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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman complains of fatigue after experiencing flu-like symptoms two weeks ago....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman complains of fatigue after experiencing flu-like symptoms two weeks ago. Upon examination, she has a smooth, small goiter and a pulse rate of 68 bpm. Her lab results show a Free T4 level of 9.3 pmol/L (normal range: 9.8-23.1) and a TSH level of 49.3 mU/L (normal range: 0.35-5.50). What additional test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Primary Hypothyroidism

      The patient’s test results indicate a case of primary hypothyroidism, characterized by low levels of thyroxine (T4) and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). The most likely cause of this condition is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is often accompanied by the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies. While the patient has a goitre, it appears to be smooth and non-threatening, so a thyroid ultrasound is not necessary. Additionally, a radio-iodine uptake scan is unlikely to show significant uptake and is therefore not recommended. Positive TSH receptor antibodies are typically associated with Graves’ disease, which is not the likely diagnosis in this case. For further information on Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, patients can refer to Patient.info.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman complains of amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea for the past six months....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman complains of amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea for the past six months. She has not been taking any medication and has been in good health otherwise. A pregnancy test has come back negative. What would be the most suitable investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prolactin concentration

      Explanation:

      Galactorrhoea and Prolactinomas

      Galactorrhoea is a condition where breast milk is secreted, commonly seen during pregnancy and the early postpartum period. However, if a pregnancy test is negative, it may indicate the presence of a prolactinoma. Prolactinomas are tumors that develop in the pituitary gland, which can be either small or large. These tumors cause symptoms such as menstrual disturbance, infertility, and galactorrhoea due to the secretion of prolactin. Macroprolactinomas can also cause visual field defects, headache, and hypopituitarism due to their mass effect on the pituitary gland. Women with prolactinomas tend to present early due to menstrual cycle and fertility issues, while men may present later.

      The diagnosis of prolactinomas is made by measuring serum prolactin levels and performing MRI imaging of the pituitary gland. Serum prolactin levels are typically several thousand, with a reference range of less than 690 U/L. Elevated prolactin levels can also be caused by pregnancy and lactation, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as antipsychotics, anti-depressants, and anti-convulsants.

      The treatment for prolactinomas involves drugs such as bromocriptine or cabergoline, which work by inhibiting prolactin release through the dopamine system. These drugs can cause significant tumor shrinkage over several weeks and months of treatment. Patients are typically monitored with serum prolactin levels and MRI scans for several years while continuing the medication. Some patients may be able to stop the medication without any further issues, while others may experience a relapse and need to resume treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old man was admitted to hospital with a 5 day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man was admitted to hospital with a 5 day history of vomiting, fever and chills. He developed a purpuric rash on his lower limbs and abdomen. During examination, the patient was found to have a pulse rate of 100 beats per minute and a systolic blood pressure of 70mmHg. A spinal tap was performed for CSF microscopy and a CT scan revealed adrenal haemorrhage. Based on the CT scan, the doctor suspected Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. What is the most common bacterial cause of this syndrome?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is Neisseria meningitidis. This syndrome is characterized by adrenal gland failure caused by bleeding into the adrenal gland. Although any organism that can induce disseminated intravascular coagulation can lead to adrenal haemorrhage, neisseria meningitidis is the most common cause and therefore the answer.

      Understanding Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome

      Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is a condition that occurs when the adrenal glands fail due to a previous adrenal haemorrhage caused by a severe bacterial infection. The most common cause of this condition is Neisseria meningitidis, but it can also be caused by other bacteria such as Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia coli, and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

      The symptoms of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome are similar to those of hypoadrenalism, including lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and weight loss. Other symptoms may include hyperpigmentation, especially in the palmar creases, vitiligo, and loss of pubic hair in women. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, which can lead to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman complains of menstrual irregularity and galactorrhoea for the past year....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman complains of menstrual irregularity and galactorrhoea for the past year. She also experiences occasional headaches. During examination, she was found to have bitemporal superior quadrantanopia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      Prolactinomas cause amenorrhoea, infertility, and galactorrhoea. If the tumour extends outside the sella, visual field defects or other mass effects may occur. Other types of tumours will produce different symptoms depending on their location and structure involved. Craniopharyngiomas originate from the pituitary gland and will produce poralhemianopia if large enough, as well as symptoms related to pituitary hormones. Non-functioning pituitary tumours will have similar symptoms without the pituitary hormone side effects. Tumours of the hypothalamus will present with symptoms of euphoria, headache, weight loss, and mass effect if large enough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 5 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father who is worried that his daughter has not yet had a menstrual period. The girl reports that she has been unable to smell for as long as she can remember but is otherwise in good health. During the examination, the girl is found to have underdeveloped breasts and no pubic hair. Her vital signs and body mass index are within normal limits.

      What is the probable reason for the girl's condition?

      Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hypoplasia

      Correct Answer: Kallman syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this girl is Kallmann syndrome, which is characterized by a combination of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and anosmia. This genetic disorder occurs due to a failure in neuron migration, resulting in deficient hypothalamic gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) and a lack of secondary sexual characteristics. Anosmia is a distinguishing feature of Kallmann syndrome compared to other causes of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Congenital adrenal hypoplasia, which results in insufficient cortisol production due to adrenal cortex enzyme deficiency, can also cause hypogonadotropic hypogonadism but is less likely in this case due to the presence of anosmia. Imperforate hymen, which presents with lower abdominal/pelvic pain without vaginal bleeding, is not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Malnutrition is not indicated as a possible diagnosis.

      Kallmann’s syndrome is a condition that can cause delayed puberty due to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is often inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is believed to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. One of the key indicators of Kallmann’s syndrome is anosmia, or a lack of smell, in boys with delayed puberty. Other features may include hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, low sex hormone levels, and normal or above-average height. Some patients may also have cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.

      Management of Kallmann’s syndrome typically involves testosterone supplementation. Gonadotrophin supplementation may also be used to stimulate sperm production if fertility is desired later in life. It is important for individuals with Kallmann’s syndrome to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and ensure optimal health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman with thyroid cancer undergoes a total thyroidectomy. The histology report...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with thyroid cancer undergoes a total thyroidectomy. The histology report reveals a diagnosis of medullary thyroid cancer. What test would be most useful for screening for disease recurrence?

      Your Answer: Serum TSH levels

      Correct Answer: Serum calcitonin levels

      Explanation:

      The detection of sub clinical recurrence can be facilitated by monitoring the serum levels of calcitonin, which is often secreted by medullary thyroid cancers.

      Thyroid cancer rarely causes hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism as it does not usually secrete thyroid hormones. The most common type of thyroid cancer is papillary carcinoma, which is often found in young females and has an excellent prognosis. Follicular carcinoma is less common, while medullary carcinoma is a cancer of the parafollicular cells that secrete calcitonin and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2. Anaplastic carcinoma is rare and not responsive to treatment, causing pressure symptoms. Lymphoma is also rare and associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

      Management of papillary and follicular cancer involves a total thyroidectomy followed by radioiodine to kill residual cells. Yearly thyroglobulin levels are monitored to detect early recurrent disease. Papillary carcinoma usually contains a mixture of papillary and colloidal filled follicles, while follicular adenoma presents as a solitary thyroid nodule and malignancy can only be excluded on formal histological assessment. Follicular carcinoma may appear macroscopically encapsulated, but microscopically capsular invasion is seen. Medullary carcinoma is associated with raised serum calcitonin levels and familial genetic disease in up to 20% of cases. Anaplastic carcinoma is most common in elderly females and is treated by resection where possible, with palliation achieved through isthmusectomy and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy is ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 7 - At their yearly diabetic check-up, a 65-year-old individual is discovered to have insufficient...

    Incorrect

    • At their yearly diabetic check-up, a 65-year-old individual is discovered to have insufficient glycaemic management despite being treated with metformin and pioglitazone. As a result, it is determined to initiate an SGLT-2 inhibitor alongside their current medication.

      What is the site of action for this newly prescribed drug?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic β cells

      Correct Answer: Renal proximal convoluted tubules

      Explanation:

      SGLT-2 inhibitors work by reversibly blocking the activity of sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT-2) in the renal proximal convoluted tubule. This is the correct answer.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with refractory hypertension. She was...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with refractory hypertension. She was diagnosed with hypertension at the age of 33 and has been on multiple antihypertensive medications without success. She reports experiencing intermittent headaches, flushes, and palpitations.

      During the discussion of further treatment options, the patient reveals that her blood pressure dropped to an average of 100/65 mmHg when she was prescribed an alpha-blocker. This suggests that her hypertension may have a secondary cause.

      What is the most likely anatomical location of the underlying issue?

      Your Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      Although a 1.5cm difference in kidney size or a single occurrence of flash edema may prompt the initiation of an ACE inhibitor, the symptoms described in the patient’s medical history are more indicative of a phaeochromocytoma, which is likely originating from the adrenal medulla.

      The Function of Adrenal Medulla

      The adrenal medulla is responsible for producing almost all of the adrenaline in the body, along with small amounts of noradrenaline. Essentially, it is a specialized and enlarged sympathetic ganglion. This gland plays a crucial role in the body’s response to stress and danger, as adrenaline is a hormone that prepares the body for the fight or flight response. When the body perceives a threat, the adrenal medulla releases adrenaline into the bloodstream, which increases heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration, while also dilating the pupils and increasing blood flow to the muscles. This response helps the body to react quickly and effectively to danger. Overall, the adrenal medulla is an important component of the body’s stress response system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 9 - A 9-year-old girl is being treated by a paediatrician for bedwetting at night....

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old girl is being treated by a paediatrician for bedwetting at night. Non-invasive methods have not yielded any results and her family is interested in trying medication. The paediatrician has approved a trial of desmopressin.

      What is the site of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: The collecting ducts of the kidney

      Explanation:

      Desmopressin is a synthetic version of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) that acts on the collecting ducts in the kidneys. ADH is released by the posterior pituitary gland in response to increased blood osmolality. By increasing the reabsorption of solute-free water in the collecting ducts, ADH reduces blood osmolality and produces small volumes of concentrated urine. This mechanism is effective in reducing the volume of urine produced overnight in cases of nocturnal enuresis (bed-wetting). The distal tubule, glomerulus, and proximal tubule are not sites of ADH action. Although the posterior pituitary gland produces ADH, it exerts its effects on the kidneys.

      Understanding Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is produced in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to conserve body water by promoting water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys through the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.

      ADH secretion is regulated by various factors. An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality, a decrease in volume or pressure, and the presence of angiotensin II can all increase ADH secretion. Conversely, a decrease in extracellular fluid osmolality, an increase in volume, a decrease in temperature, or the absence of ADH can decrease its secretion.

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition that occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be treated with desmopressin, which is an analog of ADH.

      Overall, understanding the role of ADH in regulating water balance in the body is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and preventing conditions like DI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 10 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the doctor by his father with a...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the doctor by his father with a complaint of frequent urination and excessive thirst. Upon conducting a fasting blood glucose test, the results are found to be abnormally high. The doctor suspects type 1 diabetes and initiates first-line injectable therapy.

      What characteristic of this medication should be noted?

      Your Answer: Decreases serum potassium

      Explanation:

      Insulin stimulates the Na+/K+ ATPase pump, which leads to a decrease in serum potassium levels. This is the primary treatment for type 1 diabetes, where the pancreas no longer produces insulin, causing high blood sugar levels. Injectable insulin allows glucose to enter cells, and insulin also increases cellular uptake of potassium while decreasing serum potassium levels. Insulin also stimulates muscle protein synthesis, reducing muscle protein loss. Insulin is secreted in response to hyperglycaemia, where high blood sugar levels trigger the beta cells of the pancreas to release insulin in healthy individuals.

      Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats in the body. It works by causing cells in the liver, muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the bloodstream, which is then stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or as triglycerides in fat cells. The human insulin protein is made up of 51 amino acids and is a dimer of an A-chain and a B-chain linked together by disulfide bonds. Pro-insulin is first formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of pancreatic beta cells and then cleaved to form insulin and C-peptide. Insulin is stored in secretory granules and released in response to high levels of glucose in the blood. In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also inhibits lipolysis, reduces muscle protein loss, and increases cellular uptake of potassium through stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of polyuria. Upon further inquiry,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of polyuria. Upon further inquiry, she reports experiencing polyphagia and polydipsia as well. Her blood test reveals hyperglycaemia and low C-peptide levels.

      What is the underlying mechanism causing her hyperglycaemia?

      Your Answer: Decreased GLUT-2 expression

      Correct Answer: Decreased GLUT-4 expression

      Explanation:

      The movement of glucose into cells requires insulin. In this case, the patient is likely suffering from type 1 diabetes mellitus or latent autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA) with low c-peptide levels, indicating a complete lack of insulin. As a result, insulin is unable to stimulate the expression of GLUT-4, which significantly reduces the uptake of glucose into skeletal and adipose cells.

      The patient’s low GLUT-1 expression is unlikely to be the cause of hyperglycemia. GLUT-1 is primarily expressed in fetal tissues and has a higher affinity for oxygen, allowing fetal cells to survive even in hypoglycemic conditions.

      GLUT-2 expression is mainly found in hepatocytes and beta-cells of the pancreas. It allows for the bi-directional movement of glucose, equalizing glucose concentrations inside and outside the cell membrane, and enabling glucose-sensitive cells to measure serum glucose levels and respond accordingly.

      GLUT-3 expression is mainly found in neuronal cells and has a high affinity, similar to GLUT-1. This allows for the survival of brain cells in hypoglycemic conditions.

      Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats in the body. It works by causing cells in the liver, muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the bloodstream, which is then stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or as triglycerides in fat cells. The human insulin protein is made up of 51 amino acids and is a dimer of an A-chain and a B-chain linked together by disulfide bonds. Pro-insulin is first formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of pancreatic beta cells and then cleaved to form insulin and C-peptide. Insulin is stored in secretory granules and released in response to high levels of glucose in the blood. In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also inhibits lipolysis, reduces muscle protein loss, and increases cellular uptake of potassium through stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old patient visits their doctor complaining of dehydration caused by vomiting and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient visits their doctor complaining of dehydration caused by vomiting and diarrhoea. The kidneys detect reduced renal perfusion, leading to activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. What is the specific part of the adrenal gland required for this system?

      Your Answer: Zona reticularis

      Correct Answer: Zona glomerulosa

      Explanation:

      Aldosterone is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal gland.

      Renin is released by juxtaglomerular cells located in the nephron.

      ACE is produced by the pulmonary endothelium in the lungs.

      The adrenal gland is composed of the zona glomerulosa, fasciculata, and reticularis.

      Glucocorticoids are produced in the zona fasciculata.

      Adrenal Physiology: Medulla and Cortex

      The adrenal gland is composed of two main parts: the medulla and the cortex. The medulla is responsible for secreting the catecholamines noradrenaline and adrenaline, which are released in response to sympathetic nervous system stimulation. The chromaffin cells of the medulla are innervated by the splanchnic nerves, and the release of these hormones is triggered by the secretion of acetylcholine from preganglionic sympathetic fibers. Phaeochromocytomas, which are tumors derived from chromaffin cells, can cause excessive secretion of both adrenaline and noradrenaline.

      The adrenal cortex is divided into three distinct zones: the zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, and zona reticularis. Each zone is responsible for secreting different hormones. The outer zone, zona glomerulosa, secretes aldosterone, which regulates electrolyte balance and blood pressure. The middle zone, zona fasciculata, secretes glucocorticoids, which are involved in the regulation of metabolism, immune function, and stress response. The inner zone, zona reticularis, secretes androgens, which are involved in the development and maintenance of male sex characteristics.

      Most of the hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex, including glucocorticoids and aldosterone, are bound to plasma proteins in the circulation. Glucocorticoids are inactivated and excreted by the liver. Understanding the physiology of the adrenal gland is important for the diagnosis and treatment of various endocrine disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 13 - A 23-year-old male visits his GP complaining of polyuria, chronic thirst and pale-coloured...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male visits his GP complaining of polyuria, chronic thirst and pale-coloured urine that have persisted for 3 months. He had a concussion from a car accident a month before the onset of his urinary symptoms. The patient is diagnosed with cranial diabetes insipidus after undergoing several tests.

      What would the water deprivation test likely reveal in this case?

      Your Answer: Low urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin

      Correct Answer: Low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation, but high after desmopressin

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation, but high after desmopressin, for a patient with cranial diabetes insipidus (DI). This condition is characterized by polyuria, chronic thirst, and pale-coloured urine, and is caused by insufficient antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. As a result, the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine, leading to a low urine osmolality even during water deprivation. However, the kidneys will respond to desmopressin (synthetic ADH) to produce concentrated urine.

      High urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin is incorrect, as it would be seen in a healthy individual or a patient with primary polydipsia, a psychogenic disorder characterized by excessive drinking despite being properly hydrated.

      Low urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin is incorrect, as this is typical of nephrogenic DI, a condition in which the kidneys are insensitive to ADH.

      High urine osmolality after fluid deprivation, but normal after desmopressin is incorrect, as this would not be commonly seen with any pathological state.

      Low urine osmolality after desmopressin, but high after fluid deprivation is incorrect, as this would not be commonly seen with any pathological state.

      The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 14 - A 12-year-old girl is being informed about the typical changes that occur during...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is being informed about the typical changes that occur during puberty by her doctor. The doctor explains that there are three main changes that usually happen before menarche. What is the order in which these changes occur?

      Your Answer: Breast buds, growth of axillary hair, growth of pubic hair

      Correct Answer: Breast buds, growth of pubic hair, growth of axillary hair

      Explanation:

      The onset of menarche is preceded by three sequential physical changes: the development of breast buds, growth of pubic hair, and growth of axillary hair. These changes are brought about by the hormone estrogen, which is crucial for the process of puberty.

      Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females

      Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adolescence. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. Testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for boys occurs at the age of 14. On the other hand, in females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which usually occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for girls reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, or the first menstrual period, typically occurs at the age of 13, with a range of 11-15 years. Following menarche, there is only a slight increase of about 4% in height.

      During puberty, it is normal for boys to experience gynaecomastia, or the development of breast tissue. Girls may also experience asymmetrical breast growth. Additionally, diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland may be seen in both males and females. These changes are all part of the normal process of puberty and should not be a cause for concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old man with a history of poorly-controlled type 2 diabetes presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of poorly-controlled type 2 diabetes presents to the emergency department with altered mental status. His daughter reports that he has been complaining of increased thirst and urination over the past few days and has been skipping his insulin injections. On examination, he is dehydrated with a GCS of 3. His vital signs are recorded, and he is intubated and given ventilatory support. An arterial blood gas shows mild metabolic acidosis and his capillary blood glucose is undetectable. What is the next most appropriate step in his treatment?

      Your Answer: Potassium chloride

      Correct Answer: 0.9% sodium chloride

      Explanation:

      In the ABCDE approach, the patient should be promptly given sodium chloride to restore their intravascular volume and maintain circulatory function. However, insulin is not recommended as an initial treatment for HHS. This is because glucose in the intravascular space helps maintain circulating volume, which is crucial for dehydrated patients. Administering insulin before fluid resuscitation can cause a reduction in intravascular volume and worsen hypotension. It may also worsen pre-existing hypokalaemia by driving potassium into the intracellular space. Potassium chloride should be administered only after fluid resuscitation and guided by potassium levels obtained from an arterial blood gas. Thiamine supplementation is not indicated at the moment as urgent resuscitation should be the priority.

      Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a serious medical emergency that can be challenging to manage and has a high mortality rate of up to 20%. It is typically seen in elderly patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and is caused by hyperglycaemia leading to osmotic diuresis, severe dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. HHS develops gradually over several days, resulting in extreme dehydration and metabolic disturbances. Symptoms include polyuria, polydipsia, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, altered consciousness, and focal neurological deficits. Diagnosis is based on hypovolaemia, marked hyperglycaemia, significantly raised serum osmolarity, and no significant hyperketonaemia or acidosis.

      Management of HHS involves fluid replacement with IV 0.9% sodium chloride solution at a rate of 0.5-1 L/hour, depending on clinical assessment. Potassium levels should be monitored and added to fluids as needed. Insulin should not be given unless blood glucose stops falling while giving IV fluids. Patients are at risk of thrombosis due to hyperviscosity, so venous thromboembolism prophylaxis is recommended. Complications of HHS include vascular complications such as myocardial infarction and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, and lethargy. The pain started suddenly 2 hours ago and is spread across her entire abdomen. She has a medical history of appendicectomy eight years ago and type 1 diabetes mellitus. Upon examination, her pH is 7.25 (normal range: 7.35-7.45) and bicarbonate is 9 mmol/L (normal range: 22-29mmol/L). What additional investigations are necessary to confirm the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blood ketones

      Explanation:

      Abdominal pain can be an initial symptom of DKA, which is the most probable diagnosis in this case. The patient’s symptoms, including abdominal pain, strongly suggest DKA. Blood ketones are the appropriate investigation as they are part of the diagnostic criteria for DKA, along with pH and bicarbonate.

      Amylase could help rule out acute pancreatitis, but it is not the most likely diagnosis, so it would not confirm it. Pancreatitis typically presents with severe upper abdominal pain and vomiting. Polydipsia and polyuria are more indicative of DKA, and the patient’s known history of type 1 diabetes mellitus makes DKA more likely.

      Beta-hCG would be an appropriate investigation for abdominal pain in a woman of childbearing age, but it is not necessary in this case as DKA is the most likely diagnosis.

      Blood glucose levels would be useful if the patient were not a known type 1 diabetic, but they do not form part of the diagnostic criteria for DKA. Blood glucose levels would also be helpful in distinguishing between DKA and HHS, but HHS is unlikely in this case as it occurs in patients with type 2 diabetes.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 17 - A 34-year-old male presents with tingling in his thumb, index, and middle finger,...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old male presents with tingling in his thumb, index, and middle finger, along with complaints of excessive fatigue and snoring. Upon examination, he displays a prominent brow ridge and significant facial changes over time. Following blood tests and an MRI scan, the patient is prescribed octreotide. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Dopamine agonist

      Correct Answer: Somatostatin analogue

      Explanation:

      Acromegaly is a condition that results from excessive growth hormone production. The release of growth hormone is directly inhibited by somatostatin, which is why somatostatin analogues are used to treat acromegaly.

      To answer the question, one must first recognize the symptoms of acromegaly, such as carpal tunnel syndrome, sleep apnea, and changes in facial features over time. The second part of the question involves identifying octreotide as a somatostatin analogue commonly used to treat acromegaly.

      While dopamine agonists were previously used to treat acromegaly, they are no longer preferred due to the availability of more effective treatments. Dopamine antagonists have never been used to treat acromegaly. Pegvisomant is an example of a growth hormone antagonist, but antagonists for insulin growth factor-1 release have not yet been developed.

      Acromegaly is a condition that can be managed through various treatment options. The first-line treatment for the majority of patients is trans-sphenoidal surgery. However, if the pituitary tumour is inoperable or surgery is unsuccessful, medication may be indicated. One such medication is a somatostatin analogue, which directly inhibits the release of growth hormone. Octreotide is an example of this medication and is effective in 50-70% of patients. Another medication is pegvisomant, which is a GH receptor antagonist that prevents dimerization of the GH receptor. It is administered once daily subcutaneously and is very effective, decreasing IGF-1 levels in 90% of patients to normal. However, it does not reduce tumour volume, so surgery is still needed if there is a mass effect. Dopamine agonists, such as bromocriptine, were the first effective medical treatment for acromegaly but are now superseded by somatostatin analogues and are only effective in a minority of patients. External irradiation may be used for older patients or following failed surgical/medical treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old man with a smoking history of over 30 years presented to...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a smoking history of over 30 years presented to the emergency department with acute confusion and disorientation. He was unable to recognize his family members and relatives. He had been experiencing unexplained weight loss, loss of appetite, and occasional episodes of haemoptysis for the past few months. Urgent blood tests were performed, revealing abnormal levels of electrolytes and renal function.

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the mechanism of action of the hormone that is being secreted excessively in this case?

      Your Answer: Insertion of aquaporin-2 channels

      Explanation:

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) plays a crucial role in promoting water reabsorption by inserting aquaporin-2 channels in principal cells. In small-cell lung cancer patients, decreased serum sodium levels are commonly caused by the paraneoplastic syndrome of inadequate ADH secretion (SIADH) or ADH released during the initial lysis of tumour cells after chemotherapy. It is important to note that arteriolar vasodilation, promoting water excretion, decreased urine osmolarity, and increased portal blood flow are not functions of ADH.

      Understanding Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is produced in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to conserve body water by promoting water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys through the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.

      ADH secretion is regulated by various factors. An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality, a decrease in volume or pressure, and the presence of angiotensin II can all increase ADH secretion. Conversely, a decrease in extracellular fluid osmolality, an increase in volume, a decrease in temperature, or the absence of ADH can decrease its secretion.

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition that occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be treated with desmopressin, which is an analog of ADH.

      Overall, understanding the role of ADH in regulating water balance in the body is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and preventing conditions like DI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 19 - These thyroid function tests were obtained on a 55-year-old female who has recently...

    Correct

    • These thyroid function tests were obtained on a 55-year-old female who has recently been treated for hypertension:
      Free T4 28.5 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
      TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.5)
      Free T3 10.8 pmol/L (3.5-6.5)
      She now presents with typical symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
      Which medication is likely to have caused this?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and its Effects on Thyroid Function

      Amiodarone is a medication that can have an impact on thyroid function, resulting in both hypo- and hyperthyroidism. This is due to the high iodine content in the drug, which contributes to its antiarrhythmic effects. Atenolol, on the other hand, is a beta blocker that is commonly used to treat thyrotoxicosis. Warfarin is another medication that is used to treat atrial fibrillation.

      There are two types of thyrotoxicosis that can be caused by amiodarone. Type 1 results in excess thyroxine synthesis, while type 2 leads to the release of excess thyroxine but normal levels of synthesis. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor thyroid function in patients taking amiodarone and adjust treatment as necessary to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 20 - A 23-year-old man was diagnosed with maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY) type...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man was diagnosed with maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY) type 1 and has been on an oral anti-diabetic agent for the past year. What is the mechanism of action of the drug he is most likely taking?

      Your Answer: Binding to ATP-dependent K+ channel on the pancreatic beta cell membrane

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely taking a sulfonylurea medication, which works by binding to the ATP-dependent K+ channel on the pancreatic beta-cell membrane to promote endogenous insulin secretion. This is the recommended first-line treatment for patients with MODY type 1, as their genetic defect results in reduced insulin secretion. Thiazolidinediones (glitazones) activate peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-gamma (PPARγ) and are not typically used in this population. Metformin (biguanide class) inhibits hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral uptake, but is less effective than sulfonylureas in MODY type 1. Acarbose inhibits intestinal alpha-glucosidase and is not used in MODY patients. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors (gliptins) are commonly used in type 2 diabetes but are not first-line treatment for MODY.

      Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but only if the beta cells in the pancreas are functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, known as the ATP-dependent K+ channel (KATP).

      While sulfonylureas can be effective in managing diabetes, they can also cause some adverse effects. The most common side effect is hypoglycemia, which is more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Another common side effect is weight gain. However, there are also rarer side effects that can occur, such as hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to inappropriate ADH secretion, bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy.

      It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the endocrinology clinic with a diagnosis of Grave's...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the endocrinology clinic with a diagnosis of Grave's disease. The diagnosis was made based on her elevated levels of thyroid hormones T3 and T4, as well as symptoms of heat intolerance, weight loss, and tremors. Typically, where are the receptors for thyroid hormones found?

      Your Answer: Membrane

      Correct Answer: Nucleus

      Explanation:

      Thyroid hormones can enter cells through diffusion or carriers. Once inside, they bind to intracellular DNA-binding proteins called thyroid hormone receptors located in the nucleus. This binding forms a complex that attaches to the thyroid hormone responsive element on DNA. The outcome of this process is an increase in mRNA production, protein synthesis, Na/K ATPase, mitochondrial function leading to higher oxygen consumption, and adrenoceptors.

      Thyroid disorders are commonly encountered in clinical practice, with hypothyroidism and thyrotoxicosis being the most prevalent. Women are ten times more likely to develop these conditions than men. The thyroid gland is a bi-lobed structure located in the anterior neck and is part of a hypothalamus-pituitary-end organ system that regulates the production of thyroxine and triiodothyronine hormones. These hormones help regulate energy sources, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. Hypothyroidism can be primary or secondary, while thyrotoxicosis is mostly primary. Autoimmunity is the leading cause of thyroid problems in the developed world.

      Thyroid disorders can present in various ways, with symptoms often being the opposite depending on whether the thyroid gland is under or overactive. For example, hypothyroidism may result in weight gain, while thyrotoxicosis leads to weight loss. Thyroid function tests are the primary investigation for diagnosing thyroid disorders. These tests primarily look at serum TSH and T4 levels, with T3 being measured in specific cases. TSH levels are more sensitive than T4 levels for monitoring patients with existing thyroid problems.

      Treatment for thyroid disorders depends on the cause. Patients with hypothyroidism are given levothyroxine to replace the underlying deficiency. Patients with thyrotoxicosis may be treated with propranolol to control symptoms such as tremors, carbimazole to reduce thyroid hormone production, or radioiodine treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 22 - A 54-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of chronic thirst, polyuria, and nocturia...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of chronic thirst, polyuria, and nocturia that have persisted for 2 months. She has a medical history of polycystic kidney disease that has led to chronic kidney disease (CKD). Her most recent eGFR result was 28 mL/min/1.73m². Following a series of tests, she is diagnosed with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. What would the water deprivation test likely reveal in this patient's case?

      Your Answer: Low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation, but high after desmopressin

      Correct Answer: Low urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is low urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin. This is indicative of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, a condition where the kidneys are insensitive to antidiuretic hormone (ADH), resulting in an inability to concentrate urine. This leads to low urine osmolality even during water deprivation and no response to desmopressin. High urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin would be seen in a healthy individual or primary polydipsia, while low urine osmolality after desmopressin but high after fluid deprivation is not commonly seen in any pathological state. Similarly, low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation but high after desmopressin is typically seen in cranial DI, which is not the best answer as the patient has no risk factors for this condition.

      The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 23 - A 43-year-old obese man comes to your clinic for a diabetes check-up. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old obese man comes to your clinic for a diabetes check-up. Despite being treated with metformin and gliclazide, his HbA1c remains elevated at 55 mmol/mol. He has previously found it difficult to follow dietary advice and lose weight. To enhance his diabetic management, you prescribe sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor. What is the mode of action of this novel medication?

      Your Answer: Increases urinary excretion of glucose

      Correct Answer: Inhibits the breakdown of incretins

      Explanation:

      DPP-4 inhibitors, GLP-1 agonists, SGLT-2 inhibitors, thiazolidinediones, and sulfonylureas are all medications used to treat diabetes. DPP-4 inhibitors work by inhibiting the breakdown of incretins such as GLP-1 and GIP, which are released in response to food and help to lower blood glucose levels. GLP-1 agonists directly stimulate incretin receptors, while SGLT-2 inhibitors increase the urinary secretion of glucose. Thiazolidinediones stimulate intracellular signaling molecules responsible for glucose and lipid metabolism, and sulfonylureas stimulate beta cells to secrete more insulin. However, sulfonylureas may be less effective in long-standing diabetes as many beta cells may no longer function properly.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 24 - An 80-year-old patient, Gwyneth, is being examined by her physician for recurring dizziness...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old patient, Gwyneth, is being examined by her physician for recurring dizziness upon standing up, which is interfering with her daily activities. Gwyneth is in good health and does not take any regular medications. The physician diagnoses Gwyneth with orthostatic hypotension and prescribes fludrocortisone as a treatment.

      What is the most probable side effect that Gwyneth may encounter?

      Your Answer: Fluid retention

      Explanation:

      Corticosteroids are a class of medications commonly prescribed for various clinical uses, such as treating allergies, inflammatory conditions, auto-immunity, and endogenous steroid replacement.

      There are different types of corticosteroids, each with varying levels of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid activity. Glucocorticoids mimic cortisol, which is involved in carbohydrate metabolism and the stress response, while mineralocorticoids mimic aldosterone, which regulates sodium and water retention in response to low blood pressure.

      The clinical uses and side effects of corticosteroids depend on their level of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid activity. Fludrocortisone, for example, has minimal glucocorticoid activity and high mineralocorticoid activity.

      Therefore, fluid retention is the most associated side effect with mineralocorticoid activity, while depression, hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, and peptic ulceration are side effects associated with glucocorticoid activity.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 25 - What is the crucial step in the production of all steroid hormones? ...

    Correct

    • What is the crucial step in the production of all steroid hormones?

      Your Answer: Conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone

      Explanation:

      The Role of Pregnenolone in Steroid Hormone Synthesis

      In the production of steroid hormones in the human body, the conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone is a crucial step. Pregnenolone serves as the precursor for all steroid hormones, and its formation is the limiting factor in the synthesis of these hormones. This conversion process occurs within the mitochondria of steroid-producing tissues. Essentially, the body needs to convert cholesterol to pregnenolone before it can produce any other steroid hormones. This highlights the importance of pregnenolone in the body’s endocrine system and its role in regulating various physiological processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old male has been diagnosed with Cushing's disease due to a pituitary...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male has been diagnosed with Cushing's disease due to a pituitary adenoma, resulting in elevated plasma cortisol levels. Which part of the adrenal gland is responsible for producing cortisol hormone?

      Your Answer: Zona reticularis

      Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata

      Explanation:

      The adrenal gland comprises two primary parts: the cortex and medulla.

      The adrenal medulla is accountable for the production of adrenaline and noradrenaline, which are catecholamines.

      The adrenal cortex is divided into three layers: glomerulosa, fasciculata, and reticularis. The glomerulosa primarily produces mineralocorticoids, while the reticularis mainly produces sex steroids. As a result, the Zona fasciculata is the primary source of glucocorticosteroids.

      Cortisol: Functions and Regulation

      Cortisol is a hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. It plays a crucial role in various bodily functions and is essential for life. Cortisol increases blood pressure by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles, allowing for a normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines. However, it inhibits bone formation by decreasing osteoblasts, type 1 collagen, and absorption of calcium from the gut, while increasing osteoclastic activity. Cortisol also increases insulin resistance and metabolism by increasing gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, and proteolysis. It inhibits inflammatory and immune responses, but maintains the function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.

      The regulation of cortisol secretion is controlled by the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. The pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH. Stress can also increase cortisol secretion.

      Excess cortisol in the body can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms such as weight gain, muscle weakness, and high blood pressure. Understanding the functions and regulation of cortisol is important for maintaining overall health and preventing hormonal imbalances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 27 - A 33-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of increased thirst...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of increased thirst and frequent urination. He had suffered a head injury a few days ago and had previously been discharged after investigations. Upon examination, he appears dehydrated and is admitted to a medical ward. The urine osmolality test results show a low level of 250 mosmol/kg after water deprivation and a high level of 655 mosmol/kg after desmopressin administration. Based on this information, where is the deficient substance typically active?

      Your Answer: Posterior pituitary gland

      Correct Answer: Collecting duct

      Explanation:

      The site of action for antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is the collecting ducts in the kidneys. A diagnosis of cranial diabetes insipidus, which can occur after head trauma, is confirmed by low urine osmolalities. In this condition, there is a deficiency of ADH, which is synthesized in the hypothalamus but acts on the collecting ducts to promote water reabsorption. Therefore, the hypothalamus is not the site of action for ADH, despite being where it is synthesized. The Loop of Henle and proximal convoluted tubule are also not the primary sites of action for ADH. ADH is released from the posterior pituitary gland, but its action occurs in the collecting ducts.

      Understanding Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is produced in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to conserve body water by promoting water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys through the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.

      ADH secretion is regulated by various factors. An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality, a decrease in volume or pressure, and the presence of angiotensin II can all increase ADH secretion. Conversely, a decrease in extracellular fluid osmolality, an increase in volume, a decrease in temperature, or the absence of ADH can decrease its secretion.

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition that occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be treated with desmopressin, which is an analog of ADH.

      Overall, understanding the role of ADH in regulating water balance in the body is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and preventing conditions like DI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 28 - A 27-year-old mother is concerned about her infant's skin tone. The baby was...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old mother is concerned about her infant's skin tone. The baby was delivered naturally 18 days ago and is now showing signs of jaundice. Despite having normal vital signs, what could be the possible reason for the baby's prolonged jaundice?

      Your Answer: Congenital hyperthyroidism

      Correct Answer: Congenital hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      The age of the baby is an important factor in determining the possible causes of neonatal jaundice. Congenital hypothyroidism may be responsible for prolonged jaundice in newborns. The following is a summary of the potential causes of jaundice based on the age at which it appears:

      Jaundice within 24 hours of birth may be caused by haemolytic disease of the newborn, infections, or G6PD deficiency.

      Jaundice appearing between 24-72 hours may be due to physiological factors, sepsis, or polycythaemia.

      Jaundice appearing after 72 hours may be caused by extrahepatic biliary atresia, sepsis, or other factors.

      Understanding Congenital Hypothyroidism

      Congenital hypothyroidism is a condition that affects approximately 1 in 4000 newborns. If left undiagnosed and untreated within the first four weeks of life, it can lead to irreversible cognitive impairment. Some of the common features of this condition include prolonged neonatal jaundice, delayed mental and physical milestones, short stature, a puffy face, macroglossia, and hypotonia.

      To ensure early detection and treatment, children are screened for congenital hypothyroidism at 5-7 days of age using the heel prick test. This test involves taking a small sample of blood from the baby’s heel and analyzing it for thyroid hormone levels. If the results indicate low levels of thyroid hormone, the baby will be referred for further testing and treatment.

      It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of the signs and symptoms of congenital hypothyroidism and to ensure that newborns receive timely screening and treatment to prevent long-term complications. With early detection and appropriate management, children with congenital hypothyroidism can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 29 - You are in charge of the care of a 23-year-old man who has...

    Correct

    • You are in charge of the care of a 23-year-old man who has come for a military medical evaluation. Based on his symptoms, you suspect that he has type 1 diabetes and has been secretly administering insulin. What clinical methods can you use to evaluate his endogenous insulin production?

      Your Answer: C-peptide

      Explanation:

      C-peptide is a reliable indicator of insulin production as it is secreted in proportion to insulin. It is often used clinically to measure endogenous insulin production.

      Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats in the body. It works by causing cells in the liver, muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the bloodstream, which is then stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or as triglycerides in fat cells. The human insulin protein is made up of 51 amino acids and is a dimer of an A-chain and a B-chain linked together by disulfide bonds. Pro-insulin is first formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of pancreatic beta cells and then cleaved to form insulin and C-peptide. Insulin is stored in secretory granules and released in response to high levels of glucose in the blood. In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also inhibits lipolysis, reduces muscle protein loss, and increases cellular uptake of potassium through stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 30 - The acute phase response to injury in elderly patients does not involve which...

    Incorrect

    • The acute phase response to injury in elderly patients does not involve which of the following?

      Your Answer: Decreased albumin

      Correct Answer: Increased transferrin

      Explanation:

      The acute phase response is characterized by various physiological changes, such as the production of acute phase proteins, decreased levels of transport proteins like albumin and transferrin, hepatic retention of cations, fever, an increase in neutrophil count, elevated muscle proteolysis, and alterations in vascular permeability.

      Surgery triggers a stress response that causes hormonal and metabolic changes in the body. This response is characterized by substrate mobilization, muscle protein loss, sodium and water retention, suppression of anabolic hormone secretion, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, and immunological and haematological changes. The hypothalamic-pituitary axis and the sympathetic nervous systems are activated, and the normal feedback mechanisms of control of hormone secretion fail. The stress response is associated with increased growth hormone, cortisol, renin, adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), aldosterone, prolactin, antidiuretic hormone, and glucagon, while insulin, testosterone, oestrogen, thyroid stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, and follicle stimulating hormone are decreased or remain unchanged. The metabolic effects of cortisol are enhanced, including skeletal muscle protein breakdown, stimulation of lipolysis, anti-insulin effect, mineralocorticoid effects, and anti-inflammatory effects. The stress response also affects carbohydrate, protein, lipid, salt and water metabolism, and cytokine release. Modifying the response can be achieved through opioids, spinal anaesthesia, nutrition, growth hormone, anabolic steroids, and normothermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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