00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 6-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with periorbital pain, ascites, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with periorbital pain, ascites, and oedema. He has no past medical history and is typically healthy, without recent illnesses. Upon examination, his serum urea is elevated and protein in his urine is ++++. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: IgA nephropathy glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Minimal change glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Overview of Different Types of Glomerulonephritis

      Glomerulonephritis is a group of kidney diseases that affect the glomeruli, the tiny blood vessels in the kidneys that filter waste and excess fluids from the blood. Here are some of the different types of glomerulonephritis:

      1. Minimal Change Glomerulonephritis: This is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children. It is caused by T-cell-mediated injury to the podocytes of the epithelial cells. The diagnosis is made by electron microscopy, and treatment is with steroids.

      2. Membranous Glomerulonephritis: This is the second most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults. It can be primary or secondary, and some causes of secondary membranous glomerulonephritis include autoimmune conditions, malignancy, viral infections, and drugs. On light microscopy, the basement membrane has characteristic spikes.

      3. Mesangiocapillary Glomerulonephritis: This is associated with immune deposition in the glomerulus, thickening of the basement membrane, and activation of complement pathways leading to glomerular damage. It presents with nephrotic syndrome and is seen in both the pediatric and adult population. It is the most common glomerulonephritis associated with hepatitis C.

      4. Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis: This presents with haematuria, oedema, hypertension, fever, or acute kidney failure following an upper respiratory tract infection or pharyngitis from Streptococcus spp.

      5. IgA Nephropathy Glomerulonephritis: This is a condition associated with IgA deposition within the glomerulus, presenting with haematuria following an upper respiratory tract infection. It is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis in adults.

      Understanding the Different Types of Glomerulonephritis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      151.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Sophie is a 16-year-old who has been brought to the emergency department by...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 16-year-old who has been brought to the emergency department by her father after a fall. An X-ray of her left ankle shows a Weber A fracture. What is the most suitable course of action for treating this injury?

      Your Answer: Immobilisation in a below-knee cast

      Correct Answer: Remain weight bearing as tolerated in a CAM boot for 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Patients with minimally displaced and stable Weber A fractures may bear weight as tolerated while wearing a CAM boot. These fractures occur below the ankle syndesmosis and are considered stable, requiring immobilization in a CAM boot for six weeks. Pain relief is necessary but not the primary management for this injury. A below-knee cast is not required as the fracture is stable. Open reduction and external fixation are only necessary for unstable injuries such as Weber C fractures.

      Ankle Fractures and their Classification

      Ankle fractures are a common reason for emergency department visits. To minimize the unnecessary use of x-rays, the Ottawa ankle rules are used to aid in clinical examination. These rules state that x-rays are only necessary if there is pain in the malleolar zone and an inability to weight bear for four steps, tenderness over the distal tibia, or bone tenderness over the distal fibula. There are several classification systems for describing ankle fractures, including the Potts, Weber, and AO systems. The Weber system is the simplest and is based on the level of the fibular fracture. Type A is below the syndesmosis, type B fractures start at the level of the tibial plafond and may extend proximally to involve the syndesmosis, and type C is above the syndesmosis, which may itself be damaged. A subtype known as a Maisonneuve fracture may occur with a spiral fibular fracture that leads to disruption of the syndesmosis with widening of the ankle joint, requiring surgery.

      Management of Ankle Fractures

      The management of ankle fractures depends on the stability of the ankle joint and patient co-morbidities. Prompt reduction of all ankle fractures is necessary to relieve pressure on the overlying skin and prevent necrosis. Young patients with unstable, high velocity, or proximal injuries will usually require surgical repair, often using a compression plate. Elderly patients, even with potentially unstable injuries, usually fare better with attempts at conservative management as their thin bone does not hold metalwork well. It is important to consider the patient’s overall health and any other medical conditions when deciding on the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents...

    Correct

    • A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents to the Emergency Department with a swollen, erythematosus right leg with a 4-cm difference in circumference between the right and left leg. Routine blood tests show:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 10.1 mmol 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 120 μmol 50–120 µmol/l
      eGFR 60ml/min/1.73m2
      Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.25 mmol 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Bilirubin 7 μmol 2–17 µmol/l
      Albumin 32 g/l 35–55 g/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 32 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Aspartate transaminase (AST) 15 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 32 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 15 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Haemoglobin 78 g/l
      Males: 135–175 g/l
      Females: 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 92 fl 76–98 fl
      Platelets 302 x 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.5 x 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Which of the following should be commenced after confirmation of the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Apixaban

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidance, the first-line treatment for a confirmed proximal deep vein thrombosis is a direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban or rivaroxaban. When warfarin is used, an initial pro-coagulant state occurs, so heparin is needed for cover until the INR reaches the target therapeutic range and until day 5. Low-molecular-weight heparin is typically used with warfarin in the initial anticoagulation phase, but it can accumulate in patients with renal dysfunction. Unfractionated heparin infusion is used in these cases. For patients with normal or slightly deranged renal function, low-molecular-weight heparin can be given once per day as a subcutaneous preparation. However, warfarin is not the first-line treatment according to NICE guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      195.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 2-day old infant comes in with progressive abdominal swelling and one instance...

    Correct

    • A 2-day old infant comes in with progressive abdominal swelling and one instance of vomiting bile. The baby has not yet had a bowel movement. What aspect of the medical history would suggest the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Family history of cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Meconium ileus is a condition that affects newborns and can cause blockage in the intestines due to thick, sticky meconium. It is commonly associated with cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that affects the production of mucous in the body. Other conditions that may be mistaken for meconium ileus include Hirschsprung’s disease and meconium plug syndrome. The likelihood of a baby developing meconium ileus is not influenced by factors such as conception through IVF, family history of inflammatory bowel disease or coeliac, or delivery by caesarian section.

      Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but there are some common features that are often present. In the neonatal period, around 20% of infants with cystic fibrosis may experience meconium ileus, which is a blockage in the intestine caused by thick, sticky mucous. Prolonged jaundice may also occur, but less commonly. Recurrent chest infections are a common symptom, affecting around 40% of patients. Malabsorption is another common feature, with around 30% of patients experiencing steatorrhoea (excessive fat in the stool) and failure to thrive. Liver disease may also occur in around 10% of patients.

      It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed with cystic fibrosis during newborn screening or early childhood, around 5% of patients are not diagnosed until after the age of 18. Other features of cystic fibrosis may include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse (due to bulky stools), nasal polyps, male infertility, and female subfertility. Overall, the symptoms and characteristics of cystic fibrosis can vary widely, but early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the condition and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old woman undergoes a right hemicolectomy for colon cancer and four days...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman undergoes a right hemicolectomy for colon cancer and four days later presents with vomiting, a distended abdomen, and absent bowel sounds. Her blood results show a CRP of 124 mg/l and a WBC count of 5.2 * 109/l. Nursing notes reveal no bowel movements since surgery. What is the probable cause of her clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Paralytic ileus

      Explanation:

      Simple constipation is unlikely in this patient due to the presence of vomiting and absent bowel sounds, which suggests paralytic ileus, especially so soon after surgery. Additionally, constipation alone would not explain all of the patient’s symptoms and signs. As the patient underwent a right hemicolectomy, the caecum would have been removed, making caecal volvulus an unlikely diagnosis. The raised CRP is a normal response to surgery. While peritonitis is a possibility, it would typically present with severe abdominal pain, tenderness, guarding, and more significantly elevated inflammatory markers and fever. Hirschsprung’s disease, a congenital condition, is highly unlikely to present for the first time in a 67-year-old patient.

      Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by a reduction in bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.

      The management of postoperative ileus typically involves starting with nil-by-mouth and gradually progressing to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemia, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. It is important to monitor the patient closely and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      265.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of 'abnormal pupils'. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of 'abnormal pupils'. Upon examination, it is observed that she has anisocoria, which is more noticeable in bright light, with her left pupil appearing smaller than her right. What is the most probable anatomical site that has been affected?

      Your Answer: Left ciliary ganglion

      Correct Answer: Right ciliary ganglion

      Explanation:

      When an individual’s anisocoria worsens in bright light, it suggests that there may be an issue with the dilated pupil. In this case, the most probable cause of the problem is the right ciliary ganglion. The patient’s symptoms indicate a reduction in parasympathetic innervation to the right eye. As the right pupil is more dilated than the left, it is likely to be the abnormal pupil. This is because the eye is unable to constrict in response to light, making the pupillary asymmetry more noticeable as the normal eye constricts. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for pupil dilation, while the parasympathetic system is responsible for pupil constriction. Therefore, damage to the parasympathetic nervous system can result in unopposed sympathetic innervation to the eye, leading to pupillary dilation. The ciliary ganglion is the parasympathetic ganglion of the eye, and damage to the right ciliary ganglion can cause a mydriatic right eye. The patient is likely suffering from Adie’s-tonic pupil affecting her right eye.

      Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 39-year-old man presents to the emergency department with multiple episodes of forceful...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man presents to the emergency department with multiple episodes of forceful retching resulting in the expulsion of approximately 3 tablespoons of blood. He reports consuming 24 units of alcohol daily for the past week due to job loss. Although his Glasgow coma score is 15, he complains of dizziness. His vital signs include a blood pressure of 105/68 mmHg, pulse rate of 105 bpm, oxygen saturations of 98%, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and fever.
      Currently, blood tests and results are pending. What is the most crucial step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: CT thorax, abdomen and pelvis

      Correct Answer: Upper gastrointestinal tract endoscopy within 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Pyriform cortex

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      102.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old retired gardener is referred to the Dermatology Clinic with a 2-month...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old retired gardener is referred to the Dermatology Clinic with a 2-month history of an ulcerated lesion on the left ear. He explains that the lesion was initially a small white lump which was present for many months, which then broke down into the ulcer.
      On examination, a 0.5 cm ulcerated lesion is noted on the left pinna, with a rolled pearly edge. Closer inspection with a dermatoscope shows some telangiectasia around the edge. The dermatologist suspects that the lesion is a rodent ulcer.
      Which one of the following statements is true regarding rodent ulcers?

      Your Answer: They are squamous cell carcinomas

      Correct Answer: They are basal cell carcinomas

      Explanation:

      Understanding Rodent Ulcers: Characteristics and Treatment Options

      Rodent ulcers, also known as basal cell carcinomas, are malignant skin lesions that commonly occur on the upper part of the face and ears, particularly in sun-exposed areas. They present as a pearly white nodule with telangiectasia and may ulcerate with a rolled edge as they enlarge. Unlike squamous cell carcinomas, rodent ulcers rarely metastasize via the bloodstream. Instead, they are malignant through local invasion, causing significant tissue damage by eroding into local tissue.

      Treatment options for rodent ulcers depend on the depth of the ulcer. Surgical excision with an excision margin of 3-5 mm, Mohs micrographic surgery, radiotherapy, and curettage, cautery, and cryotherapy are all viable options. Mohs micrographic surgery is particularly useful for lesions on the face where wide excision is not appropriate.

      In contrast, squamous cell carcinomas are malignant skin lesions that usually present as an ulcerated lesion with hard and raised edges in sun-exposed areas. They can occur on the lips in smokers and can metastasize, although spread is typically local. Treatment for squamous cell carcinomas involves excision and radiotherapy.

      In summary, understanding the characteristics and treatment options for rodent ulcers is crucial for effective management of this type of skin cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after vomiting bright red blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after vomiting bright red blood multiple times over the past four hours. He has a history of alcohol abuse and has been diagnosed with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in the past. He currently consumes 4-5 pints of beer daily and has a poor compliance with his medication regimen, resulting in missed appointments and discharge from outpatient follow-up. On examination, he has dry mucous membranes, palmar erythema, and hepatomegaly. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 36.6°C, blood pressure 113/67 mmHg, respiratory rate 21 breaths per minute, heart rate 100 beats per minute, and SpO2 99% on room air. The patient is resuscitated with aggressive intravenous fluids, and the gastroenterology team is consulted. They suspect bleeding oesophageal varices and perform an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, which confirms the diagnosis. The varices are banded, and bleeding is significantly reduced.

      Which medication is most likely to prevent further episodes of oesophageal varices in this 55-year-old patient?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Medications for Secondary Prevention of Variceal Hemorrhage

      Variceal hemorrhage is a serious complication of portal hypertension, which can be prevented by using certain medications. Non-selective beta-blockers like nadolol or propranolol are commonly used for secondary prevention of variceal hemorrhage. They work by blocking dilatory tone of the mesenteric arterioles, resulting in unopposed vasoconstriction and therefore a decrease in portal inflow. Selective beta-blockers are not effective in reducing portal hypertension. The dose of the non-selective beta-blocker should be titrated to achieve a resting heart rate of between 55 and 60 beats per minute. Ciprofloxacin is another medication used in prophylaxis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in high-risk patients. However, it is not effective in preventing variceal bleeding. Proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) like omeprazole are used in the treatment of gastric reflux and peptic ulcer disease, but they have little impact on portal hypertension and are not indicated in the prophylaxis of variceal bleeding. Similarly, ranitidine, a histamine-2 receptor antagonist, is not likely to help prevent further episodes of variceal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      75.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man presents with a right inguinal mass. Upon examination, the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a right inguinal mass. Upon examination, the left testis is found to be normal in size and position, but the right testis cannot be palpated in the scrotum. An ultrasound confirms that the inguinal mass is a cryptorchid testis.
      What is the best course of action for addressing this patient's testicular anomaly?

      Your Answer: Put it into the scrotum surgically (orchidopexy)

      Correct Answer: Remove it (orchidectomy)

      Explanation:

      Options for Managing Cryptorchidism

      Cryptorchidism, or undescended testis, is a condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum. Here are some options for managing this condition:

      1. Orchidectomy: This involves removing the undescended testis, which eliminates the risk of developing seminoma. If the patient is 30 years old or older, the undescended testis is unlikely to be capable of spermatogenesis, so removal should not affect fertility.

      2. Bilateral orchidectomy: This involves removing both testes, but it is not necessary if only one testis is undescended. The opposite testis is not affected by the undescended testis and should be left intact.

      3. Orchidopexy: This is a surgical procedure to place the undescended testis in the scrotum. It is most effective when done before the age of 2, but it does not reduce the risk of developing testicular cancer.

      4. Testosterone therapy: This is not necessary for patients with cryptorchidism, as the Leydig cells in the testicular interstitium continue to produce testosterone.

      5. Chromosome analysis: This is indicated if there is a suspicion of a chromosomal defect, such as testicular feminisation or Klinefelter syndrome.

      In summary, the management of cryptorchidism depends on the individual case and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old man has been admitted to the hospital after a fall resulting...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been admitted to the hospital after a fall resulting in a fractured intracapsular neck of femur. He has been consented for a hemiarthroplasty and is third on the list for the following morning. He is currently on warfarin, but vitamin K has been administered to normalise his international normalised ratio (INR) before surgery. He has several co-morbidities, including atrial fibrillation, previous transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs), and type 2 diabetes mellitus, and he takes a long list of medications. The senior house officer has been asked to review his medications before surgery tomorrow. He is currently haemodynamically stable, normocardic, and apyrexial.
      Which medication can he safely take on the day of surgery?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Medication Management in Perioperative Care

      During the perioperative period, it is important to carefully manage a patient’s medication regimen to ensure optimal outcomes. Here are some guidelines for managing specific medications:

      Digoxin: Antiarrhythmic drugs like digoxin should generally be continued on the day of surgery to prevent arrhythmias. It can be given intravenously if the patient cannot take it orally, but should be omitted if the patient is bradycardic.

      Gliclazide: This medication should be omitted on the morning of a procedure and restarted once the patient is eating again postoperatively.

      Ramipril: Patients on ACE inhibitors like ramipril have a higher risk of hypotension during anesthesia, especially if they are volume-depleted or undergoing epidural anesthesia.

      Metformin: Metformin should be stopped before the preoperative fast begins and used with caution in those who are dehydrated or at risk of renal impairment.

      Aspirin: Aspirin should be stopped when the risks of post-operative bleeding are high or when even minor bleeding could have significant consequences. Ideally, it should be stopped 5-7 days before elective surgery.

      Proper management of medications during the perioperative period can help minimize risks and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      62.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 70-year-old man is prescribed amiodarone for atrial fibrillation. What set of tests...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is prescribed amiodarone for atrial fibrillation. What set of tests should the GP conduct on this patient as a baseline?

      Your Answer: Liver function tests (LFTs), urea and electrolytes (U&Es), thyroid function tests (TFTs) and chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart conditions, but it can have significant side effects. Before starting treatment, it is important to establish a baseline thyroid profile, as amiodarone contains iodine that can cause hyper- or hypothyroidism. A baseline chest X-ray is also required and should be repeated annually, as amiodarone can cause toxicity in the lungs. Liver toxicity is common in those on long-term amiodarone therapy, so liver function tests should be done regularly. Respiratory complications such as pneumonitis and pulmonary fibrosis can occur, so further investigation may be needed if patients develop respiratory symptoms. Other tests such as nerve conduction studies and visual field studies are not necessary before starting amiodarone, but LFTs, U&Es, and TFTs should be done due to the potential for liver and thyroid toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department in a state of distress....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department in a state of distress. She admits to having lost a significant amount of money through gambling and then taking 4 packets of paracetamol. This is not the first time she has engaged in such behavior. She discloses that her partner of 3 years has been offered a job overseas and is considering accepting it. Despite her initial heartbreak, they had a major argument and she now claims to be indifferent about whether he stays or goes.

      What is the most appropriate course of action based on the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Commence lithium

      Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy

      Explanation:

      Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by recurrent self-harm and intense interpersonal relationships that alternate between idealization and devaluation as a way to cope with strong emotions during strained relationships. The defense mechanism of devaluation is evident in the patient’s quick emotional switches, without middle ground. Dialectical behavior therapy is an effective treatment for BPD, while cognitive behavior therapy is more suitable for depression or anxiety disorders. The clinical picture is more consistent with BPD than depression, and antidepressants may not be effective for BPD. Lithium, the mood stabilizer of choice for bipolar disorder, is not appropriate for this acute event, which occurred over the past few hours rather than days.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 56-year-old woman who underwent Hartmann’s procedure six hours ago has started to...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman who underwent Hartmann’s procedure six hours ago has started to complain of abdominal pain and light-headedness. On assessment, she has a blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg, a heart rate of 120 bpm, a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations of 98% and a temperature of 36.7 °C. She appears drowsy and pale, and the radial pulse is difficult to detect. Her abdomen appears rigid and is painful to palpate, and a bleed is suspected.
      What type of shock is this patient most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Cardiogenic

      Correct Answer: Hypovolaemic

      Explanation:

      Types of Shock and their Causes

      Shock is a medical emergency that occurs when the body’s organs and tissues do not receive enough oxygen and nutrients. There are different types of shock, each with its own causes and symptoms.

      Hypovolaemic shock is caused by a significant loss of blood volume, usually more than 20%. This can occur due to trauma, surgery, or internal bleeding. Symptoms include low blood pressure, rapid heartbeat, and confusion. Treatment involves urgent fluid resuscitation and surgical intervention.

      Anaphylactic shock is an allergic reaction to a substance, such as medication, food, or insect venom. Symptoms include swelling of the face and throat, hives, and difficulty breathing. Treatment involves administering epinephrine and seeking emergency medical care.

      Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. This can occur after a heart attack or other cardiac event. Symptoms include low blood pressure, rapid heartbeat, and shortness of breath. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cardiac issue and providing supportive care.

      Neurogenic shock occurs due to damage to the central nervous system or spinal cord. Symptoms include low blood pressure, slow heartbeat, and warm skin. Treatment involves stabilizing the spine and providing supportive care.

      Septic shock occurs as a result of a severe infection that spreads throughout the body. Symptoms include fever, low blood pressure, and confusion. Treatment involves administering antibiotics and providing supportive care.

      In conclusion, recognizing the type of shock a patient is experiencing is crucial for providing appropriate and timely treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      55.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 29-year-old male has recently been admitted after a mixed tablet overdose, taking...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old male has recently been admitted after a mixed tablet overdose, taking 30 tablets of paracetamol and approximately 10 codeine phosphate tablets. He is currently receiving IV acetylcysteine for his high plasma paracetamol levels and activated charcoal due to the overdose being within the last hour. Upon arrival, his oxygen saturations were 94%, and he was given supplemental oxygen to reach target saturations. IV fluids were also administered.

      As you approach the patient, you observe him struggling to breathe. He is audibly wheezing, has a widespread erythematous papular rash over his skin, and is significantly hypotensive (90/50 mmHg). What is the most probable cause of this sudden deterioration?

      Your Answer: IV acetylcysteine infusion

      Explanation:

      The probability of an anaphylactoid reaction occurring from the use of sodium chloride as the initial fluid therapy for acutely ill patients is extremely low. Similarly, activated charcoal is also highly unlikely to trigger such a reaction, with the only potential concern being gastrointestinal disturbances.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      81.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old woman complains of weakness in her thighs and shoulders, making it...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman complains of weakness in her thighs and shoulders, making it difficult for her to climb stairs and lift objects. She has also observed a purple rash, particularly on her face and eyelids. During the examination, she has painful and itchy papules on her metacarpophalangeal joints. Which antibody is expected to be positive in this patient?

      Your Answer: Anti-Ro

      Correct Answer: Anti-Jo-1

      Explanation:

      The presence of the anti-Jo-1 antibody suggests that the patient is likely suffering from dermatomyositis, a condition characterized by muscle weakness in the proximal areas and a blue-purple rash on the face, upper eyelids, and trunk. The papules on the small joints of the hands, known as Gottron papules, are a telltale sign of this condition. While anti-CCP is often positive in rheumatoid arthritis, which causes pain and stiffness in the small joints of the hands and feet, anti-La and anti-Ro are commonly positive in Sjogren’s syndrome, which is characterized by dry mouth and eyes and swelling of the parotid gland.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old male presents with complaints of brown coloured urine and abdominal distension....

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old male presents with complaints of brown coloured urine and abdominal distension. On examination, he displays signs of large bowel obstruction with tenderness in the central abdomen. The left iliac fossa is the most tender area. The patient is stable hemodynamically. What investigation should be performed?

      Your Answer: Computerised tomogram of the abdomen and pelvis

      Explanation:

      This patient is likely suffering from a colovesical fistula due to diverticular disease in the sigmoid colon. There may also be a diverticular stricture causing a blockage in the large intestine. Alternatively, a locally advanced tumor in the sigmoid colon could be the cause. To properly investigate this acute surgical case, an abdominal CT scan is the best option. This will reveal the location of the disease and any regional complications, such as organ involvement or a pericolic abscess. A barium enema is not recommended if large bowel obstruction is suspected, as it requires bowel preparation. A flexible sigmoidoscopy is unlikely to be useful and may worsen colonic distension. A cystogram would provide limited information.

      Understanding Diverticular Disease

      Diverticular disease is a common condition that involves the protrusion of colonic mucosa through the muscular wall of the colon. This typically occurs between the taenia coli, where vessels penetrate the muscle to supply the mucosa. Symptoms of diverticular disease include altered bowel habits, rectal bleeding, and abdominal pain. Complications can arise, such as diverticulitis, haemorrhage, fistula development, perforation and faecal peritonitis, abscess formation, and diverticular phlegmon.

      To diagnose diverticular disease, patients may undergo a colonoscopy, CT cologram, or barium enema. However, it can be challenging to rule out cancer, especially in diverticular strictures. For acutely unwell surgical patients, plain abdominal films and an erect chest x-ray can identify perforation, while an abdominal CT scan with oral and intravenous contrast can detect acute inflammation and local complications.

      Treatment for diverticular disease includes increasing dietary fibre intake and managing mild attacks with antibiotics. Peri colonic abscesses may require surgical or radiological drainage, while recurrent episodes of acute diverticulitis may necessitate a segmental resection. Hinchey IV perforations, which involve generalised faecal peritonitis, typically require a resection and stoma, with a high risk of postoperative complications and HDU admission. Less severe perforations may be managed with laparoscopic washout and drain insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - As a GP, you come across a 42-year-old man who had an incidental...

    Incorrect

    • As a GP, you come across a 42-year-old man who had an incidental discovery of hyperlipidaemia during a recent insurance medical examination at work. His test results showed cholesterol levels of 22 mmol/L (ideal <5 mmol/L) with triglycerides of 18 mmol/L (<1.5 mmol/L). He is generally healthy but has low albumin and peripheral oedema. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the results are as follows:

      Haemoglobin: Negative
      Urobilinogen: Negative
      Bilirubin: Negative
      Protein: +++
      Glucose: Negative
      Nitrites: Negative
      Leucocytes: Negative
      Ketones: +

      What could be the possible explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer: Nephritic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine, low levels of serum albumin, and peripheral edema. Patients with this condition often have severe hyperlipidemia, with total cholesterol levels exceeding 10 mmol/L. Additionally, the loss of natural anticoagulants in the urine can lead to altered clotting, which requires treatment with antiplatelet agents and/or low molecular weight heparin.

      It is important to note that in the early stages of nephrotic syndrome, the levels of urea and creatinine may appear normal despite underlying renal pathology. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients with marked hyperlipidemia and proteinuria on urinalysis for signs of nephrotic syndrome. If diagnosed, patients should be referred to a local renal team for management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 72-year-old patient comes to see the General Practitioner with his daughter. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old patient comes to see the General Practitioner with his daughter. She expresses concern that her father has been acting differently lately. Once the daughter leaves the room, he confides in the doctor that the woman who came with him is not his daughter, but an imposter. He firmly believes this and cannot be convinced otherwise.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Capgras syndrome

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Delusional Disorders

      Delusional disorders are a group of mental illnesses characterized by false beliefs that persist despite evidence to the contrary. Here are some of the different types of delusional disorders:

      1. Capgras syndrome: Patients believe that a loved one has been replaced by an exact double.

      2. Cotard syndrome: Patients have nihilistic delusions, such as believing that they or parts of their body are dead or decaying.

      3. Othello syndrome: Patients believe that their partner is cheating on them, despite no proof.

      4. De Clerambault syndrome: Patients believe that someone famous is deeply in love with them.

      It is important to note that these disorders are rare and require professional diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 56-year-old man comes to your GP office and expresses his anxiety about...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to your GP office and expresses his anxiety about developing an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) after his friend, who seemed healthy, passed away due to a ruptured AAA. During the physical examination, the patient's vital signs are all normal, and his body mass index is 24 kg/m². Although you can feel his abdominal pulse, it is not expansile. As a result, you decide to educate the patient about the abdominal aortic aneurysm screening program.

      What information would you provide to the patient during this discussion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A single abdominal ultrasound for those aged 65-years-old

      Explanation:

      A single abdominal ultrasound is offered to all males aged 65 in England for screening of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). This is because the risk of getting an AAA is much smaller in women, men under 65, and those who have already been treated for an AAA. The screening is performed as an individual scan initially, and subsequent scans may be required depending on the size of the AAA. Therefore, options such as abdominal ultrasound every 3 or 5 years between 60 and 75-years-old are incorrect. Similarly, a single abdominal ultrasound for those aged 55 or 60-years-old is also incorrect as the screening is specifically for those aged 65.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/2) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Surgery (2/3) 67%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Medicine (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Passmed