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Additionally, mutations in type 4 collagen can result in Alport’s syndrome and Goodpasture’s syndrome, as this type of collagen forms the basal lamina.

      Understanding Osteogenesis Imperfecta

      Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by decreased synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides.

      This condition typically presents in childhood, with individuals experiencing fractures following minor trauma. Other common features include blue sclera, deafness secondary to otosclerosis, and dental imperfections. Despite these symptoms, adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal in individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and underlying causes of osteogenesis imperfecta is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

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  • Question 25 - A 31-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a skateboard accident. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a skateboard accident. He reports experiencing intense pain in his left lower leg. The patient has no significant medical history and is typically self-sufficient and healthy.

      During the examination, the physician notes palpable tenderness and significant bruising on the lateral side of the left leg, just below the knee. The patient is unable to dorsiflex his left foot.

      Which anatomical structure is most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Femoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing foot drop, which is characterized by the inability to dorsiflex the foot, following a fibular neck fracture. This injury commonly affects the common peroneal nerve, which supplies the dorsum of the foot and lower, lateral part of the leg. The patient’s history of falling from a skateboard and tenderness and bruising over the lower left leg support this diagnosis.

      Achilles tendon rupture, on the other hand, presents with sudden-onset pain and a popping sensation at the back of the heel. It is more common in athletes or those taking certain medications. The deltoid ligament, which stabilizes the ankle against eversion injury, is less commonly injured and would not cause foot drop. The femoral nerve, which supplies the quadriceps muscles and plays a role in knee extension, is not affected by a fibular neck fracture and does not cause foot drop. The tibial nerve, responsible for foot plantarflexion and inversion, is not directly involved in foot drop, although its lack of opposing action from the anterior muscle group of the lower leg may contribute to the foot’s plantarflexed position.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

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  • Question 26 - Which of the muscles below does not cause lateral rotation of the hip?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the muscles below does not cause lateral rotation of the hip?

      Your Answer: Gemellus inferior

      Correct Answer: Pectineus

      Explanation:

      P-GO-GO-Q is a mnemonic for remembering the lateral hip rotators in order from top to bottom: Piriformis, Gemellus superior, Obturator internus, Gemellus inferior, Obturator externus, and Quadratus femoris.

      Anatomy of the Hip Joint

      The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.

      There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.

      The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.

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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman is stabbed in the buttock and receives sutures in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is stabbed in the buttock and receives sutures in the emergency department. When she visits the clinic eight weeks later, she presents with a waddling gait and difficulty with thigh abduction. Upon examination, she exhibits buttock muscle wasting. Which nerve was damaged in the injury?

      Your Answer: Inferior gluteal nerve

      Correct Answer: Superior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it will cause a Trendelenburg gait.

      The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function

      The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.

      When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.

      To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.

      It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.

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  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old woman with hypertension and heart failure has been prescribed hydralazine. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman with hypertension and heart failure has been prescribed hydralazine. She now presents with joint pain, fatigue, a cough, and a rash on her cheeks. Her blood test reveals positive results for anti-histone antibodies.

      What is the underlying reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Correct Answer: Drug induced lupus

      Explanation:

      Hydralazine has the potential to cause drug-induced lupus, which is the most likely explanation for the patient’s symptoms. Lupus is characterized by respiratory symptoms, arthralgia, fatigue, and a malar rash (butterfly rash), and the patient has no prior history of these symptoms but has tested positive for anti-histone antibodies. Other drugs that can induce lupus include procainamide, isoniazid, and methyldopa.

      Leukaemia, on the other hand, would present with abnormal full blood count results and a more gradual onset, making it less likely in this case.

      Pneumonia and parvovirus B19 are also less likely causes, as the patient’s lack of fever and positive anti-histone antibodies do not align with these conditions.

      Drug-induced lupus is a condition that differs from systemic lupus erythematosus in that it does not typically involve renal or nervous system complications. This condition can be resolved by discontinuing the medication that caused it. Symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint and muscle pain, skin rashes (such as a malar rash), and pleurisy. Patients with this condition will test positive for ANA, but negative for dsDNA. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith are only present in around 5%. The most common causes of drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine, while less common causes include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.

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  • Question 29 - A fifteen-year-old comes in with a swollen, red, and tender first metatarsophalangeal joint....

    Incorrect

    • A fifteen-year-old comes in with a swollen, red, and tender first metatarsophalangeal joint. After diagnosis and treatment for gout, he confesses to having experienced three previous episodes. What medical condition is linked to gout?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gout is commonly associated with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, an inherited enzyme deficiency also known as ‘juvenile gout’. This condition is also characterized by self-injuring behavior, cognitive impairment, and nervous system impairment. However, juvenile idiopathic arthritis and osteoarthritis, which also cause joint pain and swelling, are not strongly linked to gout. On the other hand, pseudogout is associated with hyperparathyroidism.

      Predisposing Factors for Gout

      Gout is a type of synovitis caused by the accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate in the synovium. This condition is triggered by chronic hyperuricaemia, which is characterized by uric acid levels exceeding 0.45 mmol/l. There are two main factors that contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia: decreased excretion of uric acid and increased production of uric acid.

      Decreased excretion of uric acid can be caused by various factors, including the use of diuretics, chronic kidney disease, and lead toxicity. On the other hand, increased production of uric acid can be triggered by myeloproliferative/lymphoproliferative disorders, cytotoxic drugs, and severe psoriasis.

      In rare cases, gout can also be caused by genetic disorders such as Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, which is characterized by hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRTase) deficiency. This condition is x-linked recessive, which means it is only seen in boys. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with gout, renal failure, neurological deficits, learning difficulties, and self-mutilation.

      It is worth noting that aspirin in low doses (75-150mg) is not believed to have a significant impact on plasma urate levels. Therefore, the British Society for Rheumatology recommends that it should be continued if necessary for cardiovascular prophylaxis.

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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful, erythematous, vesicular rash...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful, erythematous, vesicular rash on the anteromedial aspect of his left arm and a small area of his left chest. The patient reports that he first experienced pain in the affected area three days ago and noticed the rash yesterday morning. He attributes his current stressful state to work-related issues, which were exacerbated by a recent COVID-19 infection that required him to take 10 days off. The patient confirms that he had chickenpox during his childhood. Based on this information, where is the virus responsible for his symptoms most likely to have been dormant in his nervous system?

      Your Answer: T1 dorsal root ganglion

      Explanation:

      After the primary infection (usually chickenpox during childhood), the herpes zoster virus remains inactive in the dorsal root or cranial nerve ganglia. The patient’s rash, which appears in the left T1 dermatome, indicates that the virus has been dormant in the T1 dorsal root ganglion. Although herpes zoster can reactivate at any time, it is more commonly associated with older age, recent viral infections, periods of stress, or immunosuppression.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

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  • Question 31 - A 28 years old has a bike accident leading to a fracture in...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 years old has a bike accident leading to a fracture in the wrist.

      What is the type of joint that is fractured?

      Your Answer: Synovial saddle

      Correct Answer: Synovial condyloid

      Explanation:

      The wrist is classified as a synovial condyloid joint, consisting of 8 carpal bones that enable movements such as abduction, adduction, flexion, and extension. On the other hand, synovial hinge joints only allow movement in one plane, such as the elbow and knee joints. Meanwhile, secondary cartilaginous joints, also known as midline joints, are fibrocartilaginous fusions between two bones that allow very minimal movement, such as the sternomanubrial joint and symphysis pubis. Synovial saddle joints, on the other hand, allow flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, and circumduction, but not axial rotation, with examples including the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb and the sternoclavicular joint of the chest. Lastly, synovial plane joints only permit gliding movement, such as the joint between carpal bones in the hand.

      Carpal Bones: The Wrist’s Building Blocks

      The wrist is composed of eight carpal bones, which are arranged in two rows of four. These bones are convex from side to side posteriorly and concave anteriorly. The trapezium is located at the base of the first metacarpal bone, which is the base of the thumb. The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones do not have any tendons attached to them, but they are stabilized by ligaments.

      In summary, the carpal bones are the building blocks of the wrist, and they play a crucial role in the wrist’s movement and stability. The trapezium bone is located at the base of the thumb, while the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones are stabilized by ligaments. Understanding the anatomy of the wrist is essential for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 32 - After a recent renal transplant, Sarah is required to take mycophenolate mofetil alongside...

    Correct

    • After a recent renal transplant, Sarah is required to take mycophenolate mofetil alongside some other medications to prevent transplant rejection. Her doctor explains that mycophenolate mofetil is an immunosuppressant that may increase her risk of infection. For this reason, Sarah must seek advice from a doctor if she ever develops a fever or sore throat.

      What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of inosine-5'-monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH)

      Explanation:

      Mycophenolate Mofetil: How it Works as an Immunosuppressant

      Mycophenolate mofetil is a medication that is often prescribed to prevent the rejection of organ transplants. It works by inhibiting the activity of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, an enzyme that is necessary for the synthesis of purines. Since T and B cells rely heavily on this pathway for their proliferation, mycophenolate mofetil can effectively reduce the activity of these immune cells.

      In simpler terms, mycophenolate mofetil works by blocking a key enzyme that immune cells need to grow and multiply. By doing so, it can help prevent the body from attacking and rejecting a transplanted organ. This medication is often used in combination with other immunosuppressants to achieve the best possible outcomes for transplant patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 33 - A 67-year-old postmenopausal woman visits the clinic to discuss her bone densitometry results....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old postmenopausal woman visits the clinic to discuss her bone densitometry results. She has a history of hypertension and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her BMI is 22.1 kg/m² and physical examination is unremarkable. Serum calcium, phosphorus concentrations, and serum alkaline phosphatase activity are within the reference ranges. The bone densitometry shows low bone density consistent with osteoporosis. What medication was most likely prescribed to inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, and resulted in no further loss of bone mineral density on repeat bone densitometry 1 year later?

      Your Answer: Raloxifene

      Correct Answer: Risedronate

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates, such as alendronate and risedronate, are used to treat osteoporosis by preventing bone resorption through the inhibition of osteoclasts. These drugs are taken up by the osteoclasts, preventing them from adhering to the bone surface and continuing the resorption process.

      Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that works by binding to the receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANK-L), which blocks the interaction between RANK-L and RANK, ultimately reducing bone resorption.

      Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that has estrogen-like effects on bone, leading to decreased bone resorption and improved bone density.

      Romosozumab is a monoclonal antibody that inhibits the action of sclerostin, a regulatory factor in bone metabolism, ultimately leading to increased bone formation.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 34 - A 32-year-old cyclist has fallen off his bicycle and landed on an outstretched...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old cyclist has fallen off his bicycle and landed on an outstretched arm. He complains of pain and swelling in his left shoulder. Upon examination, the shoulder is tender and swollen to the touch. The patient experiences pain when attempting active and passive movement of the shoulder joint. A radiograph is ordered, which reveals an undisplaced fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus. What muscle, in addition to the deltoid muscle, is supplied by the axillary nerve, which is commonly injured in cases of surgical neck humerus fractures? Choose from the following options: subscapularis, teres major, supraspinatus, teres minor, or infraspinatus.

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus

      Correct Answer: Teres minor

      Explanation:

      The teres minor is the correct answer, as it is a rotator cuff muscle. The supraspinatus and infraspinatus are also rotator cuff muscles that are innervated by the suprascapular nerve, while the subscapularis is innervated by the superior and inferior subscapular nerves. The teres major, however, is not a rotator cuff muscle and is innervated by the inferior subscapular nerve. Fractures of the surgical neck of the humerus can result in injury to the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex artery, making it important to test for axillary nerve function by checking sensation in the ‘regimental badge’ area of the arm and observing shoulder movements.

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles

      The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.

      The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.

      Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 35 - A 33-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of a red rash on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of a red rash on her hands. She first noticed the rash a few weeks ago after moving into her new apartment with her partner. However, in the past few days, the rash has become extremely itchy and is keeping her up at night. Despite using her regular moisturizer cream, the rash has not improved. Upon examination, the doctor observes a bilateral erythematous rash on both hands that extends into the interdigital spaces, with multiple excoriation marks. The rash is not present anywhere else, and there are no other significant findings.

      What is the likely diagnosis, and what is the underlying mechanism behind this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Antigen-antibody complexes depositing in the epidermis

      Correct Answer: Delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      The severe itching caused by scabies is a result of a delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and their eggs, which occurs around 30 days after infestation. This type of reaction involves T-cells and antigen-presenting cells, leading to an inflammatory response. Scabies is typically spread through close skin-to-skin contact with an infected person. An allergic reaction to the patient’s regular moisturizer would be a type I hypersensitivity reaction, which causes acute itching. Antigen-antibody complex deposition in the epidermis would be a type III hypersensitivity reaction, while psoriasis is caused by hyperproliferation of epidermal keratinocytes and presents with red, scaly patches on extensor surfaces. Bacterial skin infections like cellulitis cause warm, swollen, and red skin with systemic symptoms like fever.

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 36 - Which one of the following structures does not pass anterior to the lateral...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures does not pass anterior to the lateral malleolus?

      Your Answer: Anterior tibial artery

      Correct Answer: Peroneus brevis

      Explanation:

      The lateral malleolus is located posterior to the path of the peroneus brevis.

      Anatomy of the Lateral Malleolus

      The lateral malleolus is a bony prominence on the outer side of the ankle joint. Posterior to the lateral malleolus and superficial to the superior peroneal retinaculum are the sural nerve and short saphenous vein. These structures are important for sensation and blood flow to the lower leg and foot.

      On the other hand, posterior to the lateral malleolus and deep to the superior peroneal retinaculum are the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis tendons. These tendons are responsible for ankle stability and movement.

      Additionally, the calcaneofibular ligament is attached at the lateral malleolus. This ligament is important for maintaining the stability of the ankle joint and preventing excessive lateral movement.

      Understanding the anatomy of the lateral malleolus is crucial for diagnosing and treating ankle injuries and conditions. Proper care and management of these structures can help prevent long-term complications and improve overall ankle function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 37 - A 32-year-old man is rushed to the operating room for aortic dissection. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is rushed to the operating room for aortic dissection. Upon observation, he displays tall stature, pectus excavatum, and arachnodactyly. Which protein defect is primarily responsible for his condition?

      Your Answer: Type I collagen

      Correct Answer: Fibrillin

      Explanation:

      The underlying cause of Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic mutation in the fibrillin-1 protein, which plays a crucial role as a substrate for elastin.

      Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.

      Individuals with Marfan’s syndrome often have a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05. They may also have a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, they may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm, which can lead to aortic dissection and aortic regurgitation. Other symptoms may include repeated pneumothoraces (collapsed lung), upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, myopia, and ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level.

      In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan’s syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and medication such as beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, the life expectancy has significantly improved. Despite this, cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 38 - A 14-year-old-girl is brought into the emergency department after she accidentally poured boiling...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old-girl is brought into the emergency department after she accidentally poured boiling water onto her hand. Upon examination, her hand appears to have turned white and she is not expressing any discomfort. What could be the reason for this?

      Your Answer: Superficial burns do not affect deeper layers of skin hence are not painful

      Correct Answer: A full thickness burn has gone through the dermis and damaged sensory neurons

      Explanation:

      Patients with third-degree burns do not experience pain because the damage is so severe that it affects the sensory nerves in the deeper layers of skin, which are responsible for transmitting pain signals. In contrast, superficial burns are painful because the sensory nerves in the epidermis are still intact and able to transmit pain signals. The absence of pain in third-degree burns is not due to an increased pain threshold, but rather the damage to the sensory nerves.

      First Aid and Management of Burns

      Burns can be caused by heat, electricity, or chemicals. Immediate first aid involves removing the person from the source of the burn and irrigating the affected area with cool water. The extent of the burn can be assessed using Wallace’s Rule of Nines or the Lund and Browder chart. The depth of the burn can be determined by its appearance, with full-thickness burns being the most severe. Referral to secondary care is necessary for deep dermal and full-thickness burns, as well as burns involving certain areas of the body or suspicion of non-accidental injury.

      Severe burns can lead to tissue loss, fluid loss, and a catabolic response. Intravenous fluids and analgesia are necessary for resuscitation and pain relief. Smoke inhalation can result in airway edema, and early intubation may be necessary. Circumferential burns may require escharotomy to relieve compartment syndrome and improve ventilation. Conservative management is appropriate for superficial burns, while more complex burns may require excision and skin grafting. There is no evidence to support the use of antimicrobial prophylaxis or topical antibiotics in burn patients.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 39 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of left knee pain and swelling. He has difficulty bearing weight on the left leg and reports no recent trauma, fevers, or chills. The patient has also been experiencing constipation, excessive urination, and fatigue for several months. He has a history of passing a kidney stone with hydration. He does not take prescription medications or use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.

      During examination, the patient's temperature is 37.2 ºC (98.9ºF) and blood pressure is 130/76 mmHg. The right knee is tender, erythematous, and swollen. Arthrocentesis reveals a white blood cell count of 30,000/mm3, with a predominance of neutrophils and numerous rhomboid-shaped crystals.

      What substance is most likely the composition of the crystals?

      Your Answer: Calcium hydroxyapatite

      Correct Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing acute inflammatory arthritis, which is likely caused by pseudogout. This condition occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovial fluid, and it is often associated with chronic hypercalcemia resulting from primary hyperparathyroidism. Pseudogout typically affects the knee joint, and the presence of rhomboid-shaped calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the synovial fluid is diagnostic. Calcium hydroxyapatite crystals are typically found in tendons, while calcium oxalate is the most common component of renal calculi. Xanthomas refer to the deposition of cholesterol and other lipids in soft tissues, while gout is characterized by the deposition of monosodium urate in joints and soft tissues.

      Understanding Pseudogout

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is commonly associated with increasing age, but younger patients who develop pseudogout usually have an underlying risk factor such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease.

      The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints in pseudogout. Diagnosis is made through joint aspiration, which reveals weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals, and x-rays, which show chondrocalcinosis. In the knee, linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage can be seen.

      Management of pseudogout involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, followed by treatment with NSAIDs or intra-articular, intra-muscular, or oral steroids, similar to the treatment for gout. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of pseudogout can help with early diagnosis and effective management of this condition.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 40 - A 29-year-old male attends a dermatology clinic after being referred by his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male attends a dermatology clinic after being referred by his GP for severe eczema. Despite treatment with both emollients and topical corticosteroids, the patient's eczema remains very severe and is causing him much psychological distress. As a result, the doctor decides to prescribe azathioprine.

      What are the necessary checks that must be done before starting the treatment?

      Your Answer: Urea and electrolytes

      Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase activity

      Explanation:

      Before starting treatment with azathioprine, it is important to check for thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency (TPMT) to avoid the risk of myelosuppression in patients with reduced enzyme activity. Azathioprine is commonly used as an immunosuppressant for conditions like IBD and severe refractory eczema. However, an ECG and lipid profile are not necessary before starting treatment with azathioprine. On the other hand, thyroid function tests are required before initiating treatment with amiodarone, while renal function and electrolytes should be checked before starting treatment with drugs like ACE inhibitors.

      Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 41 - A 75-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and atrial...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and atrial fibrillation visits her GP complaining of a rash on her arm. The rash has been present for two days and she has been feeling generally unwell with a mild fever. Upon examination, the GP observes a well-defined, raised, reddish patch on her left forearm that is most red at the border. Additionally, there is associated axillary lymphadenopathy. The GP orders a full blood count, CRP, and a swab of the lesion. What is the most likely pathogen responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      Erysipelas is a skin infection that is localized and caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. It is often seen in elderly patients with weakened immune systems, such as those with diabetes mellitus. Symptoms include a raised, painful rash with clear boundaries.

      Ringworm is commonly caused by Trichophyton rubrum. This results in a circular, scaly, and itchy rash that is red in color.

      While Staphylococcus epidermidis is a normal part of the skin’s flora, it is more commonly associated with infections of foreign devices and endocarditis rather than skin infections.

      Understanding Erysipelas: A Superficial Skin Infection

      Erysipelas is a skin infection that is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. It is a less severe form of cellulitis, which is a more widespread skin infection. Erysipelas is a localized infection that affects the skin’s upper layers, causing redness, swelling, and warmth. The infection can occur anywhere on the body, but it is most commonly found on the face, arms, and legs.

      The treatment of choice for erysipelas is flucloxacillin, an antibiotic that is effective against Streptococcus pyogenes. Other antibiotics may also be used, depending on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 42 - A 55 years old female patient presented with complaints of morning hand stiffness...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 years old female patient presented with complaints of morning hand stiffness that improves with use throughout the day. During a physical examination, nonmobile, nodular growths were found over the extensor surfaces of both elbows. Initial laboratory tests showed negative results for rheumatoid factor and Antinuclear antibody screen. To eliminate the possibility of other skin conditions, a biopsy of the nodules was conducted, which revealed cholesterol deposits.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that typically causes symmetric arthritis in multiple joints, with the distal interphalangeal joints being spared. Diagnosis is usually based on clinical features, supported by serological testing that shows positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide or rheumatoid factor. X-rays may reveal periarticular osteopenia, marginal bony erosions, and joint space narrowing. A biopsy of rheumatoid nodules that shows cholesterol deposits is considered pathognomonic for RA.

      Reactive arthritis is characterized by a combination of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis, often accompanied by diarrhea. Patients may also develop keratoderma blennorhagicum, which is characterized by hyperkeratotic vesicles on the palms and soles.

      Septic arthritis typically affects a single joint, causing redness, swelling, and pain. It occurs when the synovial membrane is invaded, resulting in yellow, turbid synovial fluid with high neutrophil levels. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of septic arthritis.

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a condition that causes shorter duration of morning stiffness, with symptoms worsening throughout the day with weight-bearing. X-rays may show loss of joint space, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts.

      Rheumatoid arthritis can be diagnosed clinically, which is considered more important than using specific criteria. However, the American College of Rheumatology has established classification criteria for rheumatoid arthritis. These criteria require the presence of at least one joint with definite clinical synovitis that cannot be explained by another disease. A score of 6 out of 10 is needed for a definite diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The score is based on factors such as the number and type of joints involved, serology (presence of rheumatoid factor or anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody), acute-phase reactants (such as CRP and ESR), and duration of symptoms. These criteria are used to classify patients with rheumatoid arthritis for research and clinical purposes.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 43 - Which one of the following muscles does not attach to the radius? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following muscles does not attach to the radius?

      Your Answer: Biceps

      Correct Answer: Brachialis

      Explanation:

      The ulna serves as the insertion point for the brachialis muscle, while the remaining muscles are inserted onto the radius.

      Anatomy of the Radius Bone

      The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.

      The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.

      The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 44 - What is a true statement about slipped capital femoral epiphysis? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

      Your Answer: A chronic slip, with symptoms over weeks to months is the most common presentation

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hip Problems in Children

      Hip problems in children can be caused by various conditions. Development dysplasia of the hip is often detected during newborn examination and can be identified through positive Barlow and Ortolani tests, as well as unequal skin folds or leg length. Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is the most common cause of hip pain in children aged 2-10 years and is associated with acute hip pain following a viral infection.

      Perthes disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children between the ages of 4-8 years. It is more common in boys and can be identified through symptoms such as hip pain, limp, stiffness, and reduced range of hip movement. X-rays may show early changes such as widening of joint space, followed by decreased femoral head size or flattening.

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is more common in obese children and boys aged 10-15 years. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms such as knee or distal thigh pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion.

      Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is a type of arthritis that occurs in children under 16 years old and lasts for more than three months. Pauciarticular JIA, which accounts for around 60% of JIA cases, affects four or fewer joints and is characterized by joint pain and swelling, usually in medium-sized joints such as knees, ankles, and elbows. ANA may be positive in JIA and is associated with anterior uveitis.

      The image gallery shows examples of Perthes disease and slipped upper femoral epiphysis. It is important to identify and treat hip problems in children early to prevent long-term complications.

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  • Question 45 - A 21-year-old patient visits the clinic after injuring their knee during a soccer...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old patient visits the clinic after injuring their knee during a soccer game. During the examination, the physician flexes the knee to a 90-degree angle with the foot resting on the exam table. Using both hands to grasp the proximal tibia, the doctor applies an anterior force followed by a posterior force. The physician detects laxity during the anterior movement, indicating possible damage to the anterior cruciate ligament. What is the test called?

      Your Answer: Drawer test

      Explanation:

      The drawer test is used to check for cruciate ligament rupture in the knee. The examiner flexes the hip and knee, holds the tibia, and attempts to pull it forward or backward. Excessive displacement indicates a rupture of the anterior or posterior cruciate ligament.

      Knee Injuries and Common Causes

      Knee injuries can be caused by a variety of factors, including twisting injuries, dashboard injuries, skiing accidents, and lateral blows to the knee. One common knee injury is the unhappy triad, which involves damage to the anterior cruciate ligament, medial collateral ligament, and meniscus. While the medial meniscus is classically associated with this injury, recent evidence suggests that the lateral meniscus is actually more commonly affected.

      When the anterior cruciate ligament is damaged, it may be the result of twisting injuries. Tests such as the anterior drawer test and Lachman test may be positive if this ligament is damaged. On the other hand, dashboard injuries may cause damage to the posterior cruciate ligament. Damage to the medial collateral ligament is often caused by skiing accidents or valgus stress, and can result in abnormal passive abduction of the knee. Isolated injury to the lateral collateral ligament is uncommon.

      Finally, damage to the menisci can also occur from twisting injuries. Common symptoms of meniscus damage include locking and giving way. Overall, understanding the common causes and symptoms of knee injuries can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and prevent further damage.

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  • Question 46 - A 67-year-old female presents to her primary healthcare provider with painful blisters on...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old female presents to her primary healthcare provider with painful blisters on her gingival and buccal mucosa and skin that easily rupture and cause ulcers. The oral blisters began three months ago and the cutaneous lesions just a week ago. She has a medical history of hypertension, vitiligo, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Upon examination of the oral cavity and skin, scattered shallow ulcerations ranging from 8 mm to 1 cm in diameter were observed. A biopsy of the lesions revealed acantholysis. The patient has been prescribed corticosteroids.

      What is the most likely cause of this condition in the patient?

      Your Answer: Antibodies against desmoglein 3

      Explanation:

      Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.

      The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 47 - Which nerve provides innervation to the interossei of the fifth finger? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve provides innervation to the interossei of the fifth finger?

      Your Answer: Median

      Correct Answer: Deep ulnar

      Explanation:

      PAD and DAB can be remembered as a mnemonic for the actions of the palmar and dorsal interossei muscles. The palmar interossei muscles ADduct the fingers towards the midline of the hand, while the dorsal interossei muscles ABduct the fingers away from the midline.

      Interossei: Muscles of the Hand

      Interossei are a group of muscles located in the hand that occupy the spaces between the metacarpal bones. There are three palmar and four dorsal interossei, each with a specific origin and insertion point. Palmar interossei originate from the metacarpal of the digit on which it acts, while dorsal interossei come from the surface of the adjacent metacarpal on which it acts. The interosseous tendons, except the first palmar, pass to one or other side of the metacarpophalangeal joint posterior to the deep transverse metacarpal ligament. They become inserted into the base of the proximal phalanx and partly into the extensor hood.

      All interossei are innervated by the ulnar nerve and have specific actions. Dorsal interossei abduct the fingers, while palmar interossei adduct the fingers. Along with the lumbricals, the interossei flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints. They are responsible for fine-tuning these movements.

      In cases where the interossei and lumbricals are paralyzed, the digits are pulled into hyperextension by extensor digitorum, resulting in a claw hand. Understanding the function and innervation of the interossei is important in diagnosing and treating hand injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 48 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother who is worried about her daughter's hearing loss. The girl has a history of frequent bone fractures. During the examination, the doctor observes that the external ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal and there is no discharge or swelling. However, the girl's sclera has a bluish tint. What type of collagen is most likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Type 3

      Correct Answer: Type 1

      Explanation:

      Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by a defect in type 1 collagen, which is found in the skin, tendons, vasculature, and bones. This abnormality results in fragile bones, leading to multiple fractures, as seen in a child with deafness, blue sclera, and fractures. Type 2 collagen is present in cartilage and is not typically affected in osteogenesis imperfecta. Type 3 collagen is the primary component of reticular fibers, which are also not typically affected in this condition. Type 4 collagen makes up basement membranes, which are also not typically affected in osteogenesis imperfecta.

      Understanding Osteogenesis Imperfecta

      Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by decreased synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides.

      This condition typically presents in childhood, with individuals experiencing fractures following minor trauma. Other common features include blue sclera, deafness secondary to otosclerosis, and dental imperfections. Despite these symptoms, adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal in individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and underlying causes of osteogenesis imperfecta is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      1.6
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  • Question 49 - During a soccer match, a young player is tackled and suffers a twisting...

    Correct

    • During a soccer match, a young player is tackled and suffers a twisting injury to their knee. They are diagnosed with a soft tissue knee injury. What is the name of the structure that originates from the medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle and inserts onto the anterior intercondylar area of the tibial plateau?

      Your Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      To recall the attachments of the ACL, one can imagine placing their hand in their pocket and moving from the superolateral to inferomedial direction. Conversely, for the PCL, the movement would be from inferolateral to superomedial.

      The ACL originates from the medial surface of the lateral condyle, while the PCL originates from the lateral surface of the medial condyle.

      Located in the medial compartment of the knee, beneath the medial condyle of the femur, is the medial meniscus.

      The knee joint is the largest and most complex synovial joint in the body, consisting of two condylar joints between the femur and tibia and a sellar joint between the patella and femur. The degree of congruence between the tibiofemoral articular surfaces is improved by the presence of the menisci, which compensate for the incongruence of the femoral and tibial condyles. The knee joint is divided into two compartments: the tibiofemoral and patellofemoral compartments. The fibrous capsule of the knee joint is a composite structure with contributions from adjacent tendons, and it contains several bursae and ligaments that provide stability to the joint. The knee joint is supplied by the femoral, tibial, and common peroneal divisions of the sciatic nerve and by a branch from the obturator nerve, while its blood supply comes from the genicular branches of the femoral artery, popliteal, and anterior tibial arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 50 - A 59-year-old man presents to the hospital with haemoptysis and cough. In the...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the hospital with haemoptysis and cough. In the past two weeks, he has also had three episodes of epistaxis. The systemic review reveals that he has had a headache for more than three months that originates from his forehead and worsens on bending forwards. His urine has also been dark for the past one month.

      Physical examination shows a purpuric rash on both legs. His laboratory test results are:

      Hb 97 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 250 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 8.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Urea 35 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 430 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      There is evidence of proteinuria and red cell casts on urinalysis. Chest X-ray demonstrates multiple lesions in both lungs. A lung biopsy is taken which on histopathology shows granulomas surrounded by histiocytes. Immunofluorescence reveals heavy granular staining in the cytoplasm suggestive of an autoantibody.

      Which target is this antibody most likely to react with?

      Your Answer: Myeloperoxidase (MPO)

      Correct Answer: Serine proteinase 3 (PR3)

      Explanation:

      ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Types, Symptoms, and Management

      ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA). These include granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome), and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with symptoms such as renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, vasculitic rash, and ear, nose, and throat symptoms.

      To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis for haematuria and proteinuria, blood tests for renal impairment, full blood count, CRP, and ANCA testing. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with cANCA being associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis and pANCA being associated with eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis and other conditions.

      Once suspected, ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams to allow an exact diagnosis to be made. The mainstay of management is immunosuppressive therapy. Kidney or lung biopsies may be taken to aid the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      3.7
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