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  • Question 1 - A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line. Thus, there might be an increase in blood flow downward to the systemic venous system via anastomoses with the inferior rectal vein. This is a tributary of?

      Your Answer: Internal pudendal vein

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectal vein drains into the internal pudendal vein. In addition the external iliac vein is one of the two branches of the common iliac vein however the internal iliac vein and it’s tributaries (including the pudendal vein) are much more important in draining the pelvic structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A Jewish man was diagnosed with haemophilia C. Which of the following factors...

    Correct

    • A Jewish man was diagnosed with haemophilia C. Which of the following factors is deficient in this form of haemophilia?

      Your Answer: Factor XI

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia C, also known as plasma thromboplastin antecedent (PTA) deficiency or Rosenthal syndrome, is a condition caused by the deficiency of the coagulation factor XI. The condition is rare and it is usually found in Ashkenazi Jews.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27 year-old male patient was admitted to the hospital due to recurrent...

    Correct

    • A 27 year-old male patient was admitted to the hospital due to recurrent fever for the past 2 weeks. The patient claimed that he is an intravenous drug user. Following work up, the patient was diagnosed with infective endocarditis. Which is the most likely organism responsible for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Acute bacterial endocarditis is a fulminant illness lasting over days to weeks (<2weeks). It is most likely due to Staphylococcus aureus especially in intravenous drug abusers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35 year old woman with dysphagia undergoes oesophageal manometry. She is found...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old woman with dysphagia undergoes oesophageal manometry. She is found to have a hypertensive lower oesophageal sphincter that does not completely relax on swallowing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Achalasia is a failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) to relax that is caused by the degeneration of inhibitory neurons within the oesophageal wall. It is classified as either primary (idiopathic) or secondary (in the context of another disease). In patients with achalasia, the chief complaint is dysphagia to both solids and liquids, although regurgitation, retrosternal pain, and weight loss may also occur. Upper endoscopy, barium esophagram, and oesophageal manometry play complementary roles in the diagnosis of achalasia. While upper endoscopy and/or barium esophagram are often obtained initially, manometry usually confirms the diagnosis, and upper endoscopy is indicated to rule out a malignant underlying cause. In good surgical candidates, achalasia is usually treated with pneumatic dilation or myotomy. In most other cases, an injection of botulinum toxin is attempted. If these measures fail to provide relief, medical therapy (e.g., nifedipine) is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 20-year old involved in a brawl was stabbed in the anterior chest...

    Correct

    • A 20-year old involved in a brawl was stabbed in the anterior chest in a structure that is in close proximity to where the first rib articulates with the sternum. What is the structure that was most likely injured?

      Your Answer: Sternoclavicular joint

      Explanation:

      The first rib articulates with the sternum right below the sternoclavicular joint.
      The sternal angle articulates with the costal cartilage of the second rib.
      The nipple is found between the fourth and the fifth ribs, in the fourth intercostal space.
      The xiphoid process is located right below the point of articulation of the costal cartilage of rib 7 with the sternum.
      The root of the lung is the part of the lung where neurovascular structures enter and leave the lung.
      Acromioclavicular joint is the point of articulation between the acromion process and the clavicle, near the shoulder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which tumour marker is associated with medullary carcinoma of thyroid? ...

    Correct

    • Which tumour marker is associated with medullary carcinoma of thyroid?

      Your Answer: Calcitonin

      Explanation:

      Medullary carcinoma of thyroid accounts for 3% of thyroid cancers. It arises from the parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid gland that produce calcitonin. It is often familial and caused by mutation of ret proto-oncogene, but can occasionally be sporadic. The familial cases can also occur as part of MEN syndromes IIA and IIB. The high calcitonin leads to down-regulation of the receptors, which does not affect the calcium levels significantly. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid shows characteristic amyloid deposits that stain positively with Congo red. The initial presentation consists of an asymptomatic thyroid nodule. Many cases are diagnosed due to routine screening of relatives of patients with MEN IIA and IIB. Medullary carcinoma can also cause ectopic production of other hormones/peptides such as adrenocorticotrophic hormone, vasoactive intestinal polypeptide, kallikreins and serotonin.
      Metastasis from medullary carcinoma spread via the lymphatics to cervical and mediastinal nodes, and can also affect the liver, lungs and bone. Diagnosis is by raised serum calcitonin levels. A provocative test with calcium (15 mg/kg intravenously over 4 hours) also aids in diagnosis by leading to excessive secretion of calcitonin. X-ray might also show dense, conglomerate calcification.
      CA-125 is frequently elevated in ovarian carcinomas. CA 15-3 is often associated with breast carcinomas. Alpha-fetoprotein is seen raised in hepatomas and gonadal tumours. Elevated HCG is associated with normal pregnancies, gonadal tumours, and choriocarcinomas. Thyroglobulin is used for surveillance in papillary carcinoma of thyroid. CA 19-9 is used in the management of pancreatic cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 62-year-old man presented with a persistent cough and weight loss. Chest x-ray...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presented with a persistent cough and weight loss. Chest x-ray demonstrated widespread nodular opacities. After a bronchoalveolar lavage, atypical cells were detected. Which is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchioalveolar carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma (BAC) is a term used to define a particular subtype of adenocarcinoma which develops in cells near the alveoli, in the outer regions of the lungs. On a chest X-ray it can appear as a single peripheral spot or as scattered spots throughout the lungs. Symptoms include cough, haemoptysis, chest pain, dyspnoea and loss of weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following diseases can cause paraesthesia along the distribution of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following diseases can cause paraesthesia along the distribution of the median nerve of the hand, especially after activities which require flexion and extension of the wrist?

      Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carpal tunnel syndrome tends to occur in women between the ages of 30-50. There are many risk factors, including diabetes, hypothyroidism, obesity, pregnancy, and repetitive wrist work. Symptoms include pain in the hand and wrist, tingling, and numbness distributed along the median nerve (the palmar side of the thumb, the index and middle fingers, and the radial half of the ring finger), which worsens at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 68 year old woman has undergone surgical repair of her femoral hernia....

    Correct

    • A 68 year old woman has undergone surgical repair of her femoral hernia. The surgeon used bipolar diathermy for haemostasis. Which of the following options would be regarded as the greatest risk with the usage of bipolar diathermy?

      Your Answer: Fires when used near alcoholic skin preparations that have pooled

      Explanation:

      An operating room fire is rare but a well-known hazard that can result in significant patient morbidity. When it comes to the disposal of surgical spirits, the SPC for chlorhexidine states: ‘The solution is flammable. The risk of surgical fires due to spirit-based skin preparation fluid should be actively reduced. Data from the US show that up to 650 surgical fires occur each year, with up to 5% causing death or serious harm.

      Diathermy use electric currents to produce local heat and thereby facilitate haemostasis or surgical dissection. There are two major types of diathermy:
      1. Monopolar – current flows through a handheld device, from the tip of the device into the patient. The earth electrode is located some distance away.
      2. Bipolar – current flows from one electrode to another however, both electrodes are usually contained within the same device e.g. a pair of forceps. The result is that heating is localised to the area between the two electrodes and surrounding tissue damage is minimised. However this may create a spark and ignite flammable solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient with this type of tumour is advised to follow up regularly...

    Correct

    • A patient with this type of tumour is advised to follow up regularly for monitoring of tumour size as there is a strong correlation with malignant potential and tumour size. Which of the following is the most likely tumour in this patient?

      Your Answer: Renal adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      The distinction between a benign renal adenoma and renal adenocarcinoma is commonly made on the basis of size. Tumours less than 2 cm in size rarely become malignant as opposed to those greater than 3 cm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Calculate the resistance of the artery if the pressure at one end is...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the resistance of the artery if the pressure at one end is 60 mmHg, pressure at the other end is 20 mm Hg and the flow rate in the artery is 200 ml/min.

      Your Answer: 0.5

      Correct Answer: 0.2

      Explanation:

      Flow in any vessel = Effective perfusion pressure divided by resistance, where effective perfusion pressure is the mean intraluminal pressure at the arterial end minus the mean pressure at the venous end. Thus, in the given problem, resistance = (60 − 20)/200 = 0.2 mmHg/ml per min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Biopsy of a neoplastic mass was performed. Histologic examination of the specimen showed...

    Correct

    • Biopsy of a neoplastic mass was performed. Histologic examination of the specimen showed spindle shaped cells with high nuclear/cytoplasm ratio on immunohisto chemical staining. These pleomorphic cells were vimentin positive, cytokeratin negative and cd45 negative. This type of neoplasm is most commonly found in which patient?

      Your Answer: A 15-year-old boy with a mass in the left femur and lung metastases

      Explanation:

      A histology report that describes spindle shaped cells which are vimentin positive suggests osteosarcoma and hematogenous spread to the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In a neurological exam on a robbery with violence victim, it was discovered...

    Correct

    • In a neurological exam on a robbery with violence victim, it was discovered that the victim had lost sense of touch to the skin over her cheek and chin (maxilla and mandible region). Where are the cell bodies of the nerve that is responsible for touch sensations of this region located?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve V ganglion

      Explanation:

      The skin over the cheek and the maxilla are innervated by the trigeminal nerve (CN V). The trigeminal nerve has three major branches and it is the largest cranial nerve. The three branches of the trigeminal nerve are; the ophthalmic nerve, the maxillary nerve and the mandibular nerve. The trigeminal nerves ganglion is a sensory nerve ganglion know as the trigeminal ganglion (also referred to as the Gasser’s ganglion or the semilunar ganglion). It is contained in the dura matter in a cavity known as the Meckel’s cave, which covers the trigeminal impression near the apex of the petrous part of the temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident. A FAST scan...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident. A FAST scan in the emergency department shows free intrabdominal fluid. A laparotomy is performed during which there is evidence of small liver laceration that has stopped bleeding and a tear to the inferior pole of the spleen. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Attempt measures to conserve the spleen

      Explanation:

      Spleen injuries are among the most frequent trauma-related injuries. At present, they are classified according to the anatomy of the injury. The optimal treatment strategy, however, should take into consideration the hemodynamic status, the anatomic derangement, and the associated injuries. The management of splenic trauma patients aims to restore the homeostasis and the normal physiopathology especially considering the modern tools for bleeding management.

      The trend in the management of splenic injury continues to favour nonoperative or conservative management. This varies from institution to institution but usually includes patients with stable hemodynamic signs, stable haemoglobin levels over 12-48 hours, minimal transfusion requirements (2 U or less), CT scan injury scale grade of 1 or 2 without a blush, and patients younger than 55 years.
      Surgical therapy is usually reserved for patients with signs of ongoing bleeding or hemodynamic instability. In some institutions, CT scan–assessed grade V splenic injuries with stable vitals may be observed closely without operative intervention, but most patients with these injuries will undergo exploratory laparotomy for more precise staging, repair, or removal.

      A retrospective analysis by Scarborough et al compared the effectiveness of nonoperative management with immediate splenectomy for adult patients with grade IV or V blunt splenic injury. The study found that both approaches had similar rates of in-hospital mortality (11.5% in the splenectomy group vs 10.0%), however, there was a higher incidence of infectious complications in the immediate splenectomy group. The rate of failure in the nonoperative management was 20.1% and symptoms of a bleeding disorder, the need for an early blood transfusion, and grade V injury were all early predictors of nonoperative management failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      126.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 3-year-old boy is brought to the A&E department following a trauma. He...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy is brought to the A&E department following a trauma. He is haemodynamically unstable. Initial attempts at intravenous access are proving unsuccessful.What should be the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Insert an intraosseous infusion system

      Explanation:

      Gaining venous access in small children is challenging most of the times especially in cases of trauma. Therefore, intraosseous infusions should be preferred in this setting. Broviac lines are long-term IV access systems with narrow lumens and, hence, would be unsuitable.

      Intraosseous access is typically undertaken at the anteromedial aspect of the proximal tibia and provides access to the marrow cavity and circulatory system. Although traditionally preferred in paediatric practice, it may be used in adults as well, and a wide range of fluids can be infused using this approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient is suspected to have Blastomyces dermatidis infection. The patient contracted the...

    Correct

    • A patient is suspected to have Blastomyces dermatidis infection. The patient contracted the disease most likely through which port of entry?

      Your Answer: Respiratory tract

      Explanation:

      Blastomycosis disease is a fungal infection acquired through inhalation of the spores. It caused by the organism Blastomyces dermatitidis and manifests as a primary lung infection in about 70% of cases. The onset is relatively slow and symptoms are suggestive of pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A TRUE statement regarding abolition of the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion is...

    Incorrect

    • A TRUE statement regarding abolition of the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion is that it:

      Your Answer: Will mainly affect HCO3 – secretion

      Correct Answer: Will result after vagotomy

      Explanation:

      Recognition and integration of the sight, smell and taste of food triggers the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion, causing an increase in pancreatic HCO3- and enzyme secretion. The degree of enzyme secretion in this phase is about 50% of the maximal response seen with exogenous CCK and secretin. The vagus nerve regulates the secretion through the cholinergic fibres innervating the acinar cells of the pancreas, and through peptidergic nerve fibres, which innervate ductal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      156.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In which of the following conditions will the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve shift to...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following conditions will the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve shift to the right?

      Your Answer: Decrease in temperature

      Correct Answer: Exercise

      Explanation:

      The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve plots saturated haemoglobin against the oxygen tension and is usually a sigmoid plot. Each molecule of haemoglobin can bind to four molecules of oxygen reversibly. Factors that can influence the binding include: pH, concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG), temperature, type of haemoglobin molecules, and presence of toxins, especially carbon monoxide. Shape of the curve is due to interaction of bound oxygen molecules with the incoming molecules. The binding of first molecule is difficult, with easier binding of the second and third molecule and increase in difficulty with the fourth molecule – partly as a result of crowding and partly as a natural tendency of oxygen to dissociate. Left shift of curve indicates haemoglobin’s increased affinity for oxygen (seen at lungs). Right shift indicates decreased affinity and is seen with
      increase in body temperature, hydrogen ions, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (DPG), carbon dioxide concentration and exercise. Under normal resting conditions in a healthy individual, the normal position of the curve is at a pH of 7.4. A shift in the position of the curve with a change in pH is called the Bohr effect. Left shift occurs in acute alkalosis, decrease in p(CO2), decrease in temperature and decrease in 2,3-DPG. The fetal haemoglobin curve is to the left of the adult haemoglobin to allow for oxygen diffusion across the placenta. The curve for myoglobin is even further to the left. Carbon monoxide has a much higher affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen does. Thus, carbon monoxide poisoning leads to hypoxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 5 year old boy is taken to the family doctor following a...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old boy is taken to the family doctor following a history of difficult, painful defecation with bright red rectal bleeding. Which of the following would be the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      An anal fissure is a painful linear tear or crack in the distal anal canal, which, in the short term, usually involves only the epithelium and, in the long term, involves the full thickness of the anal mucosa. Anal fissures develop with equal frequency in both sexes; they tend to occur in younger and middle-aged persons.

      Treatment should include stool softeners and lifestyle advice. Failure of medical therapy is an indication for surgical therapy. Controversy mostly involves continued efforts to find a medical therapy for anal fissure that is as successful as the surgical therapy for the condition.
      Typically, the patient reports severe pain during a bowel movement, with the pain lasting several minutes to hours afterward. The pain recurs with every bowel movement, and the patient commonly becomes afraid or unwilling to have a bowel movement, leading to a cycle of worsening constipation, harder stools, and more anal pain. Approximately 70% of patients note bright-red blood on the toilet paper or stool. Occasionally, a few drops may fall in the toilet bowl, but significant bleeding does not usually occur with an anal fissure.

      Children with intussceception usually present at a relatively young age with colicky abdominal pain, together with a mass on clinical examination. The often cited red current jelly type stool is a rare but classical feature.

      Juvenile polyps may occur as part of the familial polyposis coli syndromes. The lesions, which are hamartomas, are often cherry red if they protrude externally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in...

    Incorrect

    • The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in the neck?

      Your Answer: Posterior scalene

      Correct Answer: Anterior scalene

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerve originates in the neck between C3-C5, mostly C4 spinal root. It enters the thoracic cavity past the heart and lungs to the diaphragm. In the neck, this nerve begins at the lateral border of the anterior scalene muscle, its course then continues inferiorly on the anterior aspect of the anterior scalene muscle as it moves towards the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 78-year-old diabetic man undergoes renal function tests. Which of the following substances...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old diabetic man undergoes renal function tests. Which of the following substances will be the most accurate for measuring glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

      Your Answer: Inulin

      Explanation:

      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time. Clinically, this is often measured to determine renal function. Inulin was originally used as it is not reabsorbed by the kidney after glomerular filtration, therefore its rate of excretion is directly proportional to the rate of filtration of water and solutes across the glomerular filter. However, in clinical practice, creatinine clearance is used to measure GFR. Creatinine is an endogenous molecule, synthesised in the body, that is freely filtered by the glomerulus (but also secreted by the renal tubules in very small amounts). Creatinine clearance exceeds GFR due to creatinine secretion, and is therefore a close approximation of the GFR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 2-day-old baby presents with recurrent episodes of choking and cyanotic episodes. There...

    Correct

    • A 2-day-old baby presents with recurrent episodes of choking and cyanotic episodes. There is a history of polyhydramnios. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal atresia

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia encompasses a group of congenital anomalies comprising an interruption of the continuity of the oesophagus combined with or without a persistent communication with the trachea.
      The diagnosis of oesophageal atresia may be suspected prenatally by the finding of a small or absent fetal stomach bubble on an ultrasound scan performed after the 18th week of gestation. Overall the sensitivity of ultrasonography is 42% but in combination with polyhydramnios, the positive predictive value is 56%. Polyhydramnios alone is a poor indicator of oesophageal atresia (1% incidence).
      The newborn infant of a mother with polyhydramnios should always have a nasogastric tube passed soon after delivery to exclude oesophageal atresia. Infants with oesophageal atresia are unable to swallow saliva and are noted to have excessive salivation requiring repeated suctioning. At this stage, and certainly, before the first feed, a stiff wide-bore (10–12 French gauge) catheter should be passed through the mouth into the oesophagus. In oesophageal atresia, the catheter will not pass beyond 9–10 cm from the lower alveolar ridge. A plain X-ray of the chest and abdomen will show the tip of the catheter arrested in the superior mediastinum (T 2–4) while gas in the stomach and intestine signifies the presence of a distal tracheoesophageal fistula. The absence of gastrointestinal gas is indicative of isolated atresia. A fine bore catheter may curl up in the upper pouch giving the false impression of an intact oesophagus or rarely it may pass through the trachea and proceed distally into the oesophagus through the fistula. The X-ray may reveal additional anomalies such as a double bubble appearance of duodenal atresia, vertebral or rib abnormalities.
      Delaying the diagnosis until the infant presents with coughing and choking during the first feed is no longer acceptable in modern paediatric practice.

      Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater.

      Pyloric stenosis, also known as infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (IHPS), is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infancy. IHPS occurs secondary to hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the muscular layers of the pylorus, causing a functional gastric outlet obstruction.
      Classically, the infant with pyloric stenosis has nonbilious vomiting or regurgitation, which may become projectile (in as many as 70% of cases), after which the infant is still hungry.
      Emesis may be intermittent initially or occur after each feeding.
      Emesis should not be bilious as the obstruction is proximal to the common bile duct. The emesis may become brown or coffee colour due to blood secondary to gastritis or a Mallory-Weiss tear at the gastroesophageal junction.
      As the obstruction becomes more severe, the infant begins to show signs of dehydration and malnutrition, such as poor weight gain, weight loss, marasmus, decreased urinary output, lethargy, and shock.
      The infant may develop jaundice, which is corrected upon correction of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 44 year old actor presents with an attack of mild acute pancreatitis....

    Correct

    • A 44 year old actor presents with an attack of mild acute pancreatitis. Imaging identifies gallstones but a normal calibre bile duct, and a peripancreatic fluid collection. Which management option would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Cholecystectomy once the attack has settled

      Explanation:

      Pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas with variable involvement of regional tissues or remote organ systems. Acute pancreatitis (AP) is characterized by severe pain in the upper abdomen and elevation of pancreatic enzymes in the blood. In the majority of patients,
      Biliary pancreatitis should always be treated eventually with a cholecystectomy after the process has subsided.
      Feeding should be introduced enterally as the patient’s anorexia and pain resolves.
      The use of nasogastric aspiration offers no clear advantage in patients with mild AP, but is beneficial in patients with profound pain, severe disease, paralytic ileus, and intractable vomiting.
      AP is a mild, self-limiting disease that resolves spontaneously without complications. Patients can be initiated on a low-fat diet initially and need not invariably start their dietary advancement using a clear liquid diet. Systematic reviews and meta-analyses have shown that administration of enteral nutrition may reduce mortality and infectious complications compared with parenteral nutrition. Although the ideal timing to initiate enteral feeding remains undetermined, administration within 48 hours appears to be safe and tolerated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the most likely cause of bilateral gynaecomastia in a 55-year old...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely cause of bilateral gynaecomastia in a 55-year old male?

      Your Answer: Hepatic failure

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophy of breast tissue in males is known as gynaecomastia. It is normally due to proliferation of stroma and not of mammary ducts. Physiological gynaecomastia can occur during puberty and is often transient, bilateral, symmetrical and possibly tender. Gynaecomastia can occur during old age too, but is usually unilateral. Other causes include hepatic or renal failure, endocrinological disorders, drugs (anabolic steroids, antineoplastic drugs, calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, digitalis, oestrogens, isoniazid, ketoconazole, methadone, metronidazole, reserpine, spironolactone, theophylline), and marijuana. It should not be confused with malignancy which is often hard, asymmetric and fixed to the dermis or fascia. Treatment if indicated, includes withdrawal of the causative factor or treatment of the underlying disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An ECG of a 30 year old woman revealed low voltage QRS complexes....

    Correct

    • An ECG of a 30 year old woman revealed low voltage QRS complexes. This patient is most probably suffering from?

      Your Answer: Pericardial effusion

      Explanation:

      The QRS complex is associated with current that results in the contraction of both the ventricles. As ventricles have more muscle mass than the atria, they result in a greater deflection on the ECG. The normal duration of a QRS complex is 10s. A wide and deep Q wave depicts myocardial infarction. Abnormalities in the QRS complex maybe indicative of a bundle block, ventricular tachycardia or hypertrophy of the ventricles. Low voltage QRS complexes are characteristic of pericarditis or a pericardial effusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was...

    Correct

    • After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was a known case of diabetic nephropathy had persistent metabolic acidosis. The patient appeared well perfused, with normal vital signs and normal fluid balance. Investigations revealed:Sodium = 132 mmol/l, Potassium = 6.6 mmol/l, Creatinine = 185 μmol/l (2.16 mg/dl), Chloride = 109 μmol/l, 8am cortisol = 500 nmol/l (18 μg/dl), pH = 7.29, p(CO2) = 27 mmHg, p(O2) = 107 mmHg, standard bicarbonate = 12 mmol/l. What is the likely causes of his acidosis?

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis here is due to low bicarbonate. The low p(CO2) is seen in compensation. The anion gap is normal, ruling out intra-abdominal ischaemia (which leads to metabolic acidosis). If it was a gastrointestinal aetiology, low potassium would be seen. The history of diabetic nephropathy predisposes to renal tubular acidosis. Type 4 (hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism) is associated with high potassium and is found in diabetic and hypertensive renal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 30 year old female suffered from mismatched transfusion induced haemolysis. Which substance...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old female suffered from mismatched transfusion induced haemolysis. Which substance will be raised in the plasma of this patient?

      Your Answer: Bilirubin

      Explanation:

      Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is formed due to the break down of RBCs. Haemolysis results in haemoglobin that is broken down into a haem portion and globin which is converted into amino acids and used again. Haem is converted into unconjugated bilirubin in the macrophages and shunted to the liver. In the liver it is conjugated with glucuronic acid making it water soluble and thus excreted in the urine. Its normal levels are from 0.2-1 mg/dl. Increased bilirubin causes jaundice and yellowish discoloration of the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 43 year old female with thyrotoxicosis is referred to the endocrinology clinic...

    Correct

    • A 43 year old female with thyrotoxicosis is referred to the endocrinology clinic because she was poorly controlled on carbimazole and has received orbital radiotherapy for severe proptosis. She had improved clinically but she relapsed on stopping her carbimazole. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Total thyroidectomy

      Explanation:

      Due to this patient having a relapse after using carbimazole following orbital radiotherapy for severe proptosis., total thyroidectomy is the treatment of choice.
      Thyroidectomy is the definitive surgical management for Graves thyrotoxicosis and usually requires a short course of pre-treatment with thionamides or inorganic iodine to achieve euthyroid state; this reduces operative complications and thyroid vascularity. Although subtotal thyroidectomy was once practiced, most surgeons now recommend complete thyroidectomy to minimize chances of relapse.

      Radioactive iodine (I-131) is widely used to treat the thyrotoxicosis of Graves’ disease, but, despite its demonstrable efficacy and safety, there have long been concerns about its possible adverse effect on thyroid eye disease. A study showed that after radioiodine treatment 15% of patients developed new or worsened ophthalmopathy, whereas this occurred in only 3% of patients treated with methimazole and in none treated with radioiodine plus prednisone. In the radioiodine group 24% of those with pre-existing ophthalmopathy suffered an exacerbation, whereas only 8% of patients without eye disease at baseline developed it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 64 year old man who has undergone a total hip replacement is...

    Correct

    • A 64 year old man who has undergone a total hip replacement is given an infusion of packed red cells. Which of the following adverse effects is most likely to occur as a result of this treatment?

      Your Answer: Pyrexia

      Explanation:

      Acute transfusion reactions present as adverse signs or symptoms during or within 24 hours of a blood transfusion. The most frequent reactions are fever, chills, pruritus, or urticaria, which typically resolve promptly without specific treatment or complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 39 year old woman returns from a holiday trip in Nepal and...

    Correct

    • A 39 year old woman returns from a holiday trip in Nepal and presents to her doctor with painless jaundice. On examination there is no organomegaly and she is not deeply jaundiced. What is most likely cause of her illness?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A infection

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A is a viral liver disease that can cause mild to severe illness. The hepatitis A virus (HAV) is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food and water or through direct contact with an infectious person.
      The risk of hepatitis A infection is associated with a lack of safe water, and poor sanitation and hygiene (such as dirty hands). Unlike hepatitis B and C, hepatitis A does not cause chronic liver disease and is rarely fatal, but it can cause debilitating symptoms and fulminant hepatitis (acute liver failure), which is often fatal.
      Prodrome
      In the prodrome, patients may have mild flulike symptoms of anorexia, nausea and vomiting, fatigue, malaise, low-grade fever (usually < 39.5°C), myalgia, and mild headache. Smokers often lose their taste for tobacco, like persons presenting with appendicitis. Icteric phase
      In the icteric phase, dark urine appears first (bilirubinuria). Pale stool soon follows, although this is not universal. Jaundice occurs in most (70%-85%) adults with acute HAV infection; it is less likely in children and is uncommon in infants. The degree of icterus also increases with age. Abdominal pain occurs in approximately 40% of patients. Itching (pruritus), although less common than jaundice, is generally accompanied by jaundice.

      Arthralgias and skin rash, although also associated with acute HAV infection, are less frequent than the above symptoms. Rash more often occurs on the lower limbs and may have a vasculitic appearance.

      Relapsing hepatitis A
      Relapsing hepatitis A is an uncommon sequela of acute infection, is more common in elderly persons, and is characterized by a protracted course of symptoms of the disease and a relapse of symptoms and signs following apparent resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      6.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (3/4) 75%
Basic Sciences (16/20) 80%
Pathology (9/9) 100%
Generic Surgical Topics (5/5) 100%
Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery (1/1) 100%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (5/5) 100%
Surgical Technique And Technology (1/1) 100%
Physiology (4/7) 57%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (1/1) 100%
Peri-operative Care (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (2/2) 100%
Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery (1/1) 100%
Breast And Endocrine Surgery (1/1) 100%
Post-operative Management And Critical Care (1/1) 100%
Clinical Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed