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  • Question 1 - A 30 year old male has a painless and transilluminant swelling at the...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old male has a painless and transilluminant swelling at the upper pole of his left testi. There is a negative cough test. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spermatocoele

      Explanation:

      Spermatocele, also known as a spermatic cyst is a cystic mass usually occurring at the upper pole of the testis. Differential diagnosis included hydrocele as both are cystic, painless and transilluminant. Ultrasound is a useful modality. If symptomatic or large, surgical excision can be done.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma do NOT include: ...

    Correct

    • Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma do NOT include:

      Your Answer: Heptitis E

      Explanation:

      Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma include hepatitis B and C, aflatoxin, anabolic steroids, alcohol cirrhosis and primary liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Lack of findings in the bladder but presence of atypical epithelial cells in...

    Correct

    • Lack of findings in the bladder but presence of atypical epithelial cells in urinalysis is most often associated with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma of renal pelvis

      Explanation:

      The presence of atypical cells in urinalysis without findings in the bladder suggests a lesion located higher up, most probably in ureters or renal pelvis. Transitional cell cancer of the renal pelvis is a disease in which malignant cells form in the renal pelvis and is characterised by the presence of abnormal cells in urine cytology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old woman complains of back pain, muscle spasms, weakness, and a burning...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman complains of back pain, muscle spasms, weakness, and a burning sensation that radiates from her left hip to her toes. What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herniated nucleus pulposus

      Explanation:

      A herniated disk will produce sensory disturbances, causing pain that radiates along the course of the sciatic nerve which is typically burning or stabbing, with or without back pain. The herniation is usually caused by age-related degeneration although trauma, injuries, or straining may also trigger it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 62 year old woman who has undergone a right hip hemiarthroplasty for...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old woman who has undergone a right hip hemiarthroplasty for a fractured femoral neck, is found to have low serum sodium of 124mmol/L a few days postoperatively. Which of the following is the least likely cause of her deranged labs?

      Your Answer: Vomiting

      Explanation:

      Vomiting usually results in hypokalaemia, and hyponatremia would least likely occur as a result of it. Hyponatremia is a common postoperative finding among patients and hence serum sodium must be carefully monitored. Addison disease, SIADH, diuretic therapy can all cause hyponatremia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 2-day old baby develops dyspnoea. A chest x-ray is performed and shows...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day old baby develops dyspnoea. A chest x-ray is performed and shows a radio-opaque shadow with an air-fluid level in the chest. It is located immediately anterior to the 6th hemivertebra. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hiatus hernia

      Correct Answer: Bronchogenic cyst

      Explanation:

      Bronchogenic cysts, although relatively rare, represent the most common cystic lesion of the mediastinum.
      Bronchogenic cysts are the result of anomalous development of the ventral foregut; they are usually single but may be multiple and can be filled with fluid or mucus. They have been found all along the tracheoesophageal course, in perihilar or intraparenchymal sites, with a predilection for the area around the carina. Those in the mediastinum frequently attach to but do not communicate with the tracheobronchial tree. Bronchogenic cysts have also been described in more remote locations, including the interatrial septum, neck, abdomen, and retroperitoneal space.
      With the advent of improved antenatal diagnosis, many infants are identified before the development of symptoms:
      Chest pain and dysphagia are the most common symptoms in adults with bronchogenic cysts.
      Recurrent infections may be the clinical presentation in some children
      In infants, symptoms are most often produced as a result of airway or oesophageal compression.

      Oesophageal duplication cysts are rare inherited lesions usually diagnosed in early childhood. Most of them are found in the mediastinum and manifest themselves as separate masses along or in continuity with the native oesophagus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - When does the heart rate decrease? ...

    Incorrect

    • When does the heart rate decrease?

      Your Answer: After a meal

      Correct Answer: Pressure on the eyeball

      Explanation:

      Various vagotonic manoeuvres (e.g. Valsalva manoeuvre, carotid sinus massage, pressure on eyeballs, ice-water facial immersion, swallowing of ice-cold water) result in increased parasympathetic tone through the vagus nerve which results in a decrease in heart rate. These manoeuvres may be clinically useful in terminating supraventricular arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 34-year-old male is admitted electively for a right inguinal hernia repair under...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old male is admitted electively for a right inguinal hernia repair under local anaesthesia. He is otherwise asymptomatic and well. However, his family history shows that his grandfather died from a pulmonary embolism.What should be the most appropriate form of thromboprophylaxis in this patient?

      Your Answer: No prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      Repair of an inguinal hernia under local anaesthesia has a short operative time, and patients are usually ambulant immediately after. Furthermore, the family history of this patient is unlikely to be significant and therefore, he is at a very low risk of developing a pulmonary embolism (PE).

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) may develop insidiously in many surgical patients. If left untreated, it may progress to PE. The following surgical patients are at increased risk of developing DVT:

      1. Surgery greater than 90 minutes at any site or greater than 60 minutes if the procedure involves lower limbs or pelvis
      2. Acute admissions with inflammatory process involving the abdominal cavity
      3. Expected significant reduction in mobility
      4. Age over 60 years
      5. Known malignancy
      6. Thrombophilia
      7. Previous thrombosis
      8. BMI >30 kg/m2
      9. Taking hormone replacement therapy or contraceptive pills
      10. Varicose veins with phlebitis

      Thromboprophylaxis can be mechanical or therapeutic. The former includes:
      1. Early ambulation after surgery: cheap and effective
      2. Compression stockings (contraindicated in peripheral arterial disease)
      3. Intermittent pneumatic compression devices
      4. Foot impulse devices

      Therapeutic agents for thromboprophylaxis are:
      1. Low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)
      2. Unfractionated heparin
      3. Dabigatran

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which statement is correct regarding coagulation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct regarding coagulation?

      Your Answer: Vitamin K is an essential co-factor for hepatic synthesis of factor VIII

      Correct Answer: Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin

      Explanation:

      Coagulation of blood is a complex process and an important part of haemostasis. There are two main pathways related to coagulation: the contact activation pathway/intrinsic pathway and tissue factor/extrinsic pathway. The extrinsic pathway is activated by external trauma that causes blood to escape from the vascular system. This pathway is quicker than the intrinsic pathway and involves factor VII. The intrinsic pathway is activated by trauma inside the vascular system, and initiated by platelets, exposed endothelium, chemicals, or collagen. This pathway is slower than the extrinsic pathway, but more important. It involves factors XII, XI, IX, VIII. Both pathways meet to finish the formation of a clot in what is known as the common pathway. The common pathway involves factors I, II, V, and X. They converge on the common pathway in which activation of prothrombin to thrombin leads to conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and clot formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year old man, known with Type 2 diabetes and chronic renal failure,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old man, known with Type 2 diabetes and chronic renal failure, is likely to eventually present with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Cushing syndrome

      Correct Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      When the parathyroid glands secrete excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to hypocalcaemia, it is known as Secondary hyperparathyroidism and is often seen in patients with renal failure. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys fail to excrete adequate phosphorus and also fail to convert enough vitamin D to its active form. This leads to formation of insoluble calcium phosphate in the body which ultimately causes hypocalcaemia. The glands then undergo hyperplasia and hypertrophy leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism. Symptoms include bone and joint pains, along with limb deformities. The raised PTH also results in pleiotropic effects on blood, the immune system and nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - During clinic, a medical student conducts a physical examination on a teenage boy...

    Correct

    • During clinic, a medical student conducts a physical examination on a teenage boy with a lump in the inguinal region. The lump is protruding from the superficial inguinal ring. The student correctly concluded that it was:

      Your Answer: Either a direct or an indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      It is not possible to tell if an inguinal hernia is direct or indirect just by palpating it. Despite the fact that indirect inguinal hernias commonly come out of the superficial inguinal ring to enter the scrotum, direct inguinal hernia might still do this.
      Femoral hernia goes through the femoral ring into the femoral canal (has nothing to do with the superficial inguinal ring).
      Superficial inguinal lymph nodes lie in the superficial fascia parallel to the inguinal ligament; it would therefore feel more superficial and would not be mistaken for a hernia protruding through the inguinal ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old female is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of metastatic breast cancer....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of metastatic breast cancer. You are called because it has become apparent that her doxorubicin infusion has extravasated. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Stop the infusion and apply a cold compress to the site

      Explanation:

      Extravasation is the process by which any liquid (fluid or drug) accidentally leaks into the surrounding tissue. In terms of cancer therapy, extravasation refers to the inadvertent infiltration of chemotherapy into the subcutaneous or subdermal tissues surrounding the intravenous or intra-arterial administration site.
      Extravasated drugs are classified according to their potential for causing damage as ‘vesicant’, ‘irritant’ and ‘non-vesicant’.
      Doxorubicin is one of the vesicant drugs.
      Regardless of the chemotherapy drug, early initiation of treatment is considered mandatory. In this context, patient education is crucial for prompt identification of the extravasation.
      Step 1: Stop the infusion and leave the needle in place
      Step 2: Identify the extravasated agent
      Step 3: Leave the cannula in place, gently aspirate the agent and avoid manual compression, then remove the cannula
      Step 4: Use a pen to outline the extravasated area
      Step 5: Start Specific measures
      Step 5A: For Anthracyclines (Doxorubicin), Apply cold compressions for 20 minutes, 4 times daily for 1-2 days.
      Step 5B: Using Specific Antidotes as Topical Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) or Dexrazoxane

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A patient sustained an injury to the facial nerve after it emerges from...

    Correct

    • A patient sustained an injury to the facial nerve after it emerges from the stylomastoid foramen. What is the clinical impact of this injury?

      Your Answer: Facial expression

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve is the seventh of the twelve paired cranial nerves. It emerges from the brainstem between the pons and the medulla. It controls the muscles of facial expression and supplies taste fibres to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. It also supplies preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to several head and neck ganglia. Its branches and distribution are as follows:
      Inside the facial canal (proximal to the stylomastoid foramen):
      – Greater petrosal nerve – provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland, as well as special taste sensory fibres to the palate via the nerve of pterygoid canal
      – Nerve to stapedius – provides motor innervation for the stapedius muscle in the middle ear
      – Chord tympani – provides parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular and sublingual glands and special sensory taste fibres for the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
      Outside the skull (distal to the stylomastoid foramen):
      – Posterior auricular nerve – controls the movements of some of the scalp muscles around the ear
      – Five major facial branches (in the parotid gland), from top to bottom: temporal branch, zygomatic branch, buccal branch, marginal mandibular branch and cervical branch. From the description given above it is obvious that injury to the facial nerve distal to the stylomastoid foramen will affect facial expression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for 6 months. Her physical examination revealed no abnormality. A CT scan of the head revealed a suprasellar mass with calcifications, eroding the surrounding sella turcica. The lesion is likely to represent:

      Your Answer: Astrocytoma

      Correct Answer: Craniopharyngioma

      Explanation:

      Craniopharyngiomas (also known as Rathke pouch tumours, adamantinomas or hypophyseal duct tumours) affect children mainly between the age of 5 and 10 years. It constitutes 9% of brain tumours affecting the paediatric population. These are slow-growing tumours which can also be cystic, and arise from the pituitary stalk, specifically the nests of epithelium derived from Rathke’s pouch. Histologically, this tumour shows nests of squamous epithelium which is lined on the outside by radially arranged cells. Calcium deposition is often seen with a papillary type of architecture.
      ACTH-secreting pituitary adenomas are rare and mostly microadenomas. Paediatric astrocytoma’s usually occur in the posterior fossa. Although null cell adenomas can cause mass effect and give rise to the described symptoms, they are not suprasellar. Prolactinomas can also show symptoms of headache and disturbances in the visual field, however they are known to be small and slow-growing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman is vomiting persistently following a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is vomiting persistently following a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated gangrenous appendicitis. Imaging shows some dilated small bowel loops. What should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Insertion of wide bore nasogastric tube

      Explanation:

      This patient is likely to have paralytic ileus and the administration of antiemetic drugs, in this situation, will have no effect. It is, therefore, important to decompress the stomach with a wide bore nasogastric tube.

      Paralytic ileus is the obstruction of the intestine due to paralysis of the intestinal muscles. It commonly occurs after an abdominal surgery. Irrespective of the cause, paralytic ileus causes constipation, abdominal distention, nausea, and vomiting. It is a severe condition because if left untreated, an ileus can cut off blood supply to the intestines and cause tissue death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid: ...

    Correct

    • Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid:

      Your Answer: Is relatively rich in glucose

      Explanation:

      The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. Ensuring the right amount of body water is part of fluid balance, an aspect of homeostasis. The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all fluids outside the cells. This fluid can be divided into three fluid departments: interstitial (in the tissue spaces) fluid, blood plasma and lymph, and specialised compartments called transcellular fluid. The extracellular fluid surrounds all the cells in the body and is in equilibrium with the intracellular fluid. So, its composition must remain fairly constant even though substances are passing into and out of the cells. The interstitial fluid, though called a fluid, is in a reality a gel-like composition made up of: water, proteoglycan molecules and collagen. The extracellular fluid constitutes 40% of total body water, with intracellular fluid making up the remaining 60%. It is relatively rich in glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A patient with Paget's disease of the bone is predisposed to developing which...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with Paget's disease of the bone is predisposed to developing which type of cancer?

      Your Answer: Giant-cell tumour

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of bone (PDB) is a focal disorder of bone. It is presumed benign in nature and mediated by abnormal osteoclast function. However osteosarcomas may occur in <1% of patients with Paget's disease of the bone. Osteosarcomas are osteogenic in origin, and consistently arise in sites of pagetic bone. This is not to be confused with Paget's disease of the breast.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A surgeon trainee is assisting in an operation to ligate the ductus arteriosus....

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon trainee is assisting in an operation to ligate the ductus arteriosus. The consultant supervising explains that caution is required when placing a clamp on the ductus to avoid injury to an important structure immediately dorsal to it. To which structure is the consultant referring?

      Your Answer: Right Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The left recurrent laryngeal nerve branches off the vagus and wraps around the aorta, posterior to the ductus arteriosus/ligamentum arteriosum from whence it courses superiorly to innervate the laryngeal muscles.
      Accessory Hemiazygous vein is on the left side of the body draining the posterolateral chest wall and emptying blood into the azygos vein.
      The left internal thoracic artery is branch of the left subclavian artery supplying blood to the anterior wall of the thorax.
      Left phrenic nerve is lateral to the vagus nerve.
      Thoracic duct: is behind the oesophagus, coursing between the aorta and the azygos vein in the posterior chest.
      Right recurrent laryngeal nerve: loops around the right subclavian artery and is not in danger in this procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 29-year-old man with gunshot to the abdomen is transferred to the operating...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man with gunshot to the abdomen is transferred to the operating theatre, following his arrival in the A&E department. He is unstable and his FAST scan is positive. During the operation, extensive laceration to the right lobe of the liver and involvement of the IVC are found, along with massive haemorrhage. What should be the most appropriate approach to blood component therapy?

      Your Answer: Transfuse packed cells, FFP, and platelets in fixed ratio of 1:1:1

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      There is strong evidence to support haemostatic resuscitation in the setting of massive haemorrhage due to trauma. This advocates the use of 1:1:1 ratio.

      Uncontrolled haemorrhage accounts for up to 39% of all trauma-related deaths. In the UK, approximately 2% of all trauma patients need massive transfusion. Massive transfusion is defined as the replacement of a patient’s total blood volume in less than 24 hours or the acute administration of more than half the patient’s estimated blood volume per hour. During acute bleeding, the practice of haemostatic resuscitation has been shown to reduce mortality rates. It is based on the principle of transfusion of blood components in fixed ratios. For example, packed red cells, FFP, and platelets are administered in a ratio of 1:1:1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an irregular pulse and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an irregular pulse and shortness of breath. Electrocardiography findings show no P waves, normal QRS complexes and an irregularly irregular rhythm. The patient most probably has:

      Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation is one of the most common arrhythmias, characterised by an irregular and rapid heart rate. Due to the decreased cardiac output, atrial fibrillation increases the risk of heart failure. It can also lead to thrombus formation which may lead to thromboembolic events. Clinical findings include palpitations, shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain and confusion. The diagnosis is made by electrocardiographic findings which include absent P wave, fibrillatory (f) waves between QRS complexes and irregularly irregular R-R intervals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 34-year-old man with poorly controlled Crohn's disease is nutritionally compromised. A decision...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old man with poorly controlled Crohn's disease is nutritionally compromised. A decision is made to start TPN.Which of the following routes should be the most appropriate for its administration?

      Your Answer: Internal jugular vein via a central venous catheter

      Explanation:

      Since TPN solutions irritate the veins, they are best administered via a central line. The femoral route has a higher incidence of line-associated sepsis and is, thus, best avoided in this setting.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has laid down guidelines for identifying patients as malnourished or at risk of malnourishment, in order to start oral, enteral, or parenteral nutrition support, alone or in combination.

      Following patients are identified as malnourished:
      1. BMI <18.5 kg/m2
      2. Unintentional weight loss of >10% within the last 3–6 months
      3. BMI <20 kg/m2 and unintentional weight loss of >5% within the last 3–6 months

      Following patients are at risk of malnutrition:
      1. Eaten nothing or little for >5 days and/or likely to eat little or nothing for the next 5 days or longer
      2. Poor absorptive capacity and/or
      3. High nutrient loss and/or
      4. High metabolic rate

      Considering the method of parenteral nutrition:
      1. For feeding <14 days, consider feeding via a peripheral venous catheter
      2. For feeding >30 days, use a tunnelled subclavian line,
      continuous administration in severely unwell patients
      3. If feed needed for >2 weeks, consider changing from continuous to cyclical feeding
      4. Do not give >50% of daily regime to unwell patients in the first 24–48 hours
      5. In surgical patients, if malnourished with unsafe swallow or a non-functional GI tract or perforation, consider perioperative parenteral feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A chest x ray is ordered for a 39 year old man who...

    Correct

    • A chest x ray is ordered for a 39 year old man who presents with a history of a cough and weight loss for over a month. It shows a rounded opacity in the pleural cavity near the cardiac notch. The opacity is most likely to be in the:

      Your Answer: Costomediastinal recess

      Explanation:

      The costomediastinal recess is the point where the costal pleura becomes the mediastinal pleura, located right next to the cardiac notch.
      The cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib to the root of the lung.
      Hilum: located on the medial surface of the lung where neurovascular structures enter and leave the lung.
      Pulmonary ligament: pleural fold found below the root of the lung, is a point of continuity between the visceral and mediastinal pleura.
      Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural cavity.
      Superior mediastinum: part of the mediastinum that contains the great vessels leaving and entering the heart.
      The cardiac notch is in the inferior mediastinum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - During a case presentation, a 26 year old is said to have fractured...

    Incorrect

    • During a case presentation, a 26 year old is said to have fractured his pelvis and shattered his coccyx following a motorbike accident. It is mentioned that he is likely to have lacerated his middle sacral artery from this kind of injury. Where does the middle sacral artery branch from?

      Your Answer: External iliac artery

      Correct Answer: Abdominal aorta

      Explanation:

      The middle sacral artery arises from behind the aorta a little above the point of its bifurcation to descend down in front of L4,5, the sacrum and coccyx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 33-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic accident. He complains of lower abdominal pain. On examination, a fracture of the pelvis along with distended, tender bladder is observed. What should be the best step of management for distended bladder?

      Your Answer: Suprapubic catheter

      Explanation:

      This patient has possible urethral injury based on the history. Urethral catheterisation is contraindicated in this situation.

      Up to 10% of male pelvic fractures are associated with urethral or bladder injuries. Urethral injury occurs mainly in males. It has two types.

      1.Bulbar rupture:
      a. most common
      b. mostly associated with straddle-type injury, e.g. from bicycles
      c. presentation with a triad of urinary retention, perineal haematoma, and blood at the meatus

      2. Membranous rupture:
      a. can be extra- or intraperitoneal
      b. occurs commonly due to pelvic fracture
      c. symptomology may include penile or perineal oedema/haematoma
      d. prostate displaced upwards (high-riding prostate)

      Ascending urethrogram is carried out in patients of suspected urethral injury. Suprapubic catheter is surgically placed and is indicated in:
      1. External genitalia injuries (i.e. the penis and the scrotum)
      2. Injury to the urethra caused by penetration, blunt trauma, continence- or sexual pleasure–enhancing devices, and mutilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 47-year-old male develops acute respiratory distress syndrome during an attack of severe...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old male develops acute respiratory distress syndrome during an attack of severe acute pancreatitis. Which of the following is not a feature of adult respiratory distress syndrome?

      Your Answer: A Swann Ganz Catheter would typically have a reading in excess of 18mmHg.

      Explanation:

      Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is an inflammatory process in the lungs that induces non-hydrostatic protein-rich pulmonary oedema. The immediate consequences are profound hypoxemia, decreased lung compliance, and increased intrapulmonary shunt and dead space. The clinicopathological aspects include severe inflammatory injury to the alveolar-capillary barrier, surfactant depletion, and loss of aerated lung tissue.

      The most recent definition of ARDS, the Berlin definition, was proposed by a working group under the aegis of the European Society of Intensive Care Medicine. It defines ARDS by the presence within 7 days of a known clinical insult or new or worsening respiratory symptoms of a combination of acute hypoxemia (PaO2/FiO2 ≤ 300 mmHg), in a ventilated patient with a positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of at least 5 cmH2O, and bilateral opacities not fully explained by heart failure or volume overload i.e. the heart pressure is norma. The Berlin definition uses the PaO2/FiO2 ratio to distinguish mild ARDS (200 < PaO2/FiO2 ≤ 300 mmHg), moderate ARDS (100 < PaO2/FiO2 ≤ 200 mmHg), and severe ARDS (PaO2/FiO2 ≤ 100 mmHg).
      Most cases of ARDS in adults are associated with pulmonary sepsis (46 percent) or nonpulmonary sepsis (33 percent). Risk factors include those causing direct lung injury (e.g., pneumonia, inhalation injury, pulmonary contusion) and those causing indirect lung injury (e.g., nonpulmonary sepsis, burns, transfusion-related acute lung injury)

      Most patients with ARDS need sedation, intubation, and ventilation while the underlying injury is treated. Any ventilator mode may be used, according to the Surviving Sepsis Clinical Practice Guideline and the National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute’s ARDS Network (ARDSNet). Respiratory rate, expiratory time, positive end-expiratory pressure, and FiO2 are set following ARDSNet protocols. Settings are adjusted to maintain an oxygen saturation of 88 to 95 percent and a plateau pressure of 30 cm H2O or less to avoid barotrauma. Clinical practice guidelines recommend maintaining an arterial pH of 7.30 to 7.45, although patients in some research trials have tolerated permissive hypercapnia and a pH as low as 7.15

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following arteries, that runs on the superior aspect of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following arteries, that runs on the superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, forms the lower boundary of the epiploic foramen (also known as the foramen of Winslow)?

      Your Answer: Left gastric

      Correct Answer: Hepatic

      Explanation:

      The epiploic foramen is an important anatomical opening that allows for the communication between the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. Its boundaries are formed; superiorly by the caudate lobe of the liver, anteriorly by the hepatoduodenal ligament (containing the components of the portal triad), inferiorly by the first part of the duodenum and posteriorly by the peritoneum covering the inferior vena cava. The superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, which forms the inferior boundary of the foramen of Winslow, forms the course of the hepatic artery before it ascends to the porta hepatis where it divides into its right and left branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A child defecates a few minutes after being fed by the mother. This...

    Correct

    • A child defecates a few minutes after being fed by the mother. This is most likely due to:

      Your Answer: Gastrocolic reflex

      Explanation:

      The gastrocolic reflex is a physiological reflex that involves increase in colonic motility in response to stretch in the stomach and by-products of digestion in the small intestine. It is shown to be uneven in its distribution throughout the colon, with the sigmoid colon affected more than the right side of the colon in terms of a phasic response. Various neuropeptides have been proposed as mediators of this reflex, such as serotonin, neurotensin, cholecystokinin and gastrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a...

    Correct

    • A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a history of failure to thrive. He is observed to have a large head and to be small for his age. A cupped appearance of the epiphysis of the wrist is seen on the x-ray. Which condition is this linked to?

      Your Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Answer: Rickets

      Rickets is a disease of growing bone that is unique to children and adolescents. It is caused by a failure of osteoid to calcify in a growing person.
      The signs and symptoms of rickets can include:

      pain – the bones affected by rickets can be sore and painful, so the child may be reluctant to walk or may tire easily; the child’s walk may look different (waddling)
      skeletal deformities – thickening of the ankles, wrists and knees, bowed legs, soft skull bones and, rarely, bending of the spine
      dental problems – including weak tooth enamel, delay in teeth coming through and increased risk of cavities
      poor growth and development – if the skeleton doesn’t grow and develop properly, the child will be shorter than average
      fragile bones – in severe cases, the bones become weaker and more prone to fractures.

      Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan tend to be tall and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta, with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm. Other commonly affected areas include the lungs, eyes, bones and the covering of the spinal cord.

      Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a group of inherited disorders that affect your connective tissues — primarily your skin, joints and blood vessel walls. People who have Ehlers-Danlos syndrome usually have overly flexible joints and stretchy, fragile skin. This can become a problem if you have a wound that requires stitches, because the skin often isn’t strong enough to hold them.
      A more severe form of the disorder, called Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, vascular type, can cause the walls of your blood vessels, intestines or uterus to rupture.

      Osteoporosis is a disease in which bone weakening increases the risk of a broken bone. It is the most common reason for a broken bone among the elderly. Bones that commonly break include the vertebrae in the spine, the bones of the forearm, and the hip. Until a broken bone occurs there are typically no symptoms. Bones may weaken to such a degree that a break may occur with minor stress or spontaneously. Chronic pain and a decreased ability to carry out normal activities may occur following a broken bone.

      Osteoporosis may be due to lower-than-normal maximum bone mass and greater-than-normal bone loss. Bone loss increases after menopause due to lower levels of oestrogen. Osteoporosis may also occur due to a number of diseases or treatments, including alcoholism, anorexia, hyperthyroidism, kidney disease, and surgical removal of the ovaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 20 year lady is brought to the A&E following a road accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year lady is brought to the A&E following a road accident. She is hypotensive and a CT scan of the abdomen reveals a shattered spleen. An emergency splenectomy is performed where the splenic artery is ligated right at its origin. Which of the following arteries will have a diminished blood flow owing to ligation of the splenic artery at its origin?

      Your Answer: Right gastroepiploic

      Correct Answer: Left gastroepiploic

      Explanation:

      Ligation of the splenic artery right at its point of origin should cut off blood flow in its branches. The following are the branches of the splenic artery: pancreatic branches, short gastric branches and left gastroepiploic arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following morphological characteristic is a salient feature of a pure...

    Correct

    • Which of the following morphological characteristic is a salient feature of a pure apoptotic cell?

      Your Answer: Chromatin condensation

      Explanation:

      Apoptosis is the programmed death of cells which occurs as a normal and controlled part of an organism’s growth or development. The changes which occur in this process include blebbing, cell shrinkage, nuclear fragmentation, chromatin condensation, chromosomal DNA fragmentation, and global mRNA decay. The cell membrane however remains intact and the dead cells are phagocytosed prior to any content leakage and thus inflammatory response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 25-year-old woman hits her head on the steering wheel during a collision...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman hits her head on the steering wheel during a collision with another car. She is brought to the A&E department with periorbital swelling and a flattened appearance of the face. What is the most likely injury?

      Your Answer: Le Fort III fracture affecting the maxilla

      Explanation:

      The flattened appearance of the face is a classical description of the dish-face deformity associated with Le Fort III fracture of the midface.

      The term Le Fort fractures is applied to transverse fractures of the midface involving the maxillary bone and surrounding structures in either a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. There are three grades of Le Fort fractures:

      1. Le Fort I
      It is the horizontal fracture of the maxilla. Violent force over a more extensive area above the level of the
      teeth will result in this type of fracture. Horizontal fracture line is seen above the apices of the maxillary teeth, detaching the tooth-bearing portion of the maxilla from the rest of the facial skeleton. Floating maxilla and Guerin’s sign is seen in such patients.

      2. Le Fort II
      It is a pyramidal or subzygomatic fracture. Violent force in the central region extending from glabella to the alveolus results in this type of fracture, resulting in ballooning or moon-face facial deformity.

      3. Le Fort III
      It is a high-level transverse or suprazygomatic fracture associated with craniofacial disjunction. The entire facial skeleton moves as a single block as a result of the trauma. The patient develops a characteristic panda facies and dish-face deformity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 42 year old women presents with end stage renal failure and is...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old women presents with end stage renal failure and is prepared to receive a kidney from her husband. HLA testing showed that they are not a 100% match and she is given immunosuppressant therapy for this. Three months later when her renal function tests were performed she showed signs of deteriorating renal function, with decreased renal output, proteinuria of +++ and RBCs in the urine. She was given antilymphocyte globulins and her condition reversed. What type of graft did this patient receive?

      Your Answer: Allograft

      Explanation:

      Allograft describes a graft between two of the same species. As the donor and the recipients are history-incompatible, rejection of the graft is common and is controlled by immunosuppressive drug therapy. Isograft and syngraft are synonymous and referred to a graft transferred between genetically identical individuals e.g. identical twins. In this case rejection is rare as they are history-compatible.
      Autograft refers to transfer of one part of the body to another location.
      Xenograft is transfer of tissue from another species e.g. pig to human in valve replacement surgeries and rejection is very high.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - In a neurological exam on a robbery with violence victim, it was discovered...

    Correct

    • In a neurological exam on a robbery with violence victim, it was discovered that the victim had lost sense of touch to the skin over her cheek and chin (maxilla and mandible region). Where are the cell bodies of the nerve that is responsible for touch sensations of this region located?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve V ganglion

      Explanation:

      The skin over the cheek and the maxilla are innervated by the trigeminal nerve (CN V). The trigeminal nerve has three major branches and it is the largest cranial nerve. The three branches of the trigeminal nerve are; the ophthalmic nerve, the maxillary nerve and the mandibular nerve. The trigeminal nerves ganglion is a sensory nerve ganglion know as the trigeminal ganglion (also referred to as the Gasser’s ganglion or the semilunar ganglion). It is contained in the dura matter in a cavity known as the Meckel’s cave, which covers the trigeminal impression near the apex of the petrous part of the temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 65 year old man is brought to the emergency department after he...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old man is brought to the emergency department after he collapsed at the bus station. Clinical examination is significant for a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. On arrival he is hypotensive and moribund. Which of the following is most likely to be his ASA?

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      ASA-V: A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation. Examples include (but not limited to): ruptured abdominal/thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology or multiple organ/system dysfunction

      ASA Grading
      1 – No organic physiological, biochemical or psychiatric disturbance. The surgical pathology is localised and has not invoked systemic disturbance
      2 – Mild or moderate systemic disruption caused either by the surgical disease process or though underlying pre-existing disease
      3 – Severe systemic disruption caused either by the surgical pathology or pre-existing disease
      4 – Patient has severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
      5 – A patient who is moribund and will not survive without surgery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 20-year old involved in a brawl was stabbed in the anterior chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old involved in a brawl was stabbed in the anterior chest in a structure that is in close proximity to where the first rib articulates with the sternum. What is the structure that was most likely injured?

      Your Answer: Root of the lung

      Correct Answer: Sternoclavicular joint

      Explanation:

      The first rib articulates with the sternum right below the sternoclavicular joint.
      The sternal angle articulates with the costal cartilage of the second rib.
      The nipple is found between the fourth and the fifth ribs, in the fourth intercostal space.
      The xiphoid process is located right below the point of articulation of the costal cartilage of rib 7 with the sternum.
      The root of the lung is the part of the lung where neurovascular structures enter and leave the lung.
      Acromioclavicular joint is the point of articulation between the acromion process and the clavicle, near the shoulder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to indicate the position of the deep inguinal ring. You indicate this as being:

      Your Answer: Above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring is near the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, below the anterior superior iliac spine. It is lateral to the inferior epigastric artery. The superficial ring, however, is found above the pubic tubercle. The supravesical fossa is the space between the median and medial umbilical folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - An 8 year old boy presents with a history of repeated bacterial/pyogenic infections....

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old boy presents with a history of repeated bacterial/pyogenic infections. He had a normal recovery from chickenpox and measles and shows normal antibody response. A decrease in which of the cell types can best explain this history of repeated pyogenic infections?

      Your Answer: Eosinophils

      Correct Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      A decrease in the number of granulocytes, particularly neutrophils is known as agranulocytosis and it increases the susceptibility of an individual towards recurrent infections. Neutropenia can be either due to decreased production or increased elimination of neutrophils.
      Ineffective agranulopoiesis is seen in: 1. myeloid stem cell suppression, 2. disease conditions associated with granulopoiesis such as megaloblastic anaemia and myelodysplastic syndromes, 3. rare genetic diseases, 4. splenic sequestration and 5. increased peripheral utilization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 6 year old girl falls during dance class and fractures the growth...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old girl falls during dance class and fractures the growth plate of her left wrist. Which system can be used to classify the injury?

      Your Answer: Salter - Harris system

      Explanation:

      A Salter–Harris fracture is a fracture that involves the epiphyseal plate or growth plate of a bone, specifically the zone of provisional calcification. It is a common injury found in children, occurring in 15% of childhood long bone fractures.
      There are nine types of Salter–Harris fractures; types I to V as described by Robert B Salter and W Robert Harris in 1963, and the rarer types VI to IX which have been added subsequently:
      Type I – transverse fracture through the growth plate (also referred to as the physis): 6% incidence
      Type II – A fracture through the growth plate and the metaphysis, sparing the epiphysis: 75% incidence, takes approximately 12-90 weeks or more in the spine to heal.
      Type III – A fracture through growth plate and epiphysis, sparing the metaphysis: 8% incidence
      Type IV – A fracture through all three elements of the bone, the growth plate, metaphysis, and epiphysis: 10% incidence
      Type V – A compression fracture of the growth plate (resulting in a decrease in the perceived space between the epiphysis and metaphysis on x-ray): 1% incidence
      Type VI – Injury to the peripheral portion of the physis and a resultant bony bridge formation which may produce an angular deformity (added in 1969 by Mercer Rang)
      Type VII – Isolated injury of the epiphyseal plate (VII–IX added in 1982 by JA Ogden)
      Type VIII – Isolated injury of the metaphysis with possible impairment of endochondral ossification
      Type IX – Injury of the periosteum which may impair intramembranous ossification

      The mnemonic SALTER can be used to help remember the first five types.
      N.B.: This mnemonic requires the reader to imagine the bones as long bones, with the epiphyses at the base.

      I – S = Slip (separated or straight across). Fracture of the cartilage of the physis (growth plate)
      II – A = Above. The fracture lies above the physis, or Away from the joint.
      III – L = Lower. The fracture is below the physis in the epiphysis.
      IV – TE = Through Everything. The fracture is through the metaphysis, physis, and epiphysis.
      V – R = Rammed (crushed). The physis has been crushed.
      Alternatively, SALTER can be used for the first 6 types, as above but adding Type V — ‘E’ for ‘Everything’ or ‘Epiphysis’ and Type VI — ‘R’ for ‘Ring’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E department after being shot in the...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E department after being shot in the back, in the lumbar region. On examination, he has increased tone and hyperreflexia of his right leg and hemianaesthesia of his left leg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Brown-Sequard syndrome

      Explanation:

      This is a case of Brown-Sequard syndrome.

      Brown-Sequard syndrome is caused by hemisection of the spinal cord following stab injuries or lateral vertebral fractures. It results in ipsilateral paralysis (pyramidal tract), and also loss of proprioception and fine discrimination(dorsal columns). Pain and temperature sensations are lost on the contralateral side. This is because the fibres of the spinothalamic tract have decussated below the level of the cord transection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 35 year old man presented to the surgical OPD with a lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old man presented to the surgical OPD with a lump on his right forearm which appeared 3 weeks ago and was tender on examination. He gave a history was being in a car accident with pieces of glass from the windshield piercing his forearm removed manually and on further elective surgery. Which of these cells are characteristically found during inflammation in this situation?

      Your Answer: Eosinophil

      Correct Answer: Giant cell

      Explanation:

      A foreign body reaction Is characteristic of giant cells. Glass being the foreign object initiates an inflammatory response in this condition.
      Mast cells are involved in allergic reactions.
      Eosinophils are characteristic of a parasitic infection and allergic inflammatory process but are not due to foreign bodies.
      Plasma cells are typical of chronic inflammation.
      Lymphocytes are involved in viral infections.
      Macrophages combine together to form giant cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 39 year old man presents to the clinic with a headache. His...

    Correct

    • A 39 year old man presents to the clinic with a headache. His blood pressure is found to be 175/110 on routine screening. Examination shows no abnormalities. However, further investigations show a left-sided adrenal mass on CT. Labs reveal an elevated plasma level of metanephrines. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Pheochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Hypertension in a young patient without any obvious cause should be investigated.

      A pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting tumour typically located in the adrenal medulla. Pheochromocytomas are usually benign (∼ 90% of cases) but may also be malignant. Classic clinical features are due to excess sympathetic nervous system stimulation and involve episodic blood pressure crises with paroxysmal headaches, diaphoresis, heart palpitations, and pallor. However, a pheochromocytoma may also present asymptomatically or with persistent hypertension. Elevated catecholamine metabolites in the plasma or urine confirm the diagnosis, while imaging studies in patients with positive biochemistry are used to determine the location of the tumour. Surgical resection is the treatment of choice, but is only carried out once alpha blockade with phenoxybenzamine has become effective.

      Pheochromocytoma is said to follow a 10% rule:

      ,10% are extra-adrenal
      ,10% are bilateral
      ,10% are malignant
      ,10% are found in children
      ,10% are familial
      ,10% are not associated with hypertension
      ,10% contain calcification

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness...

    Correct

    • A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness burn to her right arm, which she got when a firework that she was playing with exploded. Which statement is not characteristic of the situation?

      Your Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin grafted

      Explanation:

      Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin grafted

      Third-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis. Third-degree burns may also damage the underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. The burn site appears white or charred. There is no sensation in the area since the nerve endings are destroyed. These are not normally painful until after skin grafting is done since the nerve endings have been destroyed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A terrorist running away from the police was shot in the back. The...

    Incorrect

    • A terrorist running away from the police was shot in the back. The bullet hit his left lung halfway between its apex and the diaphragmatic surface. Which part of the lung was most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Middle lobe

      Correct Answer: Inferior lobe

      Explanation:

      The oblique fissure of the left lung is so sharp that the posterior surface of the left lung is mostly composed of the inferior lobe so that the point halfway between the apex and the diaphragmatic surface of the lung would result in injury to the inferior lobe.
      The hilum is the point on the medial surface of the lung where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung.
      The lingual on the other hand is part of the superior lobe of the left lung and it is part of the anterior and superior sides of the lung.
      The middle lobe is only found on the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?...

    Correct

    • Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?

      Your Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Transitional cell carcinomas can arise anywhere in the urothelium lining the urinary tract; and hence are known to be multicentric and recur commonly. Prostatic adenocarcinoma most commonly involves the posterior lobe of the prostate gland. Although renal cell carcinomas occasionally show multicentricity, it is not common. Penile carcinomas are usually locally infiltrative lesions. Wilm’s tumours are usually solitary, but can be bilateral or multicentric in 10% cases. Small cell carcinoma of lung and teratomas are usually solitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 34-year-old Asian male presents with cervical lymphadenopathy. The patient is suspected to...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old Asian male presents with cervical lymphadenopathy. The patient is suspected to have tuberculous lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy of one of the nodes showed granulomatous inflammation. Which histopathologic feature is most likely consistent with the diagnosis of tuberculosis?

      Your Answer: Caseation necrosis

      Explanation:

      The granulomas of tuberculosis tend to contain necrosis (caseating tubercles), but non-necrotizing granulomas may also be present. Multinucleated giant cells with nuclei arranged like a horseshoe (Langhans giant cells) and foreign body giant cells are often present, but are not specific for tuberculosis. A definitive diagnosis of tuberculosis requires identification of the causative organism by microbiological cultures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 47-year-old female with breast cancer started a chemotherapy regime containing epirubicin. What...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old female with breast cancer started a chemotherapy regime containing epirubicin. What is the primary mode of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Intercalation of DNA

      Explanation:

      Epirubicin is an anthracycline; intercalates between DNA base pairs and triggers cleavage by topoisomerase II, which results in cytocidal activity.
      Inhibits DNA helicase and generates cytotoxic free radicals.

      Contraindications:
      – Severe hypersensitivity to drug, other anthracyclines, or anthracenediones
      – Baseline ANC<1500/mm³
      – Cardiomyopathy and/or heart failure, recent MI, or severe arrhythmias
      – Severe myocardial insufficiency
      – Cumulative dose achieved in previous anthracycline treatment
      – Severe persistent drug-induced myelosuppression
      – Severe hepatic impairment (Child-Pugh Class C or serum bilirubin level greater than 5 mg/dL)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A cell is classified on the basis of its regenerative ability. Which of...

    Correct

    • A cell is classified on the basis of its regenerative ability. Which of the following cells represent a permanent cell?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte

      Explanation:

      An erythrocyte is the last cell in the progeny of RBC cell division and is not capable of further division and regeneration. Hepatocytes, osteocytes and epithelium of kidney tubules are all stable cells. Colonic mucosa and pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells are all labile cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a...

    Correct

    • A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg, with a drop in systolic pressure to 100 mm Hg on inhalation. This is known as:

      Your Answer: Pulsus paradoxus

      Explanation:

      Weakening of pulse with inhalation and strengthening with exhalation is known as pulsus paradoxus. This represents an exaggeration of the normal variation of the pulse in relation to respiration. It indicates conditions such as cardiac tamponade and lung disease. The paradox refers to the auscultation of extra cardiac beats on inspiration, as compared to the pulse. Due to a decrease in blood pressure, the radial pulse becomes impalpable along with an increase in jugular venous pressure height (Kussmaul sign). Normal systolic blood pressure variation (with respiration) is considered to be >10 mmHg. It is >100 mmHg in Pulsus paradoxus. It is also predictive of the severity of cardiac tamponade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the...

    Incorrect

    • Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the skeletal neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine:

      Your Answer: Activates presynaptic potassium channels

      Correct Answer: Causes postsynaptic depolarisation

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine is released from the presynaptic membrane into the cleft where it binds to the ion gated channels on the post synaptic membrane, causing them to open. This results in sodium entering into the fibre and further depolarizing it, creating an action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 53 year old woman is admitted to the hospital with a femoral...

    Correct

    • A 53 year old woman is admitted to the hospital with a femoral shaft fracture that occurred suddenly whilst running outside. On examination, there is no neurovascular deficit distal to the fracture site. However, there is a large firm nodule in the left lobe of the thyroid, with no associated lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Follicular thyroid cancer

      Explanation:

      Follicular thyroid cancer accounts for 15% of thyroid cancer and occurs more commonly in women over 50 years of age. Thyroglobulin (Tg) can be used as a tumour marker for well-differentiated follicular thyroid cancer. Follicular cells are the thyroid cells responsible for the production and secretion of thyroid hormones.

      It is impossible to distinguish between follicular adenoma and carcinoma on cytological grounds. If fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) suggests follicular neoplasm, thyroid lobectomy should be performed to establish the histopathological diagnosis. Features for the diagnosis of follicular carcinoma are capsular invasion and vascular invasion by tumour cells. Capsular invasion should be carefully evaluated and discriminated from the capsular rupture due to FNA penetration resulting in WHAFFT (worrisome histologic alterations following FNA of thyroid).

      – Follicular carcinoma tends to metastasize to lung and bone via the bloodstream.
      – Papillary thyroid carcinoma commonly metastasizes to cervical lymph nodes.
      – HMGA2 has been proposed as a marker to identify malignant tumours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which of the following will increase blood pressure and cause hypokalaemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will increase blood pressure and cause hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin is a peptide that is released in response to a decrease in blood volume and blood pressure. It has multiple functions but mainly acts to cause vasoconstriction, increase BP and release aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. It is a powerful vasoconstrictor and release of aldosterone causes increased retention of sodium and excretion of potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A lesion involving the lateral portion of the dorsal columns at the level...

    Correct

    • A lesion involving the lateral portion of the dorsal columns at the level of the nape of the neck will most likely affect:

      Your Answer: Vibratory sensations from the ipsilateral arm

      Explanation:

      At the level mentioned in the question, the lateral portion of dorsal columns comprises of the fasciculus cuneatus. Axons carrying the sensations of touch, vibration and proprioception from the ipsilateral arm enter the spinal cord and ascend in the fasciculus cuneatus, synapsing in the nucleus cuneatus of the caudal medulla. Secondary neurons from this nucleus give rise to internal arcuate fibres, which decussate and ascend to the thalamus as the medial lemniscus. Tertiary neurons from there project to the ipsilateral somatosensory cortex. Thus, any damage to the fasciculus cuneatus will result in a deficit in tactile, proprioceptive and vibratory sensations in the ipsilateral arm, and not the contralateral arm.
      Fine motor control of the fingers is mainly carried by the ipsilateral lateral corticospinal tract in the lateral funiculus of the cord. Motor control of the contralateral foot is carried by the ipsilateral corticospinal tract in the lateral funiculus of the cord. Lack of sweating of the face could be produced by interruption of sympathetic innervation. Proprioception from the ipsilateral leg is carried by the fasciculus gracilis in the medial part of the dorsal columns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 30-year old lady presented to her GP with complaints of tremors, excessive...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old lady presented to her GP with complaints of tremors, excessive emotional outbursts, weight loss and increased sweating over 20 days. On examination, she had warm and moist skin, a fine tremor of the fingers and hyperreflexia. Her vital signs were normal. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Excess of circulating free thyroid hormones (thyroxine and/or triiodothyronine) leads to hyperthyroidism. Common causes include Graves’ disease, toxic thyroid adenoma and toxic multinodular goitre. Grave’s disease is the most common cause and is responsible for 70-80% cases of hyperthyroidism. Other causes include excess intake of thyroid hormone, amiodarone-related. It is important that hyperthyroidism is not confused with hyperthyroxinaemia (high levels of thyroid hormone in blood), which includes causes like thyroiditis. Both the conditions lead to thyrotoxicosis (symptoms due to hyperthyroxinemia). Symptoms include weight loss associated with increased appetite, anxiety, weakness, heat intolerance, depression, increased sweating, dyspnoea, loss of libido, diarrhoea, palpitations and occasionally arrhythmias. If there is an acute increase in metabolic rate, the condition is known as ‘thyroid storm’. Elderly sometimes present only with fatigue and weight loss and this is called apathetic hyperthyroidism. Neurological symptoms are also seen in hyperthyroidism and these are tremor, chorea, myopathy and periodic paralysis. One of the most serious complications of hyperthyroidism is stroke of cardioembolic origin due to coexisting atrial fibrillation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 27-year-old male complains of passing painless bright red blood rectally. It has...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old male complains of passing painless bright red blood rectally. It has been occurring over the past week and tends to occur post defecation. He also suffers from pruritus ani. The underlying cause is likely to be manageable by treatment from which of the following modalities?

      Your Answer: Rubber band ligation

      Explanation:

      The patient has Haemorrhoid Disease
      A total of 40% of individuals with haemorrhoids are asymptomatic.
      For internal haemorrhoids, bleeding is the most commonly reported symptom. The occurrence of bleeding is usually associated with defecation and almost always painless. The blood is bright red and coats the stool at the end of defection.
      Another frequent symptom is the sensation of tissue prolapse. Prolapsed internal haemorrhoids may accompany mild faecal incontinence, mucus discharge, a sensation of perianal fullness, and irritation of perianal skin. Pain is significantly less common with internal haemorrhoids than with external haemorrhoids but can occur in the setting of prolapsed, strangulated internal haemorrhoids that develop gangrenous changes due to the associated ischemia.
      In contrast, external haemorrhoids are more likely to be associated with pain, due to activation of perianal innervations associated with thrombosis. Patients typically describe a painful perianal mass that is tender to palpation. This painful mass may be initially increasing in size and severity over time. Bleeding can also occur if ulceration develops from necrosis of the thrombosed haemorrhoid, and this blood tends to be darker and more clotted than the bleeding from the internal disease. Painless external skin tags often result from previous oedematous or thrombosed external haemorrhoids.

      Lifestyle and dietary modification are the mainstays of conservative medical treatment of haemorrhoid disease. Specifically, lifestyle modifications should include increasing oral fluid intake, reducing fat consumptions, avoiding straining, and regular exercise. Diet recommendations should include increasing fibre intake, which decreases the shearing action of passing a hard stool.
      Most patients with grade I and II and select patients with grade III internal hemorrhoidal disease who fail medical treatment can be effectively treated with office-based procedures.
      For internal haemorrhoids, rubber band ligation, sclerotherapy, and infrared coagulation are the most common procedures but there is no consensus on optimal treatment. Overall, the goals of each procedure are to decrease vascularity, reduce redundant tissue, and increase hemorrhoidal rectal wall fixation to minimize prolapse.
      Rubber band ligation is the most commonly performed procedure in the office and is indicated for grade II and III internal haemorrhoids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - The renal cortex and medulla, if seen under the microscope, is lacking one...

    Incorrect

    • The renal cortex and medulla, if seen under the microscope, is lacking one of the following:

      Your Answer: A basement membrane

      Correct Answer: Squamous epithelium

      Explanation:

      Capillaries, Henle’s loop, collecting ducts, Bertin columns and type IV collagen in glomerular basement membrane are all structures present in the renal cortex or medulla. The squamous epithelium is the only one that is lacking in both the renal cortex and medulla, because normally it is not found above the outer urethra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A patient who complained of pain on the lower left side of the...

    Correct

    • A patient who complained of pain on the lower left side of the back had an x-ray done which confirmed a hernia passing posterolaterally, just superior to the iliac crest. Where is this hernia passing through?

      Your Answer: Lumbar triangle

      Explanation:

      The lumber triangle is bound medially by the border of the latissimus dorsi, laterally by the external abdominal oblique and by the iliac crest inferiorly. This is exactly where the hernia that is described is located.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 29 year old female bus driver presents to her family doctor with...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old female bus driver presents to her family doctor with severe retrosternal chest pain and recurrent episodes of dysphagia. She states that these occur at irregular intervals and often resolve spontaneously. There are no physical abnormalities on examination and she seems well. What is her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Answer: Achalasia

      Achalasia is a primary oesophageal motility disorder characterized by the absence of oesophageal peristalsis and impaired relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) in response to swallowing. The LES is hypertensive in about 50% of patients. These abnormalities cause a functional obstruction at the gastroesophageal junction (GEJ).
      Symptoms of achalasia include the following:

      Dysphagia (most common)

      Regurgitation

      Chest pain (behind the sternum)

      Heartburn

      Weight loss

      Physical examination is non-contributory.

      Treatment recommendations are as follows:

      Initial therapy should be either graded pneumatic dilation (PD) or laparoscopic surgical myotomy with a partial fundoplication in patients fit to undergo surgery

      Procedures should be performed in high-volume centres of excellence

      Initial therapy choice should be based on patient age, sex, preference, and local institutional expertise

      Botulinum toxin therapy is recommended for patients not suited to PD or surgery

      Pharmacologic therapy can be used for patients not undergoing PD or myotomy and who have failed botulinum toxin therapy (nitrates and calcium channel blockers most common).

      The invasion of the oesophageal neural plexus by the tumour can cause nonrelaxation of the LES, thus mimicking achalasia. This condition is known as malignant pseudo achalasia. Since contrast radiography and endoscopy frequently fail to differentiate these 2 entities, patients with a presumed diagnosis of achalasia but who have a shorter duration of symptoms, greater weight loss, and a more advanced age and who are referred for minimally invasive surgery should undergo additional imaging studies, including endoscopic ultrasound and computed tomography with fine cuts of the gastroesophageal junction, to rule out cancer.

      Effort rupture of the oesophagus, or Boerhaave syndrome, is a spontaneous perforation of the oesophagus that results from a sudden increase in intraoesophageally pressure combined with negative intrathoracic pressure (e.g., severe straining or vomiting). The classic clinical presentation of Boerhaave syndrome usually consists of repeated episodes of retching and vomiting, typically in a middle-aged man with recent excessive dietary and alcohol intake.

      These repeated episodes of retching and vomiting are followed by a sudden onset of severe chest pain in the lower thorax and the upper abdomen. The pain may radiate to the back or to the left shoulder. Swallowing often aggravates the pain.

      Typically, hematemesis is not seen after oesophageal rupture, which helps to distinguish it from the more common Mallory-Weiss tear.

      Swallowing may precipitate coughing because of the communication between the oesophagus and the pleural cavity. Shortness of breath is a common complaint and is due to pleuritic pain or pleural effusion.

      A pulmonary embolism is a blood clot that occurs in the lungs.

      It can damage part of the lung due to restricted blood flow, decrease oxygen levels in the blood, and affect other organs as well. Large or multiple blood clots can be fatal.
      The most common symptom of a pulmonary embolism is shortness of breath. This may be gradual or sudden.

      Other symptoms of a pulmonary embolism include:
      anxiety
      clammy or bluish skin
      chest pain that may extend into your arm, jaw, neck, and shoulder
      fainting
      irregular heartbeat
      light-headedness
      rapid breathing
      rapid heartbeat
      restlessness
      spitting up blood
      weak pulse

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Two boys were playing when one of them brought the forearm of the...

    Correct

    • Two boys were playing when one of them brought the forearm of the other behind his back. This resulted in a stretching of the lateral rotator of the arm. Which of the following muscles was most likely to have been involved?

      Your Answer: Infraspinatus

      Explanation:

      There are two lateral rotators of the arm, the infraspinatus and the teres minor muscles. The infraspinatus muscle receives nerve supply from C5 and C6 via the suprascapular nerve, whilst the teres minor is supplied by C5 via the axillary nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - The neurotransmitters adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine are derived from which amino acid? ...

    Incorrect

    • The neurotransmitters adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine are derived from which amino acid?

      Your Answer: Arginine

      Correct Answer: Tyrosine

      Explanation:

      Tyrosine is the precursor to adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine. Tyrosine hydroxylase converts tyrosine to DOPA, which is in turn converted to dopamine, then to noradrenaline and finally adrenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 55-year-old man is recovering following an elective right hemicolectomy for carcinoma of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is recovering following an elective right hemicolectomy for carcinoma of the caecum. His surgery is uncomplicated, when should oral intake resume?

      Your Answer: Within 24 hours of surgery

      Explanation:

      It has been well established that any delay in the resumption of normal oral diet after major surgery is associated with increased rates of infectious complications and delayed recovery. Early oral diet is safe 4 h after surgery in patients with a new non-diverted colorectal anastomosis. Some report that low residue diet, rather than a clear liquid diet, after colorectal surgery is associated with less nausea, faster return of bowel function, and a shorter hospital stay without increasing postoperative morbidity when administered in association with prevention of postoperative ileus. Spontaneous food intake rarely exceeds 1200–1500 kcal/day. To reach energy and protein requirements, additional oral nutritional supplements are useful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 30-year-old male presents with a recurrent inguinal hernia on the left side...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents with a recurrent inguinal hernia on the left side of his abdomen and a newly diagnosed inguinal hernia on the right side. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Bilateral open Lichtenstein repair

      Correct Answer: Bilateral laparoscopic TEP repair

      Explanation:

      Risk factors for Recurrent Inguinal Hernia with a moderate level of evidence include the presence of a sliding hernia, a diminished collagen type I/III ratio, increased systemic matrix metalloproteinase levels, obesity and open hernia repair under local anaesthesia by general surgeons.
      The incorrect surgical technique is likely the most important reason for recurrence after primary IH repair.

      According to the guidelines:
      – Laparo-endoscopic recurred inguinal hernia repair is strongly recommended after failed anterior tissue or Lichtenstein repair (evidence: moderate; recommendation: strong).
      – Anterior repair is recommended after a failed posterior repair (evidence: moderate; recommendation: strong).
      – An expert hernia surgeon should repair a recurrent Inguinal Hernia after failed anterior and posterior repair. Choice of technique depends on patient and surgeon specific factors (evidence: low; recommendation: strong upgraded).

      The EHS guidelines recommended for bilateral primary inguinal hernia repair, either a bilateral Lichtenstein or endoscopic approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Where is the mental foramen located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the mental foramen located?

      Your Answer: In the maxilla

      Correct Answer: In the mandible

      Explanation:

      The mental foramen is found bilaterally on the anterior surface of the mandible adjacent to the second premolar tooth. The mental nerve and terminal branches of the inferior alveolar nerve and mental artery leave the mandibular canal through it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it...

    Incorrect

    • What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it emerges from the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer: Adduction of the thigh would be eliminated

      Correct Answer: Extension of the thigh would be the action most affected

      Explanation:

      As the inferior gluteal nerve emerges from the greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis muscle, it divides into branches and enters the gluteus maximus muscle which extends the femur and bends the thigh in line with the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - The deep planter artery is a branch of the: ...

    Correct

    • The deep planter artery is a branch of the:

      Your Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery

      Explanation:

      The deep plantar artery is a branch of the dorsalis pedis artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 32-year-old man presents with aching pain and discomfort in his right testicle....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with aching pain and discomfort in his right testicle. He has generally been feeling unwell for the past 48 hours as well. On examination, tenderness of the right testicle and an exaggerated cremasteric reflex has been found. What should be the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Administration of antibiotics

      Explanation:

      This is likely a case of epididymo-orchitis which usually occurs due to infection with gonorrhoea or chlamydia in this age group (<35 years). Epididymo-orchitis is an acute inflammation of the epididymis and often involves the testis. It is usually caused by bacterial infection which spreads from the urethra or bladder. Amiodarone is a recognised non-infective cause of epididymitis, which resolves on stopping the drug. On examination, tenderness is usually confined to the epididymis, which may facilitate differentiating it from torsion where pain usually affects the entire testis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Evaluation of a 60-year old gentleman, who has been a coal miner all...

    Incorrect

    • Evaluation of a 60-year old gentleman, who has been a coal miner all his life and is suspected to have pulmonary fibrosis reveals the following: FEV1 of 75% (normal > 65%), arterial oxygen saturation 92%, alveolar ventilation 6000 ml/min at a tidal volume of 600 ml and a breathing rate of 12 breaths/min. There are also pathological changes in lung compliance and residual volume. Calculate his anatomical dead space.

      Your Answer: 120 ml

      Correct Answer: 100 ml

      Explanation:

      Dead space refers to inhaled air that does not take part in gas exchange. Because of this dead space, taking deep breaths slowly is more effective for gas exchange than taking quick, shallow breaths where a large proportion is dead space. Use of a snorkel by a diver increases the dead space marginally. Anatomical dead space refers to the gas in conducting areas such as mouth and trachea, and is roughly 150 ml (2.2 ml/kg body weight). This corresponds to a third of the tidal volume (400-500 ml). It can be measured by Fowler’s method, a nitrogen wash-out technique. It is posture-dependent and increases with increase in tidal volume. Physiological dead space is equal to the anatomical dead space plus the alveolar dead space, where alveolar dead space is the area in the alveoli where no effective exchange takes place due to poor blood flow in capillaries. This physiological dead space is very small normally (< 5 ml) but can increase in lung diseases. Physiological dead space can be measured by Bohr’s method. Total ventilation per minute (minute ventilation) is given by the product of tidal volume and the breathing rate. Here, the total ventilation is 600 ml times 12 breaths/min = 7200 ml/min. The problem mentions alveolar ventilation to be 6000 ml/min. Thus, the difference between the alveolar ventilation and total ventilation is 7200 – 6000 ml/min = 1200 ml/min, or 100 ml per breath at 12 breaths per min. This 100 ml is the dead space volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 40-year-old man is brought to the A&E department in an unconscious state,...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man is brought to the A&E department in an unconscious state, following a car collision. He was driving at a high speed of 140 km/hr, wearing a seat belt, when his car collided with a brick wall. CT scan of the brain appears to be normal. However, he remains in a persistent vegetative state. What is the most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Diffuse axonal injury

      Explanation:

      This is a case of diffuse axonal injury (DAI) which occurs when the head is rapidly accelerated or decelerated.

      DAI is a form of traumatic brain injury which occurs when the brain rapidly shifts inside the skull as an injury is occurring. The long connecting fibres in the brain called axons are sheared as the brain rapidly accelerates and decelerates inside the hard bone of the skull. There are two components of DAI:
      1. Multiple haemorrhages
      2. Diffuse axonal damage in the white matter

      Up to two-thirds of the changes occurs at the junction of the grey and white matter due to the different densities of the tissue. These are mainly histological and axonal damage is secondary to biochemical cascades. Often, there are no signs of a fracture or contusion. DAI typically causes widespread injury to the brain leading to loss of consciousness. The changes in the brain are often very tiny and can be difficult to detect using CT or MRI scans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the...

    Correct

    • The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following statements regarding the blood– brain barrier is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It breaks down in areas of brain that are infected

      Explanation:

      The blood–brain barrier is a membrane that controls the passage of substances from the blood into the central nervous system. It is a physical barrier between the local blood vessels and most parts of the central nervous system and stops many substances from travelling across it. During meningitis, the blood–brain barrier may be disrupted. This disruption may increase the penetration of various substances (including either toxins or antibiotics) into the brain. A few regions in the brain, including the circumventricular organs, do not have a blood–brain barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 26-year-old right-handed tennis player presents to the A&E department with a painful,...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old right-handed tennis player presents to the A&E department with a painful, swollen right arm. On examination, his upper limb pulses are present, but he has dusky fingers. A diagnosis of axillary vein thrombosis is made and confirmed. He is immediately started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH).What should be the next best step of management to achieve venous patency?

      Your Answer: Catheter-directed tPA

      Explanation:

      Catheter-directed thrombolysis (CDT) is recommended as the next step of management for patients with proximal upper-extremity deep vein thrombosis (UEDVT) of recent onset or severe symptoms.

      Primary UEDVT is less common than secondary forms. The most common primary form is effort-related thrombosis, also called Paget-Schroetter syndrome. It usually occurs in otherwise healthy young men who report, before the onset of thrombosis, vigorous arm exercise such as lifting weights, playing badminton, pitching a baseball, or performing repetitive overhead activities, such as painting or car repair. Most patients with effort-related UEDVT have an underlying venous thoracic outlet syndrome (VTOS). Secondary causes of UEDVT include central line insertion, malignancy, or pacemakers.

      Patients with UEDVT typically present with heaviness, discomfort, pain, paraesthesia, and swelling of the affected arm. Physical examination may reveal pitting oedema, redness, or cyanosis of the involved extremity; visible collateral veins at the shoulder or upper arm; and fever.

      Diagnosis is made by:
      1. FBC: platelet function
      2. Coagulation profile
      3. Liver function tests
      4. Duplex scan: investigation of choice
      5. D-dimer testing
      6. CT scan: for VTOS

      Treatment options for primary UEDVT are as follows:
      1. Anticoagulation therapy should be undertaken with a once-daily regimen of LMWH or fondaparinux for at least five days, followed by vitamin K antagonists for at least three months. Unfractionated heparin instead of LMWH is recommended for patients with renal failure or for those treated with CDT.

      2. Early thrombus removal and restoration of venous patency should be done immediately after starting the patient on heparin. Catheter-based therapy is recommended for patients with proximal UEDVT of recent onset and severe symptoms, low risk for bleeding complications, and good functional status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and transmits the accessory meningeal artery?

      Your Answer: Jugular foramen

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Which statement is true about the inferior sagittal sinus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true about the inferior sagittal sinus?

      Your Answer: Drains into the superior petrosal sinus

      Correct Answer: Is formed between two layers of meningeal dura

      Explanation:

      The inferior sagittal sinus is also known as the inferior longitudinal sinus. It courses along the inferior border of the falx cerebri, superior to the corpus callosum. It is cylindrical in shape and increases in size as it passes backward ending in the straight sinus. It receives blood from the deep and medial aspects of the cerebral hemispheres and drains into the straight sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which of the following has the least malignant potential? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has the least malignant potential?

      Your Answer: Adenomatous polyp

      Correct Answer: Hyperplastic polyp

      Explanation:

      Non-neoplastic (non-adenomatous) colonic polyps include hyperplastic polyps, hamartomas, juvenile polyps, pseudopolyps, lipomas, leiomyomas and others.
      An autosomal dominant condition, Peutz–Jeghers syndrome is a disease that is characterized by multiple hamartomatous polyps in the stomach, small bowel and colon. Symptoms of this syndrome include hyperpigmentation of the skin and mucous membranes, especially of the lips and gums.
      Juvenile polyps develop in children, and once they outgrow their blood supply, they autoamputate around puberty. In cases of uncontrolled bleeding or intussusception, treatment is needed.
      Inflammatory polyps and pseudopolyps occur in chronic ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease. There is an increased risk of cancer with multiple juvenile polyps (not with sporadic polyps).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Correct

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is: ...

    Correct

    • The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is:

      Your Answer: Substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative, movement disorder of the central nervous system, and is typically characterized by muscle rigidity, tremor and bradykinesia (in extreme cases, akinesia). Secondary symptoms include high-level cognitive dysfunction and subtle language problems.
      Parkinson’s disease is also called ‘primary Parkinsonism’ or ‘idiopathic Parkinson’s disease and is the most common cause of Parkinsonism, a group of similar symptoms. The disorder is caused due to loss of pigmented dopaminergic cells in the pars compacta region of the substantia nigra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - An X ray of a 60 year old male brought to the accident...

    Incorrect

    • An X ray of a 60 year old male brought to the accident and emergency following a fall down stairs shows a fractured olecranon process of the right ulna with the line of fracture passing through the superior surface, disrupting a muscle. Which among the following muscles was most likely injured?

      Your Answer: Brachialis

      Correct Answer: Triceps brachii

      Explanation:

      The superior surface of the olecranon process forms an attachment for the insertion of the triceps brachii on the posterior aspect. It also has a minor transverse groove for the attachment of part of the posterior ligament of the elbow on the anterior aspect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - An 18 year old 100m athlete presents with knee pain which worsens on...

    Correct

    • An 18 year old 100m athlete presents with knee pain which worsens on walking down steps and sitting still. Wasting of the quadriceps and pseudolocking of the knee are observed on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chondromalacia patellae

      Explanation:

      Answer: Chondromalacia patellae

      Chondromalacia patellae, also known as “runner’s knee,” is a condition where the cartilage on the under surface of the patella (kneecap) deteriorates and softens. This condition is common among young, athletic individuals, but may also occur in older adults who have arthritis of the knee. Chondromalacia is understood as patellar pain in the anterior side of the knee which worsens on sitting for prolonged periods, or going down stairs/slopes, with joint clicking and episodes of pseudo-locking and failure.

      Chondromalacia is often seen as an overuse injury in sports, and sometimes taking a few days off from training can produce good results. In other cases, improper knee alignment is the cause and simply resting doesn’t provide relief. The symptoms of runner’s knee are knee pain and grinding sensations, but many people who have it never seek medical treatment.
      Chondromalacia patella often occurs when the under surface of the kneecap comes in contact with the thigh bone causing swelling and pain. Abnormal knee cap positioning, tightness or weakness of the muscles associated with the knee, too much activity involving the knee, and flat feet may increase the likelihood of chondromalacia patella.

      What are the symptoms of chondromalacia patella?
      Dull, aching pain that is felt:

      Behind the kneecap
      Below the kneecap
      On the sides of the kneecap
      A feeling of grinding when the knee is flexed may occur. This can happen:

      Doing knee bends
      Going down stairs
      Running down hill
      Standing up after sitting for awhile

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the skin at the pubic region. Which nerve was most likely injured in the operation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iliohypogastric

      Explanation:

      The iliohypogastric nerve comes from L1 and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of the psoas major. It then crosses obliquely in front of the quadratus lumborum to the iliac crest where it perforates the posterior part of transversus abdominis and divides between that muscle and the internal oblique into a lateral and an anterior cutaneous branch. This provides sensory innervation to the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh.
      The genitofemoral nerve also comes from the lumbar plexus that innervates the skin of the anterior scrotum or labia majora and upper medial thigh.
      The subcostal nerve is the ventral primary ramus of T12 providing sensory innervation to the anterolateral abdominal wall in an area superior to the pubic region.
      A spinal nerve owing to their deep location would not have been injured in the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 21-year-old woman is admitted with loin pain and fever. She has given...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman is admitted with loin pain and fever. She has given a history of haematuria for the past one week with associated dysuria, for which she was started on trimethoprim as an empirical outpatient treatment.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyelonephritis

      Explanation:

      This is most likely a case of pyelonephritis.

      Acute pyelonephritis is a common bacterial infection of the renal pelvis and kidneys most often seen in young adult women. History and physical examination are the most important tools for diagnosis. Most patients have fever, although it may be absent early in the illness. E. coli is the most common pathogen in acute pyelonephritis.

      For diagnosing the disease:
      1. A positive urinalysis confirms the diagnosis in patients with a compatible history and physical examination.
      2. Urine culture should be obtained in all patients to guide antibiotic therapy if the patient does not respond to initial empirical antibiotic regimens.
      3. Imaging, usually with contrast-enhanced CT scan, is not necessary unless there is no improvement in the patient’s symptoms or if there is recurrence of symptoms after initial improvement.

      Outpatient treatment is appropriate for most patients. Inpatient therapy is recommended for patients who have severe illness or in whom a complication is suspected. Oral beta-lactam antibiotics and trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole are generally inappropriate for outpatient therapy because of high resistance rates. Several antibiotic regimens can be used for inpatient treatment, including fluoroquinolones, aminoglycosides, and cephalosporins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
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  • Question 79 - A 12 year old boy is shot in the abdomen with a pellet...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old boy is shot in the abdomen with a pellet gun. He hides the injury for over a week before he is taken to his doctor. CT scan shows that the pellet is lodged in his liver's left lobe. His abdomen is soft and non-tender on examination and he seems well. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do not operate and review the patient several weeks later

      Explanation:

      Answer: Do not operate and review the patient several weeks later

      Air weapon injuries in children should be managed in the same way as any low velocity gun shot injury. Subcutaneous pellets are best removed. Urgent specialist referral is indicated for cranial, ocular, chest, abdominal, or vascular injuries as they may require emergency surgery. Cardiac injuries may be rapidly fatal. Penetrating abdominal injuries involving hollow viscera or major blood vessels need prompt exploration and repair. Intracranial air weapon pellets should be removed if possible. A pellet in lung parenchyma or muscle may be safely left in situ but there is a risk of infection. A pellet that has penetrated a joint or is associated with a fracture requires skilled orthopaedic management. A pellet lodged near a major blood vessel or nerve should ideally be removed. The possibility of intravascular embolism must be considered if the pellet is absent from a suspected entry site and there is no exit wound; numerous examples of arterial and venous embolism of an air weapon pellet in children have been described.

      In this case, the child seems well so there is no need to operate. He should be reviewed several weeks later.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
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  • Question 80 - A 30-year-old male undergoes an ileocaecal resection and end ileostomy for Crohn's disease....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male undergoes an ileocaecal resection and end ileostomy for Crohn's disease. One year later he presents with a deep painful ulcer at his stoma site. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      One of the less common but more challenging issues is ulceration of the skin or pyoderma gangrenosum (PG). Although PG was initially thought to be associated with Crohn’s or inflammatory bowel disease, it is now also known to be associated with malignancies, blood dyscrasias, diabetes, and hepatitis. Pyoderma has been described in several forms, but the ulcerative presentation usually occurs on the abdomen, perineum, and lower extremities. The lesions begin as discrete pustules that erupt and coalesce into a classic painful ulcer with a violaceous border and undermined edge. Multiple lesions are common.
      PG is a significant complication associated with prolonged pain and increased morbidity.
      As its aetiology and pathophysiology are poorly understood, multiple treatments have been employed. These include multiple topical therapies and corticosteroids given topically, intralesionally, or orally. Cyclosporin has also been tried, but Fauld and associates noted weak evidence for its use in pyoderma gangrenosum.
      Peristomal pyoderma presents challenges to successful pouching. The size of the ulceration and its proximity to the stoma affects the seal of the appliance to the skin. The goal for management is to promote healing while maintaining adequate wear time of the pouch. The painful nature of PG ulcerations influences the options for topical care. Small ulcerations can usually be treated with stoma powder or antimicrobial powder covered by a piece of hydrocolloid. A foam dressing over the ulceration is helpful if the ulcer is particularly moist. Silver dressings in sheet form or calcium alginates have also been effective. The goal of topical therapy is to use a modality that can absorb the moisture and allow for appliance adhesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Skin Lesions
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  • Question 81 - What is the pH of freshly formed saliva at ultimate stimulation? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the pH of freshly formed saliva at ultimate stimulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      Saliva has four major components: mucus (lubricant), α-amylase (enzyme that initiates digestion of starch), lingual lipase (enzyme that begins fat digestion), and a slightly alkaline electrolyte solution for moistening food. As the secretion rate of saliva increases, its osmolality increases. Moreover, the pH changes from slightly acidic (at rest) to basic (pH 8) at ultimate stimulation. This occurs due to increase of HCO3-. Amylase and mucus also increase in concentration after stimulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 82 - A 76-year-old woman is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus after a urine test revealed...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus after a urine test revealed she has glucosuria. Glucosuria may occur due to inadequate glucose reabsorption at:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Glucose is reabsorbed almost 100% via sodium–glucose transport proteins (apical) and GLUT (basolateral) in the proximal convoluted tubule. Glycosuria or glucosuria is a condition of osmotic diuresis typical in those suffering from diabetes mellitus. Due to a lack of insulin, plasma glucose levels are above normal. This leads to saturation of receptors in the kidneys and glycosuria usually at plasma glucose levels above 11 mmol/l. Rarely, glycosuria is due to an intrinsic problem with glucose reabsorption within the kidneys (such as Fanconi syndrome), producing a condition termed renal glycosuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 83 - An 18 year old male is given a total of 6 litres of...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old male is given a total of 6 litres of 0.9% sodium chloride solution, over 24 hours after having an elective right hemicolectomy. Which of the following complications may develop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperchloremic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Answer: Hyperchloremic acidosis

      Hyperchloremic acidosis is a form of metabolic acidosis associated with a normal anion gap, a decrease in plasma bicarbonate concentration, and an increase in plasma chloride concentration. In general, the cause of a hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis is a loss of base, either a gastrointestinal loss or a renal loss.

      1) Gastrointestinal loss of bicarbonate (HCO3-)
      -Severe diarrhoea (vomiting will tend to cause hypochloraemic alkalosis)
      -Pancreatic fistula with loss of bicarbonate rich pancreatic fluid
      -Nasojejunal tube losses in the context of small bowel obstruction and loss of alkaline proximal small bowel secretions
      -Chronic laxative abuse
      2) Renal causes
      -Proximal renal tubular acidosis with failure of (HCO3-) resorption
      -Distal renal tubular acidosis with failure of H+
      secretion
      -Long-term use of a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor such as acetazolamide
      3) Other causes
      -Ingestion of ammonium chloride, hydrochloric acid, or other acidifying salts
      -The treatment and recovery phases of diabetic ketoacidosis
      -Volume resuscitation with 0.9% normal saline provides a chloride load, so that infusing more than 3-4L can cause acidosis
      -Hyperalimentation (i.e., total parenteral nutrition).

      This patient received 6L of 0.9% normal saline which lead to hyperchloremic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
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  • Question 84 - Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal abdominal oblique muscle

      Explanation:

      The cremasteric muscle is a thin layer of muscle composed of several fasciculi that originate from the middle of the inguinal ligament. At its point of origin the fibres are continuous with the fibres of internal oblique and sometimes with the transversus abdominis. It then passes along the lateral side of the spermatic cord and descends with it through the superficial inguinal ring on the front and sides of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 85 - A 26-year-old woman presents with right iliac fossa pain and history of some...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents with right iliac fossa pain and history of some bloodstained vaginal discharge. On examination, she has diffuse lower abdominal tenderness and is afebrile with a heart rate of 97 bpm and blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg. Considering these signs and symptoms, what should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal and pelvic USS

      Explanation:

      The history of bloodstained vaginal discharge and lower abdominal tenderness makes ectopic pregnancy a strong possibility. Therefore, a pregnancy test (for beta hCG) and abdominal and pelvic USS should be performed. If the beta HCG is high, that is an indication for intrauterine pregnancy. If it is not, then an ectopic pregnancy is likely, and surgery should be considered.

      Generally, the differential diagnosis of right iliac fossa (RIF) pain includes:
      1. Appendicitis
      2. Crohn’s disease
      3. Mesenteric adenitis
      4. Diverticulitis
      5. Meckel’s diverticulitis
      6. Perforated peptic ulcer
      7. Incarcerated right inguinal or femoral hernia
      8. Bowel perforation secondary to caecal or colon carcinoma
      9. Gynaecological causes—pelvic inflammatory disease/salpingitis/pelvic abscess/ectopic pregnancy/ovarian torsion/threatened or complete abortion
      10. Urological causes—ureteric colic/urinary tract infection/Testicular torsion
      11. Other causes—tuberculosis/typhoid/ infection with herpes zoster

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      0
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  • Question 86 - The dilator pupillae muscle is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibres. Where do the...

    Incorrect

    • The dilator pupillae muscle is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibres. Where do the postganglionic sympathetic fibres originate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior cervical ganglion

      Explanation:

      The postganglionic sympathetic axons are derived from the superior cervical ganglion and innervate the eye and lacrimal gland allowing for vasoconstriction of the iris and sclera, pupillary dilation, widening of the palpebral fissure, and a reduction in tear production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 87 - A 43 year old detective undergoes a vasectomy at the local hospital. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old detective undergoes a vasectomy at the local hospital. He is reviewed at the request of his general practitioner. On examination, he has a small rounded nodule adjacent to the vas. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sperm granuloma

      Explanation:

      A sperm granuloma is a lump of extravasated sperm that appears along the vasa deferentia or epididymides in vasectomized men.
      Sperm granulomas are rounded or irregular in shape, one millimetre to one centimetre or more, with a central mass of degenerating sperm surrounded by tissue containing blood vessels and immune system cells. Sperm granulomas can be either asymptomatic or symptomatic (i.e., either not painful or painful, respectively). If it is painful, it can be treated using over-the-counter anti-inflammatory /pain medication. If it causes unbearable discomfort, it may need to be surgically removed. However, they generally heal by themselves. Statistics suggest that between 15-40% of men may develop a granuloma post-vasectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
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  • Question 88 - Which of these structures does NOT pass posterior to the medial malleolus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these structures does NOT pass posterior to the medial malleolus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      The saphenous vein passes anterior to the medial malleolus. The structures passing posterior, from nearest to furthest include: tibial, posterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery, posterior tibial vein, posterior tibial nerve and the flexor hallucis longus tendon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 89 - A 65 year old man develops persistent pyrexia on his 2nd postoperative day....

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man develops persistent pyrexia on his 2nd postoperative day. He has undergone an open extended right hemicolectomy for carcinoma of the colonic-splenic flexure. What is the least likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ileus

      Explanation:

      Pyrexia is a very common post operative finding and can most likely result from an infection. However, it is highly unlikely to occur as a result of ileus. Anastomotic leaks are uncommon after right sided colonic surgery. In this scenario atelectasis would be the most likely underlying cause, as open extended right hemicolectomies will necessitate a long midline incision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
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  • Question 90 - A 24-year-old woman sustains a simple rib fracture resulting from a fall. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman sustains a simple rib fracture resulting from a fall. On examination, a small pneumothorax is found. What should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insertion of chest drain

      Explanation:

      For a rib fracture to cause pneumothorax, there must also be laceration to the underlying lung parenchyma. This has the risk of developing into a tension pneumothorax. Therefore, a chest drain should be inserted and the patient admitted.

      Pneumothorax is a collection of free air in the chest cavity that causes the lung to collapse. The most common cause of pneumothorax is lung laceration with air leakage. In some instances, the lung continues to leak air into the chest cavity and results in compression of the chest structures, including vessels that return blood to the heart. This is known as a tension pneumothorax and can be fatal if not treated immediately. Blunt or penetrating chest trauma that creates a flap-type defect on the surface of the lung can result in this life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
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  • Question 91 - Calculate the stroke volume in a patient admitted for coronary bypass surgery, with...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the stroke volume in a patient admitted for coronary bypass surgery, with the following parameters pre-operatively: Oxygen consumption = 300 ml/min, Arterial oxygen content = 20 ml/100 ml blood, Pulmonary arterial oxygen content = 15 ml/100 ml blood and Heart rate = 100 beats/min.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60 ml

      Explanation:

      By Fick’s principle, cardiac output can be calculated as follows: VO2 = CO × (CAO2– CVO2) where VO2= oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CAO2 = arterial oxygen content and CvO2 = mixed venous oxygen content. Thus, in the given problem, 300 ml/min = CO × (20 – 15) ml/100 ml CO = 300 × 100/5 ml/min CO = 6000 ml/min. Also, cardiac output = stroke volume × heart rate. Thus, 6000 ml/min = stroke volume × 100 beats/min. Hence, stroke volume = 6000/100 ml/min which is 60 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 92 - A 25 year old man is taken to the A&E department after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old man is taken to the A&E department after being hit in the head with a batton. He opens his eyes to pain and groans or grunts. He extends his hands at the elbow on application of painful stimulus. What is his Glasgow coma score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6

      Explanation:

      Answer: 6

      Eye Opening Response
      Spontaneous–open with blinking at baseline – 4 points
      Opens to verbal command, speech, or shout – 3 points
      Opens to pain, not applied to face – 2 point
      None – 1 point

      Verbal Response
      Oriented – 5 points
      Confused conversation, but able to answer questions – 4 points
      Inappropriate responses, words discernible – 3 points
      Incomprehensible speech – 2 points
      None – 1 point

      Motor Response
      Obeys commands for movement – 6 points
      Purposeful movement to painful stimulus – 5 points
      Withdraws from pain – 4 points
      Abnormal (spastic) flexion, decorticate posture – 3 points
      Extensor (rigid) response, decerebrate posture – 2 points
      None – 1 point

      He opens his eyes to pain and groans or grunts. He extends his hands at the elbow on application of painful stimulus. This gives him a Glasgow score of 6: eye opening response of 2, verbal response 2 and motor response 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
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  • Question 93 - Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer test' is positive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      The anterior drawer test is an important orthopaedic test that is used to test weakness of the anterior cruciate ligament. The test is done by having the patient sit in a supine position with his/her knees flexed at 90 degrees. An examiner stabilises the patients feet and softly pulls or pushes on the proximal tibia. The test is positive if there is translational movement of the tibia in relation to the femur, indicating a weakened anterior cruciate ligament. The anterior cruciate ligament prevents the tibia from sliding out in front of the femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 94 - In the case of an injury to the sub sartorial canal, which of...

    Incorrect

    • In the case of an injury to the sub sartorial canal, which of the following structures is most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nerve to vastus medialis

      Explanation:

      The adductor canal (sub sartorial canal) is situated in the middle third of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 95 - The parasympathetic fibres of the oculomotor nerve was impinged due to a growing...

    Incorrect

    • The parasympathetic fibres of the oculomotor nerve was impinged due to a growing tumour. The function of which of the following structures will be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciliary muscle

      Explanation:

      The oculomotor nerve is the third cranial nerve (CNIII). It offers motor and parasympathetic innervation to many of the ocular structures. The motor fibres innervate a number of the extraocular muscles. While the parasympathetic fibres supply the sphincter pupillae and the ciliary muscles of the eye, and the sympathetic fibres innervates the superior tarsal muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 96 - A 76 year old man who presented with lower back pain is diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 76 year old man who presented with lower back pain is diagnosed with prostatic carcinoma that has metastasized to his lumber spine. Which of the following markers is characteristically elevated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PSA

      Explanation:

      Spread of prostatic carcinoma is common to the lumbar spine and pelvis. This results in osteoblastic metastases that will present as lower back pain with increased alkaline phosphatase, prostatic acid phosphates and PSA. PSA is more specific and a PSA > 10 ng/ml for any age is worrisome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A patient is diagnosed with a tumour of the parotid gland. During surgical...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is diagnosed with a tumour of the parotid gland. During surgical removal of the gland, which artery is vulnerable to injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery is a major artery of the head and neck. It arises from the common carotid artery when it splits into the external and internal carotid artery. It supplies blood to the face and neck. The external carotid artery begins opposite the upper border of the thyroid cartilage and, taking a slightly curved course, passes upward and forward and then inclines backward to the space behind the neck of the mandible, where it divides into the superficial temporal and internal maxillary arteries. It rapidly diminishes in size in its course up the neck, owing to the number and large size of the branches given off from it. At its origin, this artery is more superficial and placed nearer the midline than the internal carotid and is contained within the carotid triangle. The external carotid artery is covered by the skin, superficial fascia, platysma, deep fascia and anterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid. It is crossed by the hypoglossal nerve, by the lingual, ranine, common facial and superior thyroid veins; and by the digastric and stylohyoid; higher up it passes deeply into the substance of the parotid gland, where it lies deep to the facial nerve and the junction of the temporal and internal maxillary veins. It is here that it is in danger during surgery of the parotid gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 98 - A 56 year old man, on his 8th day following a left hemicolectomy,...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old man, on his 8th day following a left hemicolectomy, complains of swinging pyrexia over the past 48 hours. Clinical examination is significant for an ileus. Which of the following investigations would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal CT scan with IV contrast

      Explanation:

      Abdominal CT with IV contrast would be carried out in this case and this presentation has most likely resulted due to an anastomotic leak with abscess formation which is a common complication following surgery. This can occur in any of the branches and anticipating the likely complication and appropriate avoidance will minimize their occurrence. Detailed imaging is required to allow accurate diagnosis and further planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      0
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  • Question 99 - A 42-year-old woman is admitted with sepsis and right flank pain. Twenty-four hours...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is admitted with sepsis and right flank pain. Twenty-four hours ago, she was started on trimethoprim, by the GP, for a urinary tract infection (UTI).Which of the following organisms is the most likely causative agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: E. coli

      Explanation:

      Ascending infection of the urinary tract is most commonly caused by Escherichia coli (E.coli). Other organisms may be accountable. However, these are less common.

      E. coli are gram-negative rods. They have a wide range of subtypes and some are normal gut commensals. Most varieties of E. coli are harmless or cause relatively brief diarrhoea. But a few nasty strains, such as E. coli O157:H7, can cause severe abdominal cramps, bloody diarrhoea, and vomiting. Some strains of E. coli are also resistant to a large number of antibiotics used to treat gram-negative infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
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  • Question 100 - A 55-years-old man presented to the emergency department complaining of a squeezing sensation...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-years-old man presented to the emergency department complaining of a squeezing sensation in his chest that has spread to his neck with associated worsening shortness of breath. Which of these laboratory tests would you ask for in this patient:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Creatine kinase-MB

      Explanation:

      Creatine kinase-MB is a test that usually is ordered when the patient has chest pain as a cardiac marker. When a heart attack is suspected and a troponin test (which is more specific for heart damage), is not available CK-MB is ordered. There are 3 forms of CK: CK-MM, CK-BB and CK-MB. CK-MB is commonly found in heart tissue, therefore injured heart muscle cells release CK-MB into the blood. Elevated CK-MB levels indicate that it is probable that a person has recently had a heart attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Sciences (27/50) 54%
Pathology (11/18) 61%
Peri-operative Care (3/3) 100%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (11/12) 92%
Generic Surgical Topics (12/14) 86%
Paediatric Surgery (0/1) 0%
Physiology (7/12) 58%
Anatomy (9/20) 45%
Oncology (2/2) 100%
The Abdomen (1/2) 50%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (3/4) 75%
Post-operative Management And Critical Care (3/3) 100%
Urology (2/2) 100%
Orthopaedics (4/4) 100%
Breast And Endocrine Surgery (2/2) 100%
Colorectal Surgery (1/1) 100%
Surgical Disorders Of The Brain (1/1) 100%
Vascular (1/1) 100%
Passmed