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Question 1
Correct
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The diabetes prevention program has been running for the last 5 years. At baseline, a well conducted study with a sample size of 500 showed that the prevalence of diabetes among adults aged 40 and above was 15%.
Five years later another survey (of 400 responders) showed that the prevalence of diabetes was 10%.
In the above example, which definition of prevalence is correct?Your Answer: Prevalence is the number of new and old smokers in a year
Explanation:Prevalence and Incidence in Smoking
Prevalence and incidence are two important concepts in the smoking habits of a population. Prevalence refers to the number of people who smoke at a particular time point, such as at the beginning or end of a study period. This is calculated by dividing the number of smokers by the total population.
On the other hand, incidence refers to the number of new cases of smoking at a particular time point. For example, this could be at the beginning of a study period for the whole year or at the 10th year. This is calculated by dividing the number of new smokers by the number of smoke-free individuals who are potentially at risk of taking up smoking.
prevalence and incidence is important in evaluating the effectiveness of smoking cessation programs and policies. By tracking changes in prevalence and incidence over time, researchers and policymakers can determine whether their efforts are making a difference in reducing smoking rates. Additionally, these concepts can help identify populations that are at higher risk of taking up smoking, allowing for targeted interventions to prevent smoking initiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the main role of the Golgi apparatus in eukaryotic cells?
Your Answer: Process of proteins
Explanation:The Golgi Apparatus, Cell Division, and Homeostasis
The Golgi apparatus is a structure found in eukaryotic cells that consists of flattened membrane stacks. Its primary function is to modify proteins that have been synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, preparing them for secretion or transport within the cell. However, the Golgi apparatus is not directly involved in cell division, which is controlled by the nucleus.
Cell homeostasis, on the other hand, is primarily maintained by membrane-embedded channels or proteins such as the sodium-potassium pump. This mechanism ensures that the cell’s internal environment remains stable. The sodium-potassium pump is an active transport mechanism that involves the binding of three intracellular sodium ions to the protein. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) donates a phosphate group to the protein, which causes it to change shape and release the sodium ions out of the cell.
The protein then accepts two extracellular potassium ions, and the donated phosphate group detaches, causing the protein to revert to its original shape. This allows the potassium ions to enter the cell, increasing the intracellular potassium concentration and decreasing the intracellular sodium concentration. This process is in contrast to the extracellular conditions.
In summary, the Golgi apparatus modifies proteins for secretion or transport, while cell division is controlled by the nucleus. Cell homeostasis is maintained by membrane-embedded channels or proteins such as the sodium-potassium pump, which actively transports ions to stabilize the cell’s internal environment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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As part of your general practice placement, you have been tasked with conducting an audit on the duration of solid food introduction in the practice population. You review the data for the last six infants born within the practice:
6 months, 7 months, 8 months, 9 months, 10 months, 11 months.
What is the variance value for the duration of solid food introduction in the practice population?Your Answer: 8.6
Correct Answer: 74.9
Explanation:Variance and Standard Deviation in Breast Feeding Duration
Variance is a statistical measure that indicates how spread out a set of data is. In the case of breast feeding duration, variance can help us understand how much the duration varies from the mean. The formula for variance involves squaring the difference between each data point and the mean, then dividing the sum by n-1, where n is the total number of data points. In a sample population, n-1 is a better estimate of variance than n because it accounts for the variability within the sample.
For example, if the variance of breast feeding duration is 74.9 months, this indicates that the duration is widely distributed from the mean of 17.6 months. A smaller variance, such as 4.5 months, would indicate that the duration varies less and is closer to the mean. The standard deviation, which is the square root of the variance, is also important in the spread of data. In a normal distribution, 95% of observations will fall within two standard deviations of the mean.
In the case of breast feeding duration, the mean is 17.6 months, indicating that babies are breast fed for an average of 15 and a half months. The median, which is the middle number in the data set, is 15 months, meaning that half of the babies were breast fed for 15 months. variance and standard deviation can help us better understand the distribution of breast feeding duration and other medical measurements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the end result of meiosis in a cell?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 haploid cells
Explanation:Meiosis
Meiosis is a crucial process that occurs in the genetic cells of eukaryotic organisms. Its primary purpose is to recombine genes, which results in genetic variation while also ensuring genetic preservation. Although meiosis shares some similarities with mitosis, it is restricted to genetic cells, also known as gametes, of eukaryotic organisms.
During meiosis, a gamete duplicates each of its chromosomes and divides into two diploid cells. These cells then divide into four haploid cells by the end of the second stage of meiosis (telophase II and cytokinesis). These haploid cells are either sperm cells (male) or eggs (female) in mammals. When these haploid cells fuse together, they produce a diploid zygote that contains two copies of parental genes.
In summary, meiosis is a crucial process that ensures genetic variation and preservation in eukaryotic organisms. It involves the duplication and division of genetic cells into haploid cells, which can then fuse together to produce a diploid zygote.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male complains of a painful and swollen right calf. The possibility of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being considered. What tests should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dopplers of the leg veins
Explanation:Diagnostic Methods for Deep Vein Thrombosis
When it comes to diagnosing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), there are several methods available. The most common ones are Doppler studies and venography. Doppler studies use B mode ultrasonography to examine the venous system, while venography involves injecting a contrast dye into the veins and taking X-rays. CT scans are not typically used for DVT diagnosis because they require contrast and expose the patient to radiation. D-Dimer concentrations can help rule out DVT if they are negative, but they cannot diagnose it. MRI scans are useful for examining soft tissues and bones, but they are not the best option for visualizing the vasculature. Finally, oxygen saturation of the limbs is not a reliable diagnostic method because tissue perfusion can be the same even if there is arterial disease. Overall, Doppler studies and venography are the most effective methods for diagnosing DVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What significance do leucine, lysine, and phenylalanine hold?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They are essential amino acids
Explanation:Essential Amino Acids and their Importance in the Diet
There are approximately 20 essential amino acids that are crucial for human health. These amino acids are considered essential because the body cannot produce them on its own and they must be obtained through the diet. While some of these essential amino acids can be used to create other non-essential amino acids, they are still necessary for overall health and wellbeing.
Some examples of essential amino acids include histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine. However, the amount of these essential amino acids can vary depending on the type of dietary protein consumed. Additionally, cooking or preserving proteins can alter the amino acid composition, making them less effective for the body.
In summary, essential amino acids play a vital role in maintaining human health and must be obtained through the diet. the importance of these amino acids and their sources can help individuals make informed decisions about their dietary choices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the cause of the symptoms of weakness, dermatitis, diarrhoea and dementia in pellagra?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deficiency of the vitamin niacin
Explanation:Niacin Deficiency and Other Genetic Diseases
Niacin, a vitamin present in two forms – nicotinamide and nicotinic acid, is found in a variety of plant and animal foodstuffs. However, in some cases, the form of the vitamin is not easily absorbed by the human body, leading to deficiency. This deficiency is common in areas where maize is the primary dietary carbohydrate. Additionally, niacin can be produced by the body from the amino acid tryptophan. Diseases that affect the availability of tryptophan, such as Hartnup disease and carcinoid syndrome, can also result in niacin deficiency.
Pellagra is a condition that arises from niacin deficiency. It initially presents with non-specific symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, and reduced appetite, followed by pigmented dermatitis in sun-exposed areas, gastrointestinal disturbance, mood disturbance, and dementia in severe cases.
Apart from niacin deficiency, genetic diseases affecting collagen synthesis, such as Ehlers Danlos, present with symptoms of fragile stretchy skin and joint hypermobility. Genetic diseases affecting haemoglobin, such as sickle cell anaemia, present with symptoms of pain, hepatosplenomegaly, shortness of breath, and anaemia. Deficiencies in B12 and folate can also lead to macrocytic anaemia, paresthesia, and lethargy.
In conclusion, the causes and symptoms of niacin deficiency and other genetic diseases is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment. A balanced diet and regular medical check-ups can help prevent and manage these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal swelling, nausea, and mild jaundice. He has a history of regular alcohol consumption, drinking two 330ml bottles of lager per day (3% ABV) and a 75cl bottle of 12% ABV wine per week.
What is the approximate number of units of alcohol this man consumes per week? Round to the nearest unit.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 23 units
Explanation:Calculating Units of Alcohol
To calculate the number of units of alcohol in a drink, you need to multiply the percentage of alcohol (ABV) by the volume in millilitres and then divide by 1000. However, there are potential pitfalls to watch out for when answering questions about units of alcohol. For example, if the consumption is presented as a daily amount, you need to multiply by 7 to get the weekly amount. Additionally, if the volume is presented in centilitres, you need to convert it to millilitres before performing the calculation.
For instance, let’s say you want to calculate the units of alcohol in a bottle of lager. If the ABV is 3% and the volume is 330ml, the calculation would be 3% x 330ml divided by 1000, which equals 0.99 units rounded up to 1 unit. If the person drinks two bottles a day, that’s 2 units per day or 14 units per week. Similarly, if the person drinks one bottle of wine per week, and the ABV is 12% and the volume is 750ml, the calculation would be 12% x 750ml divided by 1000, which equals 9 units per bottle.
It’s important to be aware of potential pitfalls when calculating units of alcohol, such as checking the units of volume and adjusting for duration. By this simple calculation, you can be prepared for any question that may come up in an exam setting. The UK recommendations for alcohol consumption are no more than 14 units per week for both sexes. While calculating units of alcohol may seem daunting, with practice and preparation, you can confidently tackle any question that comes your way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What occurs in eukaryotic prometaphase?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The nuclear membrane and the nucleoli disintegrate and kinetochores appear
Explanation:The Significance of Prometaphase in Cell Division
Prometaphase is a crucial phase in cell division that marks the transition from prophase to metaphase. Although it is often considered as a part of these two phases, it has distinct events that make it an individual phase. During prometaphase, the nuclear membrane disintegrates, and the nucleoli are no longer visible. Additionally, each chromosome forms two kinetochores near the centromere, which serve as attachment points for spindle fibers. These fibers connect to the opposite poles of the cell, forming travelling lines that will separate the sister chromatids during anaphase.
Prophase is characterized by chromatin condensation, while DNA and centrosome duplication occur during interphase. Chromosome alignment takes place during metaphase, and the sister chromatids separate during anaphase. Prometaphase, therefore, plays a crucial role in preparing the chromosomes for separation during anaphase. Its distinct events make it an essential phase in cell division, and its proper execution is necessary for successful cell division.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient with suspected spinal cord compression has been admitted to the neurosurgical team for an urgent MRI of the spine. The MRI technique primarily relies on the magnetic properties of which particle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrogen ion (proton)
Explanation:How MRI Scanners Use Hydrogen Ions to Create Images
MRI scanners use the magnetic properties of hydrogen ions, also known as protons, to create images of the human body. These protons have nuclear spin, which means they have magnetic vectors that can be aligned in an electromagnet. The scanner bombards the protons with radiofrequency radiation, causing them to release energy when they return to their resting state. This energy release is recorded and used to construct the MRI image.
While other nuclei, such as carbon 13, also have net nuclear spin and could be used in MRI imaging, hydrogen ions are much more abundant in human tissues. This makes them the preferred choice for creating images of the body. By using the magnetic properties of hydrogen ions, MRI scanners can create detailed images of internal structures without the use of harmful radiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the primary factor that increases the risk of thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic alcohol excess
Explanation:Thiamine: Its Roles, Sources, Deficiency States, and Manifestations
Thiamine is a vital nutrient that plays several roles in the body. It acts as a cofactor to enzymes involved in energy production, metabolism of branched chain amino acids, and regulation of nerve and muscle action potentials. It is found in many foods, including wheat, oats, and yeast-containing products. However, deficiency states can occur in chronic alcohol dependence, renal dialysis, and cultures that mainly consume white rice. The deficiency can manifest as ‘dry’ beriberi, which causes peripheral neuropathy, muscle weakness, fatigue, and reduced concentration, or ‘wet’ beriberi, which also involves heart failure and edema. In severe cases, Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome can develop, which is an emergency requiring urgent IV replacement of thiamine. If left untreated, it can lead to irreversible amnesia, confabulation, and dementia. Therefore, all patients with alcohol-related admissions should be considered for Pabrinex, a B vitamin infusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the estimated percentage of oxygen in the blood that is attached to haemoglobin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100%
Explanation:Calculation of Oxygen in Blood
The majority of oxygen in the blood is bound to haemoglobin, with the exact amount varying based on the oxygen saturation and haemoglobin level. To calculate the amount of oxygen per litre of blood, the formula (13.9 × Hb × sats/100) + (PaO2 × 0.03) can be used. For example, an average man with an Hb of 14, saturations of 98% on room air, and a PaO2 of 12 would have 191 ml of oxygen per litre of blood. It is important to note that only 0.36 ml of this oxygen is dissolved in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 13
Incorrect
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The arrangement of amphipathic phospholipids in the mammalian cell membrane, what is it like?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A lipid bilayer with hydrophilic heads facing out and hydrophobic tails facing in
Explanation:The Function and Structure of the Mammalian Cell Membrane
The mammalian cell membrane serves as a protective barrier that separates the cytoplasm from the extracellular environment. It also acts as a filter for molecules that move across it. Unlike plant and prokaryotic cells, mammalian cells do not have a cell wall. The main component of the cell membrane is a bilayer of amphipathic lipids, which have a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. The phospholipids in the bilayer are oriented with their hydrophilic heads facing outward and their hydrophobic tails facing inward. This arrangement allows for the separation of the watery extracellular environment from the watery intracellular compartment.
It is important to note that the cell membrane is not a monolayer and the phospholipids are not linked head-to-tail. This is in contrast to DNA, which has a helical chain formation. Overall, the structure and function of the mammalian cell membrane are crucial for maintaining the integrity and proper functioning of the cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which form of vitamin D is the most active in the human body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1, 25 (OH) 2 vitamin D
Explanation:The Process of Vitamin D Production and Activation
Vitamin D comes in two forms, D2 and D3. D3 can be produced in the skin through a reaction that requires UV light, while D2 cannot. Both forms can also be obtained through diet, with some foods now being supplemented with Vitamin D. However, the production of Vitamin D3 in the skin can be affected by various factors such as seasons, latitude, clothing, sun block, and skin tone, making it difficult for individuals to get adequate levels of Vitamin D through sunlight alone, especially in the UK during winter.
Once absorbed into the lymph, Vitamin D2 and D3 circulate in the bloodstream and reach the liver. Here, the liver enzyme 25-hydroxylase adds an OH group to the Vitamin D molecule, resulting in 25(OH) Vitamin D. The compound then travels to the kidney, where the enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase adds another OH group, creating the active form of Vitamin D, 1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D. When there is enough of this active form, an inactive metabolite called 24,25 (OH)2Vitamin D is produced instead. this process is important in ensuring adequate Vitamin D levels for overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female patient with varicose veins presents to the vascular clinic for evaluation.
During the assessment, a test is conducted to determine the location of incompetence. The patient is instructed to lie down, and the veins are emptied by elevating her legs off the couch. The examiner then identifies the site of the sapheno-femoral junction and applies pressure with their fingers. The patient is then asked to stand up to evaluate vein filling.
What is the name of this test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trendelenburg's test
Explanation:Assessing Varicose Vein Site of Incompetence
The Trendelenburg and tourniquet tests are both used to evaluate the site of incompetence in varicose veins at the sapheno-femoral junction. During the Trendelenburg test, the examiner applies pressure with their fingers over the junction site, while in the tourniquet test, a tourniquet is placed just below the junction level.
If the veins fill quickly upon standing, it indicates that the sapheno-femoral junction is not the source of the incompetence. These tests are essential in determining the location of the varicose vein site of incompetence, which is crucial in planning the appropriate treatment. By identifying the site of incompetence, physicians can perform targeted interventions to improve venous function and alleviate symptoms. Therefore, the Trendelenburg and tourniquet tests are valuable tools in the diagnosis and management of varicose veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male smoker complains of calf pain.
The GP performs a clinical test by raising the patient's legs and observing for the angle at which there is blanching. After one minute, the legs are lowered over the side of the couch so that they are fully dependent with feet on the floor. Reactive hyperaemia is observed.
Which clinical test does this describe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buerger's test
Explanation:Tests for Assessing Arterial and Venous Circulation, Hip Dysfunction, and Meniscal Tear
Buerger’s test is a method used to evaluate the arterial circulation of the lower limb. The test involves observing the angle at which blanching occurs, with a lower angle indicating a higher likelihood of arterial insufficiency. Additionally, the degree of reactive hyperaemia on dependency of the limb after one minute is another positive sign of arterial insufficiency during the test.
Another test used to assess circulation is the Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI), which involves using blood pressure cuffs to determine the degree of claudication. McMurray’s test, on the other hand, is used to evaluate for a meniscal tear within the knee joint.
Perthe’s test is a method used to assess the patency of the deep femoral vein prior to varicose vein surgery. Lastly, Trendelenburg’s test is used to evaluate hip dysfunction. These tests are important in diagnosing and treating various conditions related to circulation and joint function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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To what type of cell can mesenchymal stem cells transform?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoblasts
Explanation:Mesenchymal Cells: The Stem Cells of the Human Skeleton
Mesenchymal cells are the primary stem cells of the human skeleton. These multipotent cells originate in the bone marrow and have the ability to differentiate into various cell types. Osteoblasts, responsible for bone formation, chondrocytes, which give rise to cartilage, and adipocytes, specialized in storing energy as fat, are some of the cells that mesenchymal cells can produce. Muscle cells, or myocytes, arise from muscle satellite cells, while skin cells come from epithelial stem cells. Neurons mostly arise from neural stem cells, although some may come from astrocytes. White blood cells, on the other hand, come from hematopoietic stem cells. Mesenchymal cells play a crucial role in the maintenance and repair of the human skeleton, making them an essential area of study in regenerative medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the primary reason for malnutrition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inadequate intake of calories in any form
Explanation:Malnutrition
Malnutrition refers to a state where the dietary intake is insufficient to maintain a healthy state and stable weight. It can be caused by over- or under-nutrition, but it is commonly used to describe under-nutrition. Malnutrition can be defined as a state of nutrition where a deficiency, excess, or imbalance of energy, protein, and other nutrients causes measurable adverse effects on tissue, function, and clinical outcome. Protein malnutrition is the most severe form of malnutrition, causing significant mortality and clinical effects such as kwashiorkor. Carbohydrate malnutrition is less common as carbohydrate sources are widely grown and cheap. Fat malnutrition rarely results in problems if there is adequate dietary protein and carbohydrate. Deficiencies of fat-soluble vitamins can result in various clinical effects. Body size can give some indication of nutritional status, but many obese patients may have nutritional deficiencies due to their faddy diets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What are the defining features of an amino acid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has the formula H2N - CHR - COOH where R is the variable group
Explanation:The Versatility of Amino Acids and its Applications in Electrophoresis
Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins and are composed of a basic structure of H2N – CHR – COOH, where R represents the variable group that distinguishes one amino acid from another. The simplest amino acid is glycine, where the R group is just H. Amino acids are capable of forming complex and useful molecules due to their dipolar or amphoteric nature, which makes them simultaneously acidic and basic. In solution, they form zwitterions, which can act as either an acid or a base depending on the pH of the solution. This versatility of amino acids is what allows for the process of electrophoresis, which separates proteins based on their charge in a solution. By using solutions of different pH, different proteins can be assessed, making it a useful tool in the diagnosis of bone marrow malignancies like myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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In which part of the cell are the electron transport chain carriers situated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitochondrial cristae
Explanation:The Electron Transport Chain in Mitochondria
The electron transport chain (ETC) is a crucial process in cellular aerobic respiration that occurs in the mitochondrial cristae. These are folded membranes inside the organelle. During respiration, NADH and FADH produced from other parts of the process, such as glycolysis, transfer electrons from electron donors to electron acceptors through redox reactions. This electron transfer is coupled with proton transfer across the mitochondrial membrane, creating an electrochemical proton gradient. This gradient induces the production of ATP, which is used as an energy currency by the cell.
ATP is produced through a mechanism called chemiosmotic phosphorylation. The structure of the mitochondrion is essential for this process to occur. The cristae provide a large surface area for the ETC to take place, and the mitochondrial membrane is impermeable to protons, allowing for the creation of the proton gradient. The inner membrane also contains ATP synthase, the enzyme responsible for producing ATP through chemiosmotic phosphorylation.
In summary, the electron transport chain in mitochondria is a complex process that involves the transfer of electrons and protons across the mitochondrial membrane to create a proton gradient. This gradient is then used to produce ATP through chemiosmotic phosphorylation. The structure of the mitochondrion is crucial for this process to occur efficiently.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a geriatric patient in the emergency department who has fallen and needs a venous cannula for fluid resuscitation. To ensure maximum flow into the vein, you plan to apply the Hagen-Poiseuille equation to select an appropriate cannula size. Which of the following statements is true according to this law?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flow will be faster through a shorter cannula
Explanation:Poiseuille’s Equation and Fluid Flow in Cylinders
Poiseuille’s equation is used to describe the flow of non-pulsatile laminar fluids through a cylinder. The equation states that the flow rate is directly proportional to the pressure driving the fluid and the fourth power of the radius. Additionally, it is inversely proportional to the viscosity of the fluid and the length of the tube. This means that a short, wide cannula with pressure on the bag will deliver fluids more rapidly than a long, narrow one.
It is important to note that even small changes in the radius of a tube can greatly affect the flow rate. This is because the fourth power of the radius is used in the equation. Therefore, any changes in the radius will have a significant impact on the flow rate. Poiseuille’s equation is crucial in determining the optimal conditions for fluid delivery in medical settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient with suspected spinal cord compression has been admitted to the neurosurgical team for an urgent MRI of the spine. Which particle's magnetic properties does magnetic resonance imaging rely predominantly upon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrogen ion (proton)
Explanation:How MRI Scanners Use Hydrogen Ions to Create Images
MRI scanners use the magnetic properties of hydrogen ions, also known as protons, to create images of the human body. These protons have nuclear spin, which means they have magnetic vectors that can be aligned in an electromagnet. The scanner bombards the protons with radiofrequency radiation, causing them to release energy when they return to their resting state. This energy release is recorded and used to construct the MRI image.
While other nuclei, such as carbon 13, also have nuclear spin and could be used in MRI imaging, hydrogen ions are much more abundant in human tissues. This makes them the preferred choice for creating images of the body. The process of aligning the magnetic vectors of the protons and then recording their energy release is repeated many times to create a detailed image of the body’s internal structures.
Overall, MRI scanners use the magnetic properties of hydrogen ions to create detailed images of the human body. This non-invasive imaging technique has revolutionized medical diagnosis and treatment, allowing doctors to see inside the body without the need for surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the primary means of transportation for vitamin D in the human body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In blood, bound to the group specific component
Explanation:The Role of UV Light and Vitamin D in Calcium and Phosphate Regulation
In order for the body to produce Vitamin D3, UV light at a specific wavelength is required to convert cholesterol in the skin. Vitamin D2 and D3 are then transported in the bloodstream bound to the Vitamin-D Binding Protein and undergo further modifications in the liver and kidney to become the active form, 1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D. This active form plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate concentrations in the body.
1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D increases calcium absorption in the duodenum and inhibits the secretion and synthesis of PTH, which helps to maintain calcium concentrations. It also increases phosphate absorption in the jejunum and ileum, which is important for maintaining phosphate concentrations. Additionally, 1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D promotes bone turnover by stimulating both osteoblast and osteoclast activity.
Overall, the production and activation of Vitamin D through UV light and dietary sources is essential for proper calcium and phosphate regulation in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A couple in their late 20s comes to your clinic seeking advice regarding the possibility of their children inheriting cystic fibrosis. The husband has a confirmed diagnosis of the condition, but the carrier status of the wife is unknown.
What is the likelihood of any of their offspring being affected by cystic fibrosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.50%
Explanation:Cystic Fibrosis Inheritance
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that affects the chloride ion channels, leading to the thickening of respiratory and other secretions. It is an autosomal recessive condition, which means that a person must inherit two copies of the defective gene, one from each parent, to develop the disease. The most common defective allele is carried by approximately 1 in 20 people.
If a man with CF has children with a woman who does not carry the recessive gene, then none of their children will be affected by the disease. However, they will all be carriers of the CF gene. On the other hand, if the woman is a carrier of the CF gene, there is a 50% chance that each child will inherit one copy of the defective gene from each parent and be affected by the disease. The remaining 50% of the children will inherit one copy of the defective gene and one normal gene, making them carriers of the CF gene but not affected by the disease.
In summary, the probability of any child being affected by CF is 2.5% if one parent has the defective gene and the other does not. It is important for individuals who are carriers of the CF gene to be aware of their status and seek genetic counseling before planning to have children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which process occurs mainly in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Steroid synthesis
Explanation:The Functions of Endoplasmic Reticulum and Lysosomes
The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is a complex network of membranes that is divided into two types: rough and smooth. The rough ER is characterized by the presence of ribosomes on its cytosolic side, which makes it an important site for protein production, modification, and transport. On the other hand, the smooth ER is involved in cholesterol and steroid handling, as well as calcium storage in some cells. This type of ER is particularly prominent in cells that produce large amounts of steroid hormones, such as those found in the adrenal cortex.
Lysosomes, on the other hand, are organelles that are responsible for breaking down and recycling cellular waste. They are formed by the Golgi apparatus, which is another complex network of membranes found in eukaryotic cells. Lysosomes contain a variety of enzymes that are capable of breaking down different types of molecules, including proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates.
In summary, the ER and lysosomes are two important organelles in eukaryotic cells that play different roles in cellular metabolism. While the ER is involved in protein production, modification, and transport, the lysosomes are responsible for breaking down and recycling cellular waste.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old snowboarder presents to the Emergency department complaining of pain and swelling around the first metacarpophalangeal joint (MCP joint) following a fall during practice.
Upon examination, there is significant swelling and bruising on the ulnar side of the joint.
What is the most probable injury that the patient has sustained?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament
Explanation:Skier’s Thumb: A Common Injury in Winter Sports
Skier’s thumb, also known as gamekeeper’s thumb, is a common injury that occurs in winter sports. It is caused by damage or rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament, which is located at the base of the thumb. This injury can result in acute swelling and gross instability of the thumb. In severe cases where a complete tear of the ligament is suspected, an MRI may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis, and surgical repair may be required.
Once the acute swelling has subsided, treatment for skier’s thumb typically involves immobilization in a thumb spica. This is the standard therapy for cases of partial rupture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What could be a potential cause of metabolic acidosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Poorly controlled diabetes
Explanation:Acid-Base Imbalances in Different Medical Conditions
Poorly controlled diabetes can cause the breakdown of fatty acids, leading to the production of ketones as an alternative energy source. However, an excess of ketones can result in metabolic acidosis due to their acidic nature. On the other hand, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and suffocation can cause the retention of carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory acidosis. In COPD, there may be a compensatory metabolic alkalosis. Voluntary hyperventilation can cause respiratory alkalosis due to the reduction of carbon dioxide. Vomiting can also lead to metabolic alkalosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis is a complication of type 1 diabetes that results in high blood sugar levels, ketone production, and acidosis.
In summary, different medical conditions can cause acid-base imbalances in the body. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the imbalance to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the conversion of pyruvate before it enters the Krebs cycle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acetyl-CoA
Explanation:The Krebs cycle occurs in the mitochondrion and involves the conversion of acetyl-CoA to oxaloacetate. This cycle produces six NADH, two FADH, and two ATP for each molecule of glucose. Pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA before entering the Krebs cycle, and water and carbon dioxide are end products. Acetic acid itself has no role in the cycle, but its acetyl group is used to form acetyl-CoA. Some anaerobic bacteria can convert sugars to acetic acid directly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the term for the process described below in laboratory testing?
Enzymes are immobilised on a solid surface, such as a bead or well, and allowed to come into contact with the sample. After washing, another enzyme is added with a label allowing quantitation of the analyte.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
Explanation:ELISA: A Common Immunoassay in Medical Diagnostic Testing
An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a type of immunoassay that is widely used in medical diagnostic testing. This method uses antibodies to identify and/or quantify the analyte being tested. The ELISA process involves several steps, including coating a plate with the antigen, adding the patient’s sample, washing the plate to remove any unbound material, adding an enzyme-linked antibody, washing the plate again, and adding a substrate to produce a measurable signal.
Over time, many modifications have been made to the ELISA, making it a versatile tool in the laboratory for measuring various analytes. Some of the substances that can be measured using immunoassays include thyroid hormone, testosterone, oestrogen, troponin, and vitamin D. The ELISA has been around for a long time and is still widely used today due to its accuracy, sensitivity, and specificity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 30
Incorrect
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The Krebs or TCA cycle is a series of metabolic processes beginning with the synthesis of citrate from acetyl-CoA which results in a number of important metabolic products. Where in the cell does this cycle occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitochondria
Explanation:Cellular Processes and Organelles
Metabolic processes in the cell occur in specific locations. Acetyl-CoA production and the Krebs cycle take place in the mitochondrium, while glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm. The nucleus is the central structure of the cell that contains DNA and is double membrane-bound. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for packaging and transporting proteins, while the smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs a similar function but lacks ribosomes.
It is important to understand where these processes occur in the cell to better understand their functions and how they contribute to the overall functioning of the cell. The mitochondrium is responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP, while the cytoplasm is where glucose is broken down during glycolysis. The nucleus is where genetic information is stored and replicated, and the endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis and transport.
In summary, the cell is a complex system with various organelles that perform specific functions. where these processes occur in the cell is crucial to how they contribute to the overall functioning of the cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 31
Incorrect
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What is a primary function of vitamin A?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vision
Explanation:Vitamin A: Forms, Sources, and Functions
Vitamin A is a crucial nutrient that exists in various forms in nature. The primary dietary form of vitamin A is retinol, also known as pre-formed vitamin A, which is stored in animal liver tissue as retinyl esters. The body can also produce its own vitamin A from carotenoids, with beta-carotene being the most common precursor molecule.
The richest sources of vitamin A include liver and fish liver oils, dark green leafy vegetables, carrots, and mangoes. Vitamin A can also be added to certain foods like cereals and margarines.
Vitamin A plays several essential roles in the body, including supporting vision by being a component of rhodopsin, a pigment required by the rod cells of the retina. It also contributes to the growth and development of various types of tissue, regulates gene transcription, and aids in the synthesis of hydrophobic glycoproteins and parts of the protein kinase enzyme pathways.
In summary, the different forms and sources of vitamin A and its vital functions in the body is crucial for maintaining optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 32
Incorrect
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What is the primary function of riboflavin in the B vitamin group?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mopping up free radicals
Explanation:The Role of Riboflavin in the Body
Riboflavin, also known as vitamin B2, is a B-vitamin that plays a crucial role in the body. One of its functions is to act as an antioxidant, mopping up free radicals that can cause damage to cells. However, if the metabolites formed during this process are not excreted promptly, the free radicals can be generated again. Riboflavin is also involved in the production of blue-light sensitive pigments in the eye, which help establish the circadian rhythm. This function is not related to visual acuity.
Riboflavin is found in a variety of foods, including milk and offal. Deficiency of this vitamin is rare, but when it does occur, it can cause non-specific effects on the skin and mucous membranes. There is no evidence of clear long-lasting damage from riboflavin deficiency. Overall, riboflavin is an important nutrient that plays a vital role in maintaining good health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 33
Incorrect
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What stage of cellular respiration is responsible for the production of pyruvic acid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glycolysis
Explanation:The Versatility of Pyruvic Acid in Cellular Metabolism
Pyruvic acid is a simple alpha-keto acid that plays a crucial role in several metabolic pathways within the cell. It serves as a central intersection where different pathways converge and diverge. One of the primary ways pyruvic acid is produced is through glycolysis, where glucose is broken down into pyruvic acid. Depending on the cell’s needs, pyruvic acid can be converted back into glucose through gluconeogenesis or used to synthesize fatty acids through the acetyl-CoA pathway. Additionally, pyruvic acid can be used to produce the amino acid alanine.
Pyruvic acid is also involved in respiration, where it enters the Krebs cycle under aerobic conditions. This cycle produces energy in the form of ATP, which is used by the cell for various functions. Under anaerobic conditions, pyruvic acid can ferment into lactic acid, which is used by some organisms as a source of energy.
In summary, pyruvic acid is a versatile molecule that plays a critical role in cellular metabolism. Its ability to be converted into different molecules depending on the cell’s needs makes it an essential component of many metabolic pathways.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Which statement regarding microtubules is accurate in relation to Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They are arranged in a 9+2 formation in cilia
Explanation:Microtubules and Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
Microtubules are structures composed of alpha and beta tubulin dimers that are arranged in a helix and can be added or removed to vary the length. They are found in flagella, mitotic spindles, and cilia, where they have a 9+2 arrangement. Chemotherapy agents, such as taxanes, target microtubules in breast cancer treatment.
Chediak-Higashi syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition that presents with albinism, bleeding and bruising due to platelet dysfunction, and susceptibility to infections due to abnormal neutrophils. The LYST gene is responsible for lysosomal trafficking proteins and is affected in this syndrome.
In summary, microtubules are important structures in various cellular processes and are targeted in cancer treatment. Chediak-Higashi syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that affects lysosomal trafficking proteins and presents with various symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 35
Incorrect
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What occurs in eukaryotic prophase?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chromatin condenses into chromosomes
Explanation:The Stages of Prophase in Eukaryotic Mitosis
Prophase is the first stage of eukaryotic mitosis, except for plant cells which have a preprophase stage. During prophase, the cell’s chromatin, which is made up of DNA and associated proteins, condenses into double rod-shaped structures called chromosomes. This process is facilitated by the condensin protein I and/or II complexes. As the chromosomes form, the nuclear membrane and nucleoli disintegrate and disappear, making the chromatin visible.
Before prophase, the cell’s DNA is replicated during interphase, resulting in identical pairs of chromosomes called chromatids. These chromatids attach to each other at a DNA element called the centromere. DNA and centrosome duplication occur during interphase, while chromosome alignment takes place during metaphase. The nuclear membrane and nucleoli re-form during telophase, and the sister chromatids separate during anaphase.
In summary, prophase is the initial stage of eukaryotic mitosis where chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and the nuclear membrane and nucleoli disappear. Chromosome alignment, DNA and centrosome duplication, and re-formation of the nuclear membrane and nucleoli occur in subsequent stages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 36
Incorrect
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What RNA base pairs with adenine when synthesizing a complementary RNA strand from DNA, using RNA polymerase to split the helix at specific points?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uracil
Explanation:Differences between DNA and RNA
DNA and RNA differ in several ways. The primary sugar in DNA is deoxyribose, while in RNA it is ribose. Additionally, DNA is double stranded, while RNA is single stranded. This single stranded structure with un-paired bases allows for transcription to occur when the DNA bases are freed. Each base has a specific pairing, with guanine always binding to cytosine and adenine always binding to thymine in the DNA strand. During transcription, the same complementary RNA bases assemble with the DNA bases, except for thymine, which is not an RNA base. Instead, uracil serves as the RNA pyrimidine base equivalent of thymine. Finally, lysine is an amino acid coded for by the RNA base triplet AAA, where A represents adenine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 37
Incorrect
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What controls the specific stages of the cell cycle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases
Explanation:Regulation of the Cell Cycle by Cyclins and Cyclin-Dependent Kinases
The cell cycle is controlled by the activity of proteins known as cyclins and phosphorylating enzymes called cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). Cyclins and CDKs combine to form an activated heterodimer, where cyclins act as the regulatory subunits and CDKs act as the catalytic subunits. Neither of these molecules is active on their own. When a cyclin binds to a CDK, the CDK phosphorylates other target proteins, either activating or deactivating them. This coordination leads to the entry into the next phase of the cell cycle. The specific proteins that are activated depend on the different combinations of cyclin-CDK. Additionally, CDKs are always present in cells, while cyclins are produced at specific points in the cell cycle in response to other signaling pathways.
In summary, the cell cycle is regulated by the interaction between cyclins and CDKs. This interaction leads to the phosphorylation of target proteins, which ultimately controls the progression of the cell cycle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 38
Incorrect
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What function does vitamin E serve in the body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antioxidant
Explanation:Vitamin E and its Functions
Several substances are classified as vitamin E, with alpha-tocopherol being the most common, accounting for 90% of human vitamin E. Alpha-tocopherol is composed of two carbon rings and a long saturated hydrocarbon chain, making it hydrophobic. It has an aromatic ring with an OH- group attached to it. Other substances with vitamin E activity include other tocopherols and tocotrienols, all of which act as antioxidants. Alpha-tocopherol is particularly important in cell membranes, preventing the peroxidation of unsaturated fatty acids by free radicals. It also has other functions, such as regulating gene transcription, inhibiting clotting formation, reducing proliferation of vascular smooth muscle, and playing a role in immunity.
Despite claims that taking vitamin E can reduce the risk of heart disease, cancer, and enhance sexual performance, there is currently no strong evidence to support these claims.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A premature baby is born and the anaesthetists are struggling to ventilate the lungs because of insufficient surfactant. How does Laplace's law explain the force pushing inwards on the walls of the alveolus caused by surface tension between two static fluids, such as air and water in the alveolus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inversely proportional to the radius of the alveolus
Explanation:The Relationship between Alveolar Size and Surface Tension in Respiratory Physiology
In respiratory physiology, the alveolus is often represented as a perfect sphere to apply Laplace’s law. According to this law, there is an inverse relationship between the size of the alveolus and the surface tension. This means that smaller alveoli experience greater force than larger alveoli for a given surface tension, causing them to collapse first. This phenomenon is similar to what happens when two balloons of different sizes are attached together, with the smaller balloon emptying into the larger one.
In the lungs, this collapse of smaller alveoli can lead to atelectasis and collapse if surfactant is not present. Surfactant is a substance that reduces surface tension, making it easier to expand the alveoli and preventing smaller alveoli from collapsing. this relationship between alveolar size and surface tension is crucial in respiratory physiology, as it helps explain the importance of surfactant in maintaining proper lung function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A couple in their early 30s come to your clinic seeking advice. The husband has a history of haemophilia B and they are worried about the possibility of passing it on to their children. Can you determine which of their offspring will be affected by the disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All daughters will be carriers; no sons will be affected
Explanation:The inheritance of Haemophilia A and B is crucial in identifying individuals who are at risk of developing the condition. Haemophilia A and B are genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, while haemophilia B is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor IX.
On the other hand, haemophilia C, which is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor XI, is primarily inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. In X-linked recessive conditions like haemophilia B, males are more likely to be affected than females. This is because males only need one abnormal copy of the gene, which is carried on the X chromosome, to be affected.
Females, on the other hand, can be carriers of the condition if they carry one normal and one abnormal copy of the gene. While carriers can have clotting abnormalities, these are usually milder than those seen in affected individuals. Men cannot pass the condition to their sons, but they will pass on the abnormal X chromosome to all their daughters, who will be carriers.
Female carriers can pass on the condition to around half their sons, and half their daughters will be carriers. Females can only be affected if they are the offspring of an affected male and a carrier female. In summary, the inheritance of haemophilia A and B is crucial in identifying individuals who are at risk of developing the condition. It also helps in providing appropriate genetic counseling and management for affected individuals and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 41
Incorrect
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What is the apoptotic event that occurs just before the formation of an apoptosome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Release of cytochrome c from mitochondria
Explanation:Apoptosis and the Role of the Apoptosome
Apoptosis, also known as programmed cell death, is a natural process that occurs in all multicellular organisms. It involves a series of changes in cell morphology, including membrane blebbing, cell shrinkage, nuclear fragmentation, chromatin condensation, and chromosomal DNA fragmentation. The formation of the apoptosome is a crucial part of the apoptosis cascade. It is a large protein structure that is triggered by the release of cytochrome c from the mitochondria in response to various stimuli, such as DNA damage, infections, or developmental signals.
The apoptosome is formed when cytochrome c binds to Apaf-1, a cytosolic protein, in a 1:1 ratio. This triggers the recruitment and activation of the initiator pro-caspase-9, which then activates effector caspases, a family of apoptotic proteases, to initiate the apoptotic cascade. It is important to note that the activation of caspase-9 occurs only after the formation of the apoptosome.
In summary, apoptosis is a natural process that occurs in multicellular organisms, and the apoptosome plays a crucial role in triggering the apoptotic cascade. the mechanisms behind apoptosis and the formation of the apoptosome can provide insights into various diseases and developmental processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 42
Incorrect
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What is the fundamental meaning of carbohydrate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A compound following the formula Cx(H2O)y
Explanation:Carbohydrates: Building Blocks of Energy and Storage
Carbohydrates are organic compounds made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, with a general formula of Cx(H2O)y. They can be classified as either aldehydes or ketones and contain multiple hydroxyl groups. Monosaccharides are the simplest form of carbohydrates, consisting of a single unit. They are categorized based on the number of carbon atoms they contain, with trioses having three, pentoses having five, and hexoses having six carbon atoms. These monosaccharides are essential for energy production and building larger carbohydrate structures.
Disaccharides are formed when two monosaccharides are joined together through a condensation reaction, releasing a water molecule. The most common disaccharides are lactose, maltose, and sucrose. Polysaccharides, on the other hand, are long, branched polymers made up of multiple single units. They serve as convenient storage molecules for energy reserves, such as glycogen in humans and starch in plants.
In summary, carbohydrates are vital building blocks for energy production and storage in living organisms. Monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides all play important roles in maintaining the body’s energy balance and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 43
Incorrect
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What type of molecule does haemoglobin belong to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Quaternary protein structure
Explanation:The Structure and Functions of Proteins
Proteins are complex molecules that can vary in structure from single amino acids to large, folded molecules. Amino acids are joined together by peptide bonds to form dipeptides and polypeptides. More complex molecules can also have disulphide bonds and ionic bonds. The primary structure of a protein is a simple amino acid chain, while the secondary structure is a specific shape such as a helix or pleated sheet. The tertiary structure is a more globular shape, arranged by ionic, hydrogen, and disulphide bonds, and hydrophobic interactions. The quaternary structure is a complex protein containing several polypeptide chains held together by interactions.
Proteins have multiple roles within the human body, including as hormones, food substrates, enzymes, receptor molecules, muscles, cell membrane constituents, carrier molecules in blood, and determinants of oncotic/osmotic pressures. However, proteins can be easily damaged by denaturation, which is the loss of the specific three-dimensional shape of a molecule. Denaturation can be caused by heat, salts, heavy metals, solvents, detergents, and extremes of pH.
In summary, proteins are essential molecules with a diverse range of structures and functions within the human body. their structure and potential for denaturation is crucial for maintaining their proper function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 44
Incorrect
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What are the clinical consequences of a lack of vitamin A?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dry conjunctiva
Explanation:The Devastating Effects of Vitamin A Deficiency
Vitamin A deficiency is a serious health concern that can lead to a range of devastating effects. One of the most common consequences is blindness, particularly in children. Poor night vision is often an early sign of this deficiency, which can progress to complete blindness if left untreated.
In addition to blindness, vitamin A deficiency can also cause dry conjunctiva, a condition known as conjunctival xerosis. This occurs when the normally moist and fine conjunctiva becomes thickened and dysfunctional, leading to the formation of white plaques known as Bitot’s spots. Corneal ulceration can also occur as a result of this condition.
The respiratory and gastrointestinal epithelia can also be affected by vitamin A deficiency, leading to reduced resistance to infection. This deficiency is a major public health issue in some parts of the world and is the single most common preventable cause of blindness. It is crucial to address this issue through education and access to vitamin A-rich foods and supplements.
Overall, the devastating effects of vitamin A deficiency highlight the importance of proper nutrition and access to essential vitamins and minerals. By addressing this issue, we can help prevent blindness and improve overall health outcomes for individuals and communities around the world.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 45
Incorrect
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At what stage of meiosis does the process of homologous recombination occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prophase I
Explanation:Homologous Recombination: A Mechanism for DNA Repair and Genetic Variation
Homologous recombination is a process that allows for the exchange of nucleotide sequences between two similar or identical DNA molecules. This occurs during meiosis, specifically during the second phase of prophase I, where sister chromatids swap sequences. The primary purpose of homologous recombination is to accurately repair harmful double-strand DNA breaks. This process results in new combinations of DNA sequences that provide genetic variation in daughter cells and, ultimately, the organism’s offspring.
In prokaryotic organisms such as bacteria and viruses, homologous recombination occurs during horizontal gene transfer. This process involves the exchange of genetic material between different strains and species. Homologous recombination plays a crucial role in the evolution of these organisms by allowing for the acquisition of new traits and adaptations.
Overall, homologous recombination is a vital mechanism for DNA repair and genetic variation. It ensures the accuracy of DNA replication and contributes to the diversity of life on Earth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 46
Incorrect
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What is the primary role of the nuclear membrane?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To regulate transport of molecules in and out of the nucleus
Explanation:The Role of the Nucleus and Nuclear Envelope in Cell Function
The nucleus is a crucial component of eukaryotic cells, serving as the control centre for the cell. It is characterised by a membrane-enclosed structure that contains the cell’s chromosomes and is heavily involved in regulating gene transcription and protein synthesis. The nuclear envelope, which consists of an outer and inner membrane, plays a critical role in regulating the movement of molecules in and out of the nucleus. This is achieved through nuclear pores on the surface of the envelope, which allow the passage of water-soluble molecules. While the incorrect answer options describe minor roles of the nuclear envelope, its primary function is to act as a regulatory barrier for anything that enters or exits the nucleus. Overall, the nucleus and nuclear envelope are essential components of cell function, playing a critical role in regulating gene expression and maintaining cellular homeostasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Of which cellular structure is the fibrillar centre a component?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The nucleolus
Explanation:The Fibrillar Centre in the Nucleolus
The fibrillar centre is a crucial component of the nucleolus, which is found in most metazoan nucleoli, particularly in higher eukaryotes. Along with the dense fibrillar components and the granular component, it forms the three major components of the nucleolus. During the end of mitosis, the fibrillar centre serves as a storage point for nucleolar ribosomal chromatin and associated ribonucleoprotein transcripts. As the nucleolus becomes active, the ribosomal chromatin and ribonucleoprotein transcripts begin to form the dense fibrillar components, which are more peripherally located and surround the fibrillar centres. The transcription zone for multiple copies of the pre-rRNA genes is the border between these two structures. It is important to note that the fibrillar centre is not a component of any of the cell structures mentioned in the incorrect answer options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 48
Incorrect
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What are the primary constituents of the cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microfilaments, intermediate filaments and microtubules
Explanation:The Eukaryotic Cytoskeleton: A Structural Support System
The eukaryotic cytoskeleton is a network of structures that provide structural support to the cell. It helps the cell maintain its shape, protects it from external pressure, and performs intracellular transport. The cytoskeleton is made up of three major structures: microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules. Microfilaments are thin double helices made up of actin and are involved in pressure resistance and cell motility. Intermediate filaments have a more complex structure and maintain cell shape while bearing tension. Microtubules are hollow cylinders made up of alpha and beta tubulin proteins and are involved in intracellular transport, cell movement, and form the mitotic spindle during cytokinesis.
Cilia, flagella, and lamellipodia are structures that are not part of the cell’s cytoskeleton but are made up of components of it and perform unique functions such as cell movement and extracellular sensing. Kinesin and dynein are motor proteins that support microtubule function. Microfilaments and alpha/beta microtubules are incorrect because they leave out intermediate filaments. Tubulin and actin are proteins of microtubules and microfilaments, respectively, but myosin is a motility protein involved in muscle contraction. The eukaryotic cytoskeleton is an essential component of the cell that provides structural support and enables various cellular functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 49
Incorrect
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What are the vitamins that are soluble in fat?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamins A, D, E and K
Explanation:Absorption of Fat-Soluble Vitamins
Fat-soluble vitamins, namely A, D, E, and K, have a different absorption process compared to water-soluble vitamins. In the gut, these vitamins are combined with other fat-soluble substances such as monoacylglycerols and cholesterol to form micelles. These micelles are then transported to the lymphatic system and eventually enter the bloodstream through the subclavian vein.
However, any issues that affect the absorption of fats will also impact the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. This means that individuals with conditions that affect fat absorption, such as cystic fibrosis or celiac disease, may have difficulty absorbing these vitamins. It is important to ensure adequate intake of fat-soluble vitamins through a balanced diet or supplements to prevent deficiencies and associated health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female patient presents to the vascular clinic for evaluation of varicose veins. During the assessment, a test is conducted to determine the site of incompetence. The patient is instructed to lie down, and her legs are raised to empty the veins. A constricting band is then placed below the sapheno-femoral junction, and the patient is asked to stand up to observe for varicose vein filling. What is the name of this test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tourniquet test
Explanation:Tests for Varicose Veins and Arterial Insufficiency
The Trendelenburg and tourniquet tests are both used to evaluate the site of incompetence in varicose veins at the sapheno-femoral junction. During the Trendelenburg test, the examiner applies pressure with their fingers over the junction, while in the tourniquet test, a tourniquet is placed just below the junction. If the veins fill rapidly upon standing, it suggests that the sapheno-femoral junction is not the source of the incompetence.
Buerger’s test is used to assess the arterial circulation of the lower limb. The lower the angle at which blanching occurs, the more likely there is arterial insufficiency. This test is important in diagnosing peripheral artery disease.
The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is another test used to assess arterial insufficiency. Blood pressure cuffs are used to measure the systolic blood pressure in the ankle and arm. The ratio of the two pressures is calculated, and a lower ratio indicates a higher degree of claudication.
Finally, Perthe’s test is used to assess the patency of the deep femoral vein before varicose vein surgery. This test involves compressing the vein and observing the filling of the superficial veins. If the superficial veins fill quickly, it suggests that the deep femoral vein is patent and can be used for surgery.
In summary, these tests are important in diagnosing and evaluating varicose veins and arterial insufficiency. They help healthcare professionals determine the best course of treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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