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Question 1
Correct
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A 76-year-old woman, who was previously in good health, presents for review. For the past 2–3 months, she has suffered from increasing pain and stiffness, particularly in the early part of the day, affecting her shoulders and, most recently, her hips. There has also been low-grade fever and she has lost 4 kg in weight. Examination reveals normal proximal muscle strength.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 111 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 96 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 345 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 75 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Creatine kinase 31 IU/l 23–175 IU/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Chest X-ray (CXR) Slight cardiomegaly, otherwise normal
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Shoulder and Pelvic Girdle Pain
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with shoulder and pelvic girdle pain without muscle weakness and a markedly raised ESR. Rapid improvement of symptoms with corticosteroids and a subsequent fall in ESR confirms the diagnosis. Temporal arthritis, a vasculitis associated with PMR, should also be considered in patients over 50 presenting with headache, vision loss, and jaw claudication. Myositis and dermatomyositis are less likely diagnoses due to the patient’s normal CK and lack of muscle weakness. Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely given the patient’s age and the classic joint involvement pattern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A senior citizen is inquiring about the power of a statistical test.
Which statement best describes the power of a statistical test?Your Answer: The p-value
Correct Answer: The probability of not committing a type 2 error
Explanation:Understanding Type 1 and Type 2 Errors in Scientific Studies
When conducting a scientific study, it is important to determine whether there is a difference between two populations. A statistical test is used to analyze the results and determine if the difference is significant. However, there are two types of errors that can occur in this process.
Type 1 errors occur when the null hypothesis is rejected, in favor of the alternative hypothesis, even though the null hypothesis is true. This is also known as a false positive and is typically set at a 5% or 1% probability level.
Type 2 errors occur when the null hypothesis is accepted, in favor of the alternative hypothesis, even though the alternative hypothesis is true. This is also known as a false negative and is undesirable as it means that the study failed to detect a significant difference.
The power of a test is the probability of not making a type 2 error. It depends on the sample size, effect size, and statistical significance criterion used. The p-value is the lowest level of significance at which the null hypothesis is rejected. The smaller the p-value, the stronger the evidence is in favor of the alternative hypothesis.
Understanding these types of errors is crucial in scientific research as it helps researchers to interpret their results accurately and avoid making false conclusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 24-hour-old neonate requires a detailed examination on the Postnatal Ward. It was a forceps delivery at 41+3 weeks’ gestation. The detailed examination is normal, except you notice slight reduced tone in the right leg and reduced Moro reflex on the right. The leg is resting in a slightly extended position. The examination is otherwise normal.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Refer to Paediatric Neurology
Correct Answer: Refer to physiotherapy
Explanation:Assessing Erb’s Palsy in a Neonate: Appropriate Management and Investigations
Erb’s palsy is a neurological condition that commonly presents as reduced tone and movement in one arm, often due to shoulder dystocia during birth. In neonates, this can be identified by reduced Moro reflex and the arm resting in a waiter’s tip position. While Erb’s palsy is self-resolving, physiotherapy is recommended to strengthen the affected arm.
If there are no other neurological deficits, referral to a Paediatric Neurologist is not necessary. Cranial ultrasound and head MRI are also not appropriate investigations as they do not provide relevant information for this condition. Similarly, a shoulder X-ray is not necessary as the issue is neurological in nature. Overall, appropriate management and investigations for Erb’s palsy in a neonate involve physiotherapy and observation for resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis is prescribed oral bisphosphonates. She expresses concern about the potential side-effects of the medication.
What is the most frequent side-effect she may encounter?Your Answer: Oesophagitis
Explanation:Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent bone loss and treat conditions such as Paget’s disease, hypercalcaemia, and metastatic bone disease. However, they can cause side-effects such as oesophagitis, gastritis, and osteonecrosis of the jaw. Patients are advised to take bisphosphonates with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30-60 minutes after ingestion to reduce the risk of upper gastrointestinal symptoms. Other side-effects include fever, myalgias, and arthralgias, which are more common with intravenous bisphosphonate therapy. Hypercalcaemia is not a common side-effect, and bisphosphonates can actually help treat it. Atrial fibrillation and femoral shaft fractures are not commonly associated with bisphosphonate use, but osteonecrosis of the jaw is a rare but well-known side-effect that can be reduced with antibiotic prophylaxis before dental interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 45-year-old patient presents with the following full blood count (FBC) result: Hb 105 g/L (130-180), RBC 4.5 ×1012/L, Hct 0.353 (0.4-0.52), MCV 75 fL (80-96), MCH 32.5 pg (28-32), Platelets 325 ×109/L (150-400), WBC 7.91 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 6.15 ×109/L (1.5-7.0), Lymphocytes 1.54 ×109/L (1.5-4.0), Monocytes 0.33 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.16 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), Basophils 0.08 ×109/L (0-0.1), Others 0.14 ×109/L. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation for this FBC result?
Your Answer: Ferritin concentration
Explanation:Interpretation of FBC Results
When analyzing a full blood count (FBC), a microcytosis with low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and anaemia (low Hb) is indicative of iron deficiency anaemia. To confirm this, a ferritin test should be requested, followed by an investigation into the source of blood loss if iron deficiency is confirmed. If faecal occult blood is positive, an endoscopy may be necessary. On the other hand, macrocytic anaemia with elevated MCV is caused by folate and B12 deficiency, while hypothyroidism is associated with elevated MCV. While a bone marrow biopsy can also show iron deficiency, it is an invasive procedure and is not necessary in a primary care setting. Therefore, interpreting FBC results requires a thorough of the different types of anaemia and their associated causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of a headache on the right side of his head, localized at the eye, and neck pain. He reports that the pain started suddenly over an hour. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and a 20-year pack history of smoking. He appears to be in significant pain, with sweat on his forehead.
Observations reveal a heart rate of 102 bpm, blood pressure of 158/89 mmHg, and a Glasgow coma scale of 15/15. On examination, the right pupil is small, and the eyelid is drooping. The sclera is white, and there is no swelling of the eyelid. The left eye appears normal.
What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?Your Answer: Cluster headache
Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection
Explanation:A localised headache, neck pain, and neurological signs such as Horner’s syndrome are indicative of carotid artery dissection. This is a crucial diagnosis to consider when dealing with such symptoms. The presence of a localised headache, neck pain, and Horner’s syndrome suggest carotid artery dissection. The patient’s right eye is showing signs of loss of sympathetic innervation, such as a small pupil and drooping eyelid. The presence of sweat on the forehead indicates that the lesion causing Horner’s syndrome is postganglionic. A carotid artery dissection is the most likely cause of these symptoms, given the patient’s risk factors of smoking and hypertension. Cluster headache, encephalitis, and subarachnoid haemorrhage are less likely diagnoses, as they do not fit with the patient’s symptoms and presentation.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for three weeks has reported that despite instilling a full 2 litre bag of fluid, he only gets 1.9 litres back. Additionally, he has noticed swelling in his abdomen and tenderness upon palpation. What could be the probable cause of these issues?
Your Answer: Catheter malposition
Correct Answer: Leak from catheter site
Explanation:Common Issues with Peritoneal Dialysis Catheters
Leakage is a common issue with peritoneal dialysis catheters, especially in patients who have had previous abdominal surgery. It can be noticed as fluid leaking around the exit site or causing mild swelling. Reducing fluid volumes may help, but catheter repair or replacement may be necessary. If patients show signs of fluid overload, a higher concentration of osmotic agent may be required. Catheter malposition is often painful and occurs early after insertion. Constipation is the most common cause of outflow obstruction, which tends to be consistent or worsening. Kinking of the catheter also occurs early after insertion and can cause problems with fluid inflow and outflow. Proper management of these issues is important for the success of peritoneal dialysis treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense abdominal pain. She is currently receiving peritoneal dialysis, and the physician suspects that she may be suffering from peritonitis.
What is the most indicative sign or symptom of peritonitis in this patient?Your Answer: Tachycardia
Explanation:Understanding Peritonitis: Symptoms and Treatment
Peritonitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the serosa that lines the abdominal cavity and viscera. It is commonly caused by the introduction of an infective organism, perforation of an abdominal organ, trauma, or collection formation. Patients may also present with sterile peritonitis due to irritants such as bile or blood. Risk factors include existing ascites, liver disease, or peritoneal dialysis.
Symptoms of peritonitis include abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, with reduced or absent bowel sounds. Movement and coughing can worsen pain symptoms. Patients may have a fever and become tachycardic as the condition progresses due to intracapsular hypovolemia, release of inflammatory mediators, and third space losses. As the condition worsens, patients may become hypotensive, indicating signs of sepsis.
Treatment for peritonitis involves rapid identification and treatment of the source, aggressive fluid resuscitation, and targeted antibiotic therapy.
It is important to note that hyperactive tinkling bowel sounds are suggestive of obstruction, whereas patients with peritonitis typically present with a rigid abdomen and increased abdominal guarding. Pain tends to worsen with movement, as opposed to conditions such as renal colic where the patient may writhe around in pain.
In severe cases, patients with peritonitis may become hypothermic, but this is not a common presentation. Understanding the symptoms and treatment of peritonitis is crucial for prompt and effective management of this serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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In clozapine-treated patients, what is the treatment for hypersalivation?
Your Answer: Procyclidine
Correct Answer: Hyoscine
Explanation:Treatment for Clozapine-Induced Hypersalivation: Hyoscine and Other Options
Hypersalivation, or excessive saliva production, is a common side effect of clozapine treatment. While it usually subsides over time, it can be distressing for patients and may even pose a risk of aspiration pneumonia. Limited trial data exists on treatments for clozapine-induced hypersalivation, but hyoscine, a type of anticholinergic medication, is commonly used. Other options include pirenzepine and benzhexol. It’s important to note that procyclidine is typically used for acute dystonia, not hypersalivation, and medications like propranolol, risperidone, and lorazepam are not indicated for this side effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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A 3-month-old baby was brought to the emergency department three days ago with a purpuric rash, fever, vomiting, and reduced wet nappies. During the assessment, the baby had a seizure which resolved on its own. The baby was admitted and tested for meningitis. A lumbar puncture was done and the laboratory results showed elevated protein levels, increased white cells, and a gram-positive organism. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this infant?
Your Answer: IV amoxicillin and IV cefotaxime
Explanation:In the case of suspected or confirmed bacterial meningitis in children under 3 months old, corticosteroids should not be used. For an infant with lumbar puncture results indicating bacterial meningitis, a combination of IV amoxicillin and IV cefotaxime is the appropriate antibiotic choice to cover both gram positive and gram negative bacteria until a specific pathogen is identified. Prescribing only amoxicillin would not provide sufficient coverage. It is crucial to administer antibiotics in this situation and not withhold treatment.
Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Correct
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What is the most common way in which a child with Wilms' tumour presents?
Your Answer: An asymptomatic abdominal mass
Explanation:Wilms’ Tumour in Children
Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a type of kidney cancer that is commonly found in children. It is usually detected when a parent notices a lump while bathing or dressing their child, typically around the age of three. Unlike other types of cancer, Wilms’ tumour rarely presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain, vomiting, or hypertension.
It is important for parents to be aware of the signs and symptoms of Wilms’ tumour, as early detection can greatly improve the chances of successful treatment. Regular check-ups with a pediatrician can also help in identifying any potential issues. If a parent does notice a lump or any other unusual symptoms in their child, they should seek medical attention immediately. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, many children with Wilms’ tumour can go on to live healthy, normal lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male is set to undergo a laparoscopic cholecystectomy tomorrow afternoon. The patient is diabetic and takes gliclazide twice daily. He inquires if he can continue taking his medication leading up to the surgery.
What guidance should the doctor provide?Your Answer: Omit medication on both the day prior to, and of the surgery
Correct Answer: Take medication on the day prior to surgery and omit both doses on day of surgery
Explanation:Long-acting insulins should be taken on the day before admission and the day of surgery, instead of sulfonylureas.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation is experiencing uncontrolled tachycardia despite treatment with digoxin and bisoprolol, leading to acute left ventricular dysfunction. The patient has been prescribed amiodarone. What investigation must be done before starting amiodarone?
Your Answer: eGFR
Correct Answer: Thyroid function test
Explanation:Amiodarone and Thyroid Function
Amiodarone, a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, can have adverse effects on thyroid function. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can occur as a result of amiodarone use. Clinical assessment alone may not be reliable in detecting these disorders, so the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends laboratory testing before treatment and every six months during therapy.
It is important to note that amiodarone can cause an elevation in thyroxine (T4) levels, even in the absence of hyperthyroidism. This is due to the medication’s inhibition of the conversion of T4 to triiodothyronine (T3). Therefore, it is crucial to test for both thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and T3 in addition to T4.
In addition to thyroid dysfunction, amiodarone can also be hepatotoxic, meaning it can cause liver damage. If evidence of liver dysfunction develops, treatment with amiodarone should be discontinued. Regular monitoring and testing can help detect and manage these potential adverse effects of amiodarone therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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What is the greatest risk of complications for an elderly patient with severe urosepsis who has received a once daily dose of gentamicin at 7 mg/kg and has gentamicin levels exceeding 2 mg/L after 24 hours?
Your Answer: Nephrotoxicity
Explanation:Gentamicin and its potential side effects
Gentamicin is a medication that can cause nephrotoxicity, especially in elderly patients with renal impairment. This is more likely to occur if the drug accumulates over time, leading to acute tubular necrosis. Therefore, it is crucial to administer gentamicin according to body weight and monitor levels regularly. Elderly patients are at a higher risk of acute renal failure, so extra caution is necessary. If the gentamicin trough exceeds 2 mg/L, the next dose should not be given.
In addition to nephrotoxicity, gentamicin can also cause vestibulotoxicity, which can result in permanent loss of equilibrioception. This side effect usually occurs when the drug is taken at high doses for an extended period, although there have been cases where it developed within a few days. However, this side effect can be beneficial in treating severe Meniere’s disease.
Unlike nephrotoxicity and vestibulotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and retinopathy are not typically associated with gentamicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who has recently returned from holiday to Australia presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset chest pain and shortness of breath. The patient has no medical history of note and takes no medication, apart from the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP).
On examination, the patient is significantly breathless at rest, with a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min. Oxygen saturations are 91% on high-flow oxygen; her blood pressure is 105/65 mmHg, and her heart rate is 110 bpm and regular. Her temperature is 37.5 °C.
On examination of the chest, breath sounds are normal, with good air entry. No focal signs are found.
Which of the following investigations would be the most appropriate to confirm the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Pulmonary Embolism
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. There are several diagnostic tests available to confirm or rule out the presence of PE.
Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the most commonly used test for patients with a high clinical probability of PE or those with a positive D-dimer test. Chest X-ray may be helpful in excluding alternative diagnoses, but specific signs of PE are rarely found. Electrocardiogram (ECG) may show signs of right heart strain and tachycardia, but it is not the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis. D-dimer test is non-specific and less useful in patients with a high clinical suspicion of PE. Ventilation-perfusion scanning may be useful when CT scanning is not available or contraindicated, but CTPA remains the method of choice to confirm the diagnosis.
In summary, a combination of clinical assessment and appropriate diagnostic tests is necessary to diagnose PE accurately and promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 16
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his parents. He has a two day history of general malaise, vomiting and vague abdominal discomfort. Over the past twelve hours he has become increasingly drowsy.
On examination, he was unresponsive to verbal commands. His temperature was 36.5°C and his blood pressure was 74/48 mmHg. The following investigations were done:
- Sodium: 121 mmol/L (137-144)
- Potassium: 6.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 11.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 162 µmol/L (60-110)
- Glucose: 1.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
- Chloride: 91 mmol/L (95-107)
- Bicarbonate: 14 mmol/L (20-28)
After giving emergency treatment, what single investigation would be most valuable in confirming the diagnosis?Your Answer: Tetracosactrin (Synacthen) test
Explanation:Addisonian Crisis and Diagnosis with Synacthen Test
The patient is experiencing an Addisonian crisis, which is a life-threatening condition caused by a severe deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone hormones. To confirm the diagnosis of Addison’s disease, a Synacthen test is performed. This test involves injecting a synthetic hormone called Synacthen, which stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol. Blood samples are taken before and after the injection to measure the levels of cortisol in the blood. If the adrenal glands are functioning properly, the cortisol levels will increase significantly after the injection. However, if the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, the levels will remain low. The Synacthen test is a reliable and accurate way to diagnose Addison’s disease and determine the appropriate treatment plan. It is important to diagnose and treat Addison’s disease promptly to prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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A toddler girl is brought to the emergency room with her abdominal contents protruding from the abdominal cavity. The contents are lined by the peritoneum. Her parents did not seek any prenatal scans during pregnancy.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Omphalocele
Explanation:Common Congenital Abnormalities: An Overview
Congenital abnormalities are defects present at birth, which can affect various parts of the body. Here are some common congenital abnormalities and their characteristics:
Omphalocele: This condition occurs when a baby’s abdominal contents protrude outside the abdominal cavity, covered by the sac (amnion). It is associated with other anomalies and requires surgical closure.
Gastroschisis: In this condition, organs herniate in the abdominal wall, but they are not covered by the peritoneum. It is not associated with other anomalies and has a good prognosis.
Tracheoesophageal fistula (TOF): TOF refers to a communication between the trachea and oesophagus, usually associated with oesophageal atresia. It can cause choking, coughing, and cyanosis during feeding, and is often accompanied by other congenital anomalies.
Myelomeningocele: This is a type of spina bifida where the spinal cord and meninges herniate through a hole in the spinal vertebra. It can cause paralysis, incontinence, and other complications, and requires surgical closure and hydrocephalus drainage.
Meningocele: This is another type of spina bifida where the meninges and fluid herniate through an opening in the vertebral bodies with skin covering. It has a good prognosis and requires surgical closure.
Understanding these congenital abnormalities can help parents and healthcare providers identify and manage them early on, improving outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents to the ED with sudden onset of pain and swelling in his left testicle. During the examination, the physician notes the absence of the cremasteric reflex. What additional finding would provide the strongest evidence for the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Retracted testicle
Explanation:Testicular torsion is characterized by sudden onset of acute pain, unilateral swelling, and retraction of the testicle, along with the absence of the cremasteric reflex. This distinguishes it from other causes of testicular pain and swelling, such as epididymitis and epididymo-orchitis, which typically have a slower onset. Perianal bruising is not a symptom of testicular torsion, but rather a sign of perianal hematoma. Although testicular torsion is usually very painful, a pain score below 8/10 does not necessarily rule it out. A temperature is more indicative of an infective process like epididymo-orchitis. While testicular torsion is more common in adolescents, it can also occur in a 32-year-old male, but other causes of testicular swelling should also be considered.
Testicular Torsion: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Testicular torsion is a medical condition that occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to testicular ischaemia and necrosis. This condition is most common in males aged between 10 and 30, with a peak incidence between 13 and 15 years. The symptoms of testicular torsion are sudden and severe pain, which may be referred to the lower abdomen. Nausea and vomiting may also be present. On examination, the affected testis is usually swollen, tender, and retracted upwards, with reddened skin. The cremasteric reflex is lost, and elevation of the testis does not ease the pain (Prehn’s sign).
The treatment for testicular torsion is urgent surgical exploration. If a torted testis is identified, both testes should be fixed, as the condition of bell clapper testis is often bilateral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A patient aged 50 presents to the ENT clinic with facial pain. The patient reports experiencing frequent attacks of pain around the left eye and left cheek, with up to 15-20 attacks per day. The attacks are short, lasting 3-4 minutes but can last up to 15 minutes, and can be triggered by neck movements. The patient also experiences watering of the left eye during the attacks. There are no associated symptoms of vomiting, aversion to light or sound, or limb weakness. Both ear, nose, and throat and neurological examinations are normal, and the patient is normotensive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
Correct Answer: Paroxysmal hemicrania
Explanation:Distinguishing Paroxysmal Hemicrania from Other Headache Syndromes
Paroxysmal hemicrania is a type of headache syndrome that is characterized by intense pain on one side of the face lasting for 2-25 minutes. Unlike other headache syndromes, the pain never occurs on the opposite side of the face. Autonomic symptoms such as rhinorrhea, ptosis, watering of the eye, and eyelid edema are often present. Neck movements or pressure on the neck can trigger the attacks, and the headache responds well to indomethacin. It is important to distinguish paroxysmal hemicrania from other headache syndromes such as migraine, trigeminal neuralgia, cluster headache, and frontal lobe glioblastoma. Migraine typically presents with intermittent attacks accompanied by photophobia, phonophobia, or nausea. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by shorter electric shock-like pains in response to specific stimuli. Cluster headache consists of fewer but longer attacks per day, occurring at a consistent time, and with minimal response to indomethacin. Frontal lobe glioblastoma is not consistent with the history of paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of itchy, red, and watery eyes. She reports that the symptoms started in her left eye four days ago and have since spread to her right eye. Upon examination, bilateral redness and watery discharge are observed in both eyes. The patient has a history of using reusable contact lenses and reports that her 4-year-old son had similar symptoms a week ago. What management advice should the GP provide for this likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Do not wear contact lenses until symptoms have resolved. Clean the eyelids with a wet cloth and apply a cold compress as needed to relieve symptoms
Explanation:It is not recommended to wear contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. The patient should refrain from using contact lenses until their symptoms have completely resolved. They can clean their eyelids with a wet cloth and use a cold compress as needed to alleviate discomfort. This is likely a case of viral conjunctivitis, which can be managed conservatively with good eye hygiene and cold compresses. Wearing contact lenses during this time can worsen symptoms as they may act as an irritant or carry infections. Administering chloramphenicol eye drops every 3 hours and using a cold compress is not appropriate for viral conjunctivitis. Continuing to wear contact lenses while using a cold compress is also not recommended. The patient should discard their current lenses, wait until their symptoms have resolved, and start using new lenses again.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl with known coeliac disease develops a symmetrical prurigo with numerous vesicles on her shoulders, back, and buttocks. She is also currently experiencing several mouth ulcers.
What is the probable diagnosis for her skin rash?Your Answer: Guttate psoriasis
Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatments
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a rare skin condition that is linked to gluten sensitivity. It causes clusters of blisters to appear symmetrically on the scalp, shoulders, buttocks, elbows, and knees. Treatment involves a gluten-free diet and medication to reduce itching.
Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a chronic and itchy skin condition that is very common. It can appear anywhere on the body and is often treated with topical steroids and moisturizers.
Seborrheic dermatitis is a chronic form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp and face. It causes redness, itching, and flaking of the skin. Treatment involves medicated shampoos and topical creams.
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes small, teardrop-shaped plaques all over the body. It often follows a streptococcal throat infection and is treated with topical steroids and phototherapy.
Eczema pompholyx, also known as hand/foot eczema, is characterized by blisters on the hands and feet. Treatment involves avoiding irritants and using topical steroids and moisturizers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Correct
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A woman is being evaluated for a chronic cranial nerve lesion in the outpatient clinic. She has no facial weakness, and examination of the eyes reveals a full range of movement. She reports no difficulties with vision, smell, taste, hearing or balance, and facial and pharyngeal sensation is normal. Her gag reflex is present and normal, and she can shrug her shoulders equally on both sides. Her speech is slurred and indistinct, and on protruding her tongue, it deviates to the right side and there is notable fasciculation and atrophy of the musculature on the right.
With what are these findings most likely to be associated?Your Answer: Lower motor neurone lesion of the right cranial nerve XII
Explanation:Differentiating Lesions of Cranial Nerves Involved in Tongue Movement and Sensation
Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Cranial Nerve XII:
Fasciculation and atrophy indicate a lower motor neurone lesion. In this case, the tongue deviates to the side of the damage due to unopposed action of the genioglossus of the opposite side. The cranial nerve involved in motor supply to the muscles of the tongue is the hypoglossal cranial nerve (XII).Upper Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Cranial Nerve XII:
An upper motor neurone lesion will produce weakness and spasticity. The tongue will deviate away from the side of the damage, in this case to the left.Upper Motor Neurone Lesion of the Left Cranial Nerve VII:
An upper motor neurone lesion will produce weakness and spasticity. The tongue will deviate away from the side of the damage. Even though the tongue does deviate to the right in this case, the presence of atrophy is seen in LMN and not in UMN.Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Left Cranial Nerve VII:
This would cause lower motor neurone symptoms (weakness and flaccidity) on the left side.Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Glossopharyngeal Nerve:
The glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) provides the posterior third of the tongue with taste and somatic sensation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with agitation, dry mouth, and blurred vision. He has a history of major depression and admits to taking an overdose of amitriptyline two hours ago in an attempt to end his life. Upon examination, his respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min, heart rate is 110 beats/min, and temperature is 37.7°C. What is the primary investigation that should be conducted based on the patient's clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Serum tricyclic antidepressants concentration
Correct Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Explanation:If tricyclic overdose is suspected, it is important to perform an ECG to check for any abnormalities. A QRS widening of over 100ms is linked to a higher risk of seizures, while a QRS widening of over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias. Tricyclic overdose can cause sinus tachycardia, QRS widening, and QT interval prolongation. Therefore, an ECG should be conducted on all patients who have intentionally poisoned themselves (or have an unknown cause of altered GCS) to screen for TCA overdose. While urine drug screens, serum tricyclic antidepressant levels, and arterial blood gas tests can help diagnose tricyclic overdose, they are not the most crucial initial tests. Although an electroencephalogram can detect seizure activity in the brain, it does not change the management plan for tricyclic overdose.
Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.
Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the surgery to renew her prescription for oral contraception. She is in good health, has no symptoms, and is not taking any medications. She does not smoke and has a BMI of 23 kg/m2. However, her blood pressure has been measured at 170/100 mmHg on multiple occasions. A thorough physical examination reveals no abnormalities, and her medical records show no history of hypertension.
The following test results were obtained:
- Sodium: 145 mmol/L (normal range: 137-144)
- Potassium: 2.9 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 4.0 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 89 mol/L (normal range: 60-110)
- Bicarbonate: 35 mmol/L (normal range: 20-28)
What is the most likely cause of her visit to the surgery?Your Answer: Conn's syndrome
Explanation:Diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldosteronism
Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is the most likely diagnosis for a young patient with hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. While the prevalence of this condition in unselected hypertensive patients is around 2%, it should be actively excluded in patients with these symptoms. A spot urine potassium test can be used as an initial investigation for hypokalaemia, with a level above 30 mmol/l indicating that GI loss and laxative abuse are unlikely. An elevated aldosterone:renin ratio is present in primary hyperaldosteronism, and blood test requirements should be discussed with the laboratory before investigation.
While diuretic abuse can cause hypokalaemia, it is much less common than primary hyperaldosteronism, and hypertension is not typically present. Cushing’s syndrome, which is associated with hypokalaemia and alkalosis, can be screened for with a 24-hour urinary cortisol test, but this condition is less likely in a patient without other features of the syndrome. Addison’s disease, or hypoadrenalism, can be screened for with a short Synacthen test, which is used to detect hyperpigmentation, hypotension, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia.
In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism should be considered as a potential diagnosis in young patients with hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Proper testing and screening can help rule out other potential causes of these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP clinic with his father for an asthma check-up. He is currently on Clenil® Modulite® (beclomethasone) 100 μg twice daily as a preventer inhaler, but still needs to use his salbutamol inhaler 2-3 times a day. During the examination, he is able to complete sentences, not using any accessory muscles of respiration, his oxygen saturation is 99%, his chest is clear, and PEFR is 85% of his predicted value. What is the recommended next step in managing this patient according to the latest BTS guidelines?
Your Answer: Increase dose of Inhaled corticosteroids
Correct Answer: Add formoterol a long-acting beta agonist (LABA)
Explanation:Managing Pediatric Asthma: Choosing the Next Step in Treatment
When treating pediatric asthma, it is important to follow guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for the patient. According to the 2019 SIGN/BTS guidelines, the next step after low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be to add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) or leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to ICS. However, it is important to note that the NICE guidelines differ in that LTRA is recommended before LABA.
If the patient does not respond adequately to LABA and a trial of LTRA does not yield benefit, referral to a pediatrician is advised. Increasing the dose of ICS should only be considered after the addition of LTRA or LABA.
It is crucial to never stop ICS therapy, as adherence to therapy is a guiding principle in managing pediatric asthma. LABAs should never be used alone without ICS, as this has been linked to life-threatening asthma exacerbations. Always follow guidelines and consult with a pediatrician for the best possible treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man is evaluated by the prehospital trauma team after being in a car accident. The team decides that rapid sequence induction with intubation is necessary to treat his condition. Etomidate is chosen as the induction agent. What significant adverse effect should be kept in mind when administering this anesthetic agent?
Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia
Correct Answer: Adrenal suppression
Explanation:Adrenal suppression is a potential side effect of using etomidate, an induction agent commonly used in rapid sequence induction. This occurs due to the inhibition of the 11-beta-hydroxylase enzyme, resulting in decreased cortisol production and secretion from the adrenal gland. It is important to be aware of this side effect as it can lead to severe hypotension and require treatment with steroids.
Ketamine, another sedative used for procedural sedation, may cause hallucinations and behavioral changes. It is recommended to use ketamine in a calm and quiet environment whenever possible.
Volatile halogenated anaesthetics like isoflurane have been associated with hepatotoxicity, but etomidate is not known to cause any hepatic disorders.
Suxamethonium, a neuromuscular blocking drug used in anaesthetics, can cause malignant hyperthermia, a dangerous side effect that can lead to multi-organ failure and cardiovascular collapse. Dantrolene is used to treat malignant hyperthermia.
Overview of General Anaesthetics
General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.
Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.
It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 27
Correct
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An older man tries to lift a heavy shopping bag but experiences sudden pain in his shoulder. As a result, he feels soreness in the area of the greater tuberosity of the humerus. He notices that he cannot initiate abduction when he tries to move his shoulder, but can continue to abduct once the arm is lifted away from his side. The shoulder flexion and extension can be performed normally, and the humerus medial and lateral rotation is also unaffected. What is the most probable diagnosis for the tendon injury?
Your Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:Muscles of the Shoulder: Functions and Roles
The shoulder joint is a complex structure that relies on several muscles to perform its various movements. Here are some of the key muscles involved in shoulder movement and their functions:
Supraspinatus: This muscle initiates the first 15-20 degrees of abduction of the arm. After this point, the middle fibers of the deltoid take over. The supraspinatus is also part of the rotator cuff.
Infraspinatus: Along with the teres minor, the infraspinatus is a lateral rotator of the humerus. It is also part of the rotator cuff.
Deltoid: The deltoid muscle assists with shoulder abduction after the first 15-20 degrees, which is initiated by the supraspinatus.
Subscapularis: This muscle inserts into the lesser tuberosity of the humerus and is a medial rotator of the humerus. It also helps stabilize the shoulder joint as part of the rotator cuff.
Biceps brachii: This muscle is responsible for flexion of the arm and forearm, as well as supination of the forearm. However, it does not play a role in abduction of the humerus.
Understanding the functions and roles of these muscles can help with injury prevention and rehabilitation, as well as improving overall shoulder strength and mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 28
Correct
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A 55-year-old male patient reports experiencing excessive thirst and frequent urination for the past three months. What diagnostic measurement would confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: A fasting plasma glucose of 7.5 mmol/L
Explanation:Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed based on symptoms and a random glucose level above 11.1 mmol/L or fasting plasma glucose above 7 mmol/L or the two hour oral glucose tolerance test. Impaired glucose tolerance is indicated by a post OGTT plasma glucose between 7.7 and 11.1 or a fasting plasma glucose between 6.1 and 7. HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended as the cut point for diagnosing diabetes for suitable groups. A value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes diagnosed using glucose test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A patient in their 40s has a family history of blindness, phaeochromocytomas, renal cell carcinomas and haemangioblastomas.
Which gene is implicated?Your Answer: Menin
Correct Answer: VHL
Explanation:Genes and their associated conditions
Genes play a crucial role in the development and functioning of the human body. Mutations in certain genes can lead to the development of various conditions. Here are some examples:
Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) Syndrome:
VHL syndrome is a rare condition caused by mutations in the VHL gene on chromosome 3. It is characterized by the formation of benign and malignant tumors on various organs of the body, including the central nervous system, retina, kidneys, pancreas, and liver. Diagnosis is complex, and surveillance is recommended for early detection and treatment.RET Gene:
The RET gene on chromosome 10 codes for a protein involved in cell signaling and nervous system development. Mutations in this gene are associated with Hirschsprung’s disease, multiple endocrine neoplasia (type 2), lung cancer, and papillary thyroid carcinoma.NF1 Gene:
The NF1 gene on chromosome 17 codes for the neurofibromin protein, a tumor suppressor. Mutations in this gene are associated with neurofibromatosis type 1 and some cancers, such as juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia.c-Myc Gene:
The c-Myc gene on chromosome 8 codes for a transcription factor protein that regulates the expression of other genes. Mutations in this gene have been linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma.MEN1 Gene:
The MEN1 gene on chromosome 11 codes for the menin protein, a tumor suppressor. Mutations in this gene can lead to the development of multiple endocrine neoplasia (type 1), hyperparathyroidism, parathyroid adenomas, pancreatic tumors, and bronchial carcinoids.Genes and their associated conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman presents for review of her chronic kidney disease.
Her investigation results show:
Investigation Result Normal range
Calcium 1.70 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Potassium 6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Phosphate 2.5 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Urea 80 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 400 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
What is the mechanism for the low calcium?Your Answer: Reduced vitamin D hydroxylation
Explanation:This patient has hypocalcaemia due to chronic renal failure, which reduces the production of calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D that plays a crucial role in calcium absorption. Calcitriol increases the permeability of tight junctions in the small intestine, allowing for the absorption of calcium through both passive and active pathways. In the active pathway, calcitriol stimulates the production of calbindin, which helps transport calcium into the enteral cells. However, in chronic kidney disease, the hydroxylation of calcidiol to calcitriol is impaired, leading to reduced calcium absorption and hypocalcaemia. Other potential causes of hypocalcaemia, such as increased tubular loss of calcium or a parathyroid tumour, have been ruled out in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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